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  • Question 1 - A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.Note:Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.- Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve- Lingual nerve- Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection. The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the cause for tinea incognito? ...

    Correct

    • What is the cause for tinea incognito?

      Your Answer: Inappropriate treatment with steroid cream

      Explanation:

      “Tinea incognito” is a term used to describe a tinea infection modified by topical steroids. It is caused by prolonged use of topical steroids, sometimes prescribed as a result of incorrect diagnosis. Topical steroids suppress the local immune response and allow the fungus to grow easily. As a result, the fungal infection may take on the bizarre appearance seen in this patient.The diagnosis of tinea incognito is simple to confirm by microscopic visualization of branching hyphae and spores typical of dermatophytes in a potassium hydroxide preparation.Treatment of tinea incognito requires cessation of all topical steroid use and implementation of specific antifungal treatment. A low-potency corticosteroid may be used briefly to avoid the flare often associated with abrupt cessation of a potent steroid. Patients should be warned of this possibility so they do not reinstitute use of topical steroids on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is true about Kwashiorkor Protein Energy Malnutrition? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about Kwashiorkor Protein Energy Malnutrition?

      Your Answer: Children affected have generalised oedema

      Explanation:

      Protein energy malnutrition often presents in two common forms, Kwashiorkor and Marasmus. Kwashiorkor is characterised by a protein deficiency with an additional inadequate calorie intake. As a result, affected children present with oedema, muscular atrophy, and their weight for age is 60-80% of the expected weight. Their cutaneous tissue is however preserved. Marasmus on the other hand is characterised by a severe calorie deficiency leading to atrophy of the muscles and adipose tissue, with weight loss being less than 60% of the normal. In both cases, if the child is not promptly rehabilitated, the malnutrition could cause irreversible damage, such as hepatic, cardiac and renal impairments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 4 year old boy, who is mentally unstable, accidentally shoves a pea...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old boy, who is mentally unstable, accidentally shoves a pea into his ear while eating. Otoscopic examination reveals a green coloured object in the ear canal. Which of the following would be the best approach to get rid of the pea?

      Your Answer: Under GA

      Explanation:

      For Otorhinolaryngologist, removal of foreign bodies (FB) from the ear, nose and throat is one of the common emergency procedures done. Most of the cases especially of the ear and nose can be managed without General Anaesthesia (GA). But in some cases GA may be needed. As the child is mentally unstable, he is unlikely to be able to hold still while the foreign body (pea) is being removed with a forceps, which could result in instrumental damage to the ear canal. Pea is an organic foreign body and not metallic hence the use of magnets would not be of any help either. From the options provided, general anaesthesia would be the best option in this child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?

      Your Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hairStage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majoraStage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curlyStage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighsStage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is the strongest indicator for IV fluid administration?

      Your Answer: Capillary refilling time > 4secs

      Explanation:

      Children are very prone to dehydration during an episode of gastroenteritis. Dehydration is detected early by increased capillary filling time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is not associated with hirsutism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not associated with hirsutism?

      Your Answer: Delayed puberty

      Explanation:

      Hirsutism is the growth of excess hair in androgen dependent areas or in a male pattern. The phenomenon is found in conditions where there is abnormal androgen action. This can occur in adrenal lesions including congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome, or a failure to produce adequate female hormones such as PCOS and premature menopause. Similarly, drugs such as anabolic steroids, danazol and minoxidil can also cause hirsutism. Delayed puberty is unlikely to cause hirsutism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 3-year-old girl presented with rhinorrhoea, barking cough and inspiratory stridor. She was...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl presented with rhinorrhoea, barking cough and inspiratory stridor. She was diagnosed with laryngotracheobronchitis. If untreated at this stage which of the following would be the most probable outcome?

      Your Answer: Complete resolution

      Explanation:

      The prognosis for croup is excellent, and recovery is almost always complete with complications being quite rare. The possible complications are pneumonia, bacterial tracheitis, pulmonary oedema, pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, lymphadenitis or otitis media. Bacterial tracheitis is a life-threatening infection that can arise after the onset of an acute viral respiratory infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg...

    Correct

    • A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?

      Your Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?

      Your Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Withdrawal from which of the following substances is associated with hypersomnia, hyperphagia, irritability?...

    Correct

    • Withdrawal from which of the following substances is associated with hypersomnia, hyperphagia, irritability?

      Your Answer: Amphetamine

      Explanation:

      Drug withdrawal symptoms after a period of substance abuse can lead to a range of symptoms. Amphetamines are known to cause hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and irritability, as well as vivid dreams as a result of withdrawal. Similar symptoms are found in cocaine withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal presents with symptoms such as insomnia, tremulousness and delirium. Ecstasy withdrawal includes irritation, mood swings, fatigue and insomnia. Heroin withdrawal presents with symptoms which include dilated pupils, insomnia, abdominal cramps and muscle aches. Withdrawal from prolonged cannabis use can cause depression, anxiety restlessness and insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he was complaining of pain and swelling. The x-ray showed the classic sign of Codman's triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Codman’s triangle is the triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises the periosteum away from the bone. The main causes for this sign are osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, eumycetoma, and a subperiosteal abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the first sign of puberty in girls? ...

    Correct

    • What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

      Your Answer: Breast development

      Explanation:

      The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11.The first sign of puberty in girls is usually that their breasts begin to develop.It’s normal for breast buds to sometimes be very tender or for one breast to start to develop several months before the other one.Pubic hair also starts to grow, and some girls may notice more hair on their legs and arms.After a year or so of puberty beginning, and for the next couple of years:girls’ breasts continue to grow and become fuller.Around 2 years after beginning puberty, girls usually have their first period,pubic hair becomes coarser and curlierunderarm hair begins to grow. From the time their periods start, girls grow 5 to 7.5cm (2 to 3 inches) annually over the next year or two, then reach their adult height.After about 4 years of puberty in girls:breasts become adult-likepubic hair has spread to the inner thighgenitals should now be fully developedgirls stop growing taller.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following best describes odds ratios? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes odds ratios?

      Your Answer: The odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another

      Explanation:

      Odds ratios are best described as the odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another. They form an alternative to the relative risk in case–control studies and are close to the relative risk when events are rare. The odds are the number of the event divided by the number without the event, which is less intuitive than the risk, which is the number with the event divided by the total. Odds ratios are therefore less intuitive than relative risks. Logistic regression analysis outputs variable coefficients which are the log of the odds ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 4-year-old female was suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection. Her mother...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old female was suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection. Her mother treated her with paracetamol only, for 5 days. After that, she presented in the emergency room with severe pain in her left ear, high-grade fever and irritability. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis media (OM)

      Explanation:

      Upper respiratory tract infection when not treated accordingly can lead to otitis media and the patient presents with severe earache and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop. On examination, there is weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. A small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of the right foot is also present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sciatic nerve lesion

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      Injuries to the peroneal nerve can cause numbness, tingling, pain, weakness and foot drop. The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate and control the muscles in the legs that lift the ankle and toes upward (dorsi flexion).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?

      Your Answer: Laron's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is...

    Correct

    • A neonate presents with hypospadias and impalpable testes.Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Undescended testes are associated with subfertility even if very early orchiopexy is performed

      Explanation:

      Undescended testis (UDT) is a common abnormality, affecting about 1/20 males at birth. Half of these have delayed testicular descent, with the testis in the scrotum by 10-12 weeks after term. Beyond this spontaneous descent is rare. Current treatment recommendations are that UDT beyond 3 months need surgery between 6-12 months of age. Some children have scrotal testes in infancy but develop UDT later in childhood because the spermatic cord does not elongate with age, leaving the testis behind as the scrotum moves further from the groin. The maldescended testis suffers heat stress when not at the lower scrotal temperature (33 degrees Celsius), interfering with testicular physiology and development of germ cells into spermatogonia. Recent evidence suggests orchidopexy between 6-12 months improves germ cell development, with early reports of improved fertility, but no evidence yet for changes in malignancy prognosis.Hypospadias is also a common abnormality in new-born males, affecting about 1/150 boys. Androgens control masculinization of the genital tubercle into penis between 8-12 weeks’ gestation, with tabularization of the urethra from the perineum to the tip of the glans. If this process is disrupted hypospadias occurs, with a variable proximal urethral meatus, failed ventral preputial development producing a dorsal hood, and discrepancy in the ventral versus dorsal penile length, causing a ventral bend in the penis, known as chordee. Surgery to correct hypospadias is recommended between 6-18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tuner’s syndrome is not associated with arachnodactyly.Arachnodactyly is seen in the following conditions:- Marfan syndrome- Homocystinuria- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome- Congenital contractural arachnodactylyOther rare syndromes include:- Loeys-Dietz syndrome- Antley-Bixler syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Lujan-Frinz syndrome- Haim-Munk syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Spondylocostal dysostosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?

      Your Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta?

      Your Answer: 70% of patients have bicuspid aortic valves

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases Occurring in about 1 in 2,500 births. It is characterized by a congenitally narrowed proximal thoracic aorta. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve in 70% of the cases and berry aneurysms in 10% of the cases. Coarctation of the aorta is commonly found in association with Turner’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, and Patau syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and...

    Correct

    • An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction. One of the most common causes of stridor in children is laryngomalacia. In the absence of laryngomalacia, stridor presenting with respiratory distress, few chest signs and no preceding coryza symptoms or fever all point to the inhalation of a foreign object. This is common in children, with a peak incidence between 1 and 2 years of age. This child did not present with a high temperature, usually indicative of epiglottitis . The incidence of epiglottis has decreased due to the H. Influenza type b vaccine. Additionally viral croup and bronchiolitis present with upper respiratory tract infection. Asthma rarely presents with stridor but is rather associated with a wheeze.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves disease?

      Your Answer: Association with HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which patients present with thyrotoxicosis and related ophthalmopathy, and dermopathy. Many affected patients experience hyperthyroidism. Peak incidence of graves disease is after the 3rd decade of life and is more common in women than in men. Graves susceptibility is association with HLA-DR3. Clinical features of Graves disease include an increased metabolic rate, heat intolerance, irritability, weight loss despite increasing appetite, diarrhoea palpitations, chemosis, acropachy and onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive...

    Correct

    • Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

      Your Answer: T cells

      Explanation:

      Patients with HIV have a deficiency of CD4 lymphocytes which are also known as helper T cells (Th). They are involved with antigen-specific responses as well as delayed-type hypersensitivity. The risk of developing P. jiroveci pneumonia is greatest with a CD4 count of 200 x 109/l or below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most likely cause for bloody diarrhoea of 3 days duration...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely cause for bloody diarrhoea of 3 days duration in a 10-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Explanation:

      The most common cause for acute bloody diarrhoea in a 10-year-old child is Campylobacter.Note:Campylobacter is the most common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It typically presents with bloody diarrhoea, fever, abdominal pain and vomiting. The primary source of Campylobacter is uncooked poultry. Treatment is generally supportive unless the child is immunosuppressed or the symptoms are persistent.Other options:- E. coli 0157:H7: It causes acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea, usually afebrile. It can lead to haemolytic uremic syndrome (haemolytic anaemia, acute renal failure and thrombocytopenia), which is the commonest cause of acute renal failure in children.- Rotavirus: It rarely causes bloody diarrhoea.- Salmonella and Yersinia: While they can cause bloody diarrhoea, they are much less common compared to Campylobacter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal...

    Correct

    • A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Explanation:

      In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?

      Your Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?

      Your Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium

      Explanation:

      In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is true regarding teenage pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding teenage pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Maternal weight gain is maximum during mid-pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Teenagers may have poor eating habits and neglect to take their vitamin supplements. They are less likely than older women to be of adequate pre-pregnancy weight or to gain an adequate amount of weight during pregnancy. Low weight gain increases the risk of having a low birthweight baby. Weight gain is maximal during the 2nd trimester.aPTT and gallbladder emptying is decreased during pregnancy whereas d-dimers is increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 10-month-old girl was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old girl was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.Which of the following is NOT a requirement to perform imaging studies in this child?

      Your Answer: E.coli UTI

      Explanation:

      E. coli accounts for the majority of UTI’s in children. If this child responds well to treatment and has no recurrence of his symptoms, then no form of imaging is required, as per NICE advice for children aged 6 months to 3 years. Had the child been less than 6 months of age, then a USS at 6 weeks would be necessary.Other options:- Pseudomonas causes atypical UTI. This warrants ultrasonography within the acute illness phase as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Recurrent UTI is defined as two or more episodes of pyelonephritis OR 1 pyelonephritis and one cystitis OR 3 or more cystitis. It requires USS at six weeks and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Septicaemia is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Unwell 48hrs post antibiotics is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as may reflect underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (5/5) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (4/5) 80%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (3/3) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
HIV (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (2/2) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed