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  • Question 1 - Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is rarely associated with hyposplenism?

      Your Answer: Myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism usually occurs after the surgical removal of the spleen or in pathological processes where the splenic tissue is replaced with abnormal tissue. It is often associated with diseases such as sickle cell disease, Coeliac disease, SLE and Dermatitis Herpetiformis. Myxoedema however bears no known association with hyposplenism. Patients with hyposplenism are at risk of fulminant bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      125.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following...

    Correct

    • Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been...

    Correct

    • As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been informed of a case of ambiguous genitalia in which the midwife was unable to decide the gender at birth. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Inform the parents that a number of investigations will need to be performed and that they will need to wait before a sex is assigned

      Explanation:

      Cases of neonatal infant ambiguous genitalia can be a great source of psychological stress for families. One of the most important next steps in managing the case is reassuring the parents that the best care will be given to the baby and then informing them about the investigations that will need to be performed before a sex can be assigned. The sex should not be guessed just by examination nor assigned by karyotyping. Thorough investigations must be completed with the help of endocrinologists for the best outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have large testes. Which condition does the child most likely have?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Usually, males are more severely affected by this disorder than females.Affected individuals usually have delayed development of speech and language by age 2. Most males with fragile X syndrome have mild to moderate intellectual disability, while about one-third of affected females are intellectually disabled. Children with fragile X syndrome may also have anxiety and hyperactive behaviour such as fidgeting or impulsive actions. They may have attention deficit disorder (ADD), which includes an impaired ability to maintain attention and difficulty focusing on specific tasks. About one-third of individuals with fragile X syndrome have features of autism spectrum disorder that affect communication and social interaction. Seizures occur in about 15 percent of males and about 5 percent of females with fragile X syndrome.Most males and about half of females with fragile X syndrome have characteristic physical features that become more apparent with age. These features include a long and narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and in males, enlarged testicles (macroorchidism) after puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that causes obstructive jaundice. Without surgical treatment, e.g. Roux-en-Y, Kasai procedure or liver transplantation, death is likely by 2 years of age. The aetiology of biliary atresia is unknown. Theories suggest a multitude of etiological and causative factors that are both genetic and acquired.The other conditions do not cause a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Ganciclovir

      Explanation:

      One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This...

    Correct

    • An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This congenital anomaly is most likely due to a developmental failure of which embryological structure?

      Your Answer: Endocardial cushions

      Explanation:

      The heart is the first organ to form and become functional, emphasizing the importance of transport of material to and from the developing infant. It originates about day 18 or 19 from the mesoderm and begins beating and pumping blood about day 21 or 22. It forms from the cardiogenic region near the head and is visible as a prominent heart bulge on the surface of the embryo. Originally, it consists of a pair of strands called cardiogenic cords that quickly form a hollow lumen and are referred to as endocardial tubes. These then fuse into a single heart tube and differentiate into the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, and sinus venosus, starting about day 22. The primitive heart begins to form an S shape within the pericardium between days 23 and 28. The internal septa begin to form about day 28, separating the heart into the atria and ventricles, although the foramen ovale persists until shortly after birth. Between weeks five and eight, the atrioventricular valves form. The semilunar valves form between weeks five and nine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      85.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child whose head circumference is on the 3rd centile? Note that his height and weight are in the 75th centile.

      Your Answer: Congenital rubella syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child is congenital rubella syndrome.Microcephaly is defined as head circumference > two standard deviations below the mean.The causes of microcephaly include:- Genetic disorders: Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, Patau syndrome, Williams syndrome, Angelman syndrome, and Rett syndrome.- Infective: Meningitis, toxoplasmosis, CMV, rubella, varicella, HIVand Zika.- Acquired causes: Severe brain malformations, neurodegenerative diseases, hypoxic-ischemic injury, infarction, antenatal exposure to drugs, alcohol, and other toxins. Severe malnutrition and uncontrolled phenylketonuria in the mother are other causes of microcephaly in children.- Craniosynostosis- Neurometabolic disorders- Early non-accidental trauma- Fanconi anaemia- Other causes include: Familial and nonfamilial nonsyndromic microcephalyMost children with microcephaly have one or several associated symptoms:- Developmental delay- Seizures- Visual abnormalities- Short stature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus:

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Itchy skin conditions include:Allergy & anaphylaxisAthletes footAtopic dermatitisContact dermatitisDrug allergyErythema multiformeFolliculitisImpetigoInsect bites, stings, infestationsKawasaki diseaseLichen planusNummular eczemaPityriasis roseaPsoriasisScabiesTinea corporisToxic epidermal necrolysisUrticariaVaricellaViral exanthemNote: Miliaria rubra is itchy, miliaria profunda usually isn’t.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts? ...

    Correct

    • Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (also known as von Recklinghausen disease) does not present with cataracts.The eye findings in NF1 are Lisch’s nodules, which are pigmentary lesions seen on the iris and constitute one of the major diagnostic features in this condition. Note:Interestingly, in another syndrome closely related to it, Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF-2), cataracts can occur. Early detection in family members may be made by finding lens opacities (both congenital polar cataracts and posterior lenticular opacities). Other options:- Incontinentia pigmenti is an X-linked dominant disorder with pigmentary skin changes, mental retardation and eye involvement in 40% of cases. – Myotonic dystrophy is a triplet-repeat disorder with neurological symptoms and cataracts. – Lowe syndrome (oculo-cerebro-renal syndrome) is an X-linked recessive condition. Males with this X-linked recessive condition have cataracts, hypotonia, mental retardation, generalised aminoaciduria and renal tubular acidosis with hypophosphatemia. – Wilson disease is an inborn error of copper metabolism. The clinical features include hepatic involvement, progressive neurological features, eye involvement, including Kayser–Fleischer rings and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the average age that puberty starts in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?

      Your Answer: 10 years

      Correct Answer: 12 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows diffuse eczema on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tinea pedis

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies infection in neonates typically manifests as nodular eruptions involving the face, neck, scalp, palms, and soles in contrast to the predominant involvement of the hands, wrists, elbows, and ankles in adults. Differential diagnoses for the nodular eruption in neonates are broad, and scabies often is misdiagnosed as Langerhans cell histiocytosis, urticaria pigmentosa, or another pruritic, bullous, or lymphoproliferative dermatosis. Histopathology of the reactive nodules usually is not diagnostic, because scabetic organisms are often unidentified and histologic findings are nonspecific. Furthermore, because of the atypical presentation, scabies in children is often missed until persons in close contact with the child present with similar symptoms. Thus, a thorough history and close follow-up are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary aggressive treatment. Moreover, synchronized treatment of patients and their close contacts is needed to ensure the success of therapy, considering that relapse is 2-3 times more frequent in children and infants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Coxsackie

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases? ...

    Correct

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases?

      Your Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Certain infections and medications cause characteristic skin lesions, which are the result of hypersensitivity reactions to these agents. A skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like circular lesions is referred to as erythema multiforme. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting with a propensity for distal extremities. The most common infectious cause is the infection with herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Other notable infectious causes of erythema multiforme include Mycoplasma pneumoniae, cytomegalovirus, HIV, hepatitis c virus, varicella zoster virus, adenovirus, and some fungal infections. Norovirus infection has not been implicated in the aetiology of erythema multiforme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 5 month old baby presents with failure to thrive, and the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old baby presents with failure to thrive, and the following blood results: Na=135 mmol/l K=2.3 mmol/lUrea=2.0 mmol/lCreatinine 30 µmol/lP=0.8 mmol/lBicarbonate=17 mmol/lCa=2.5 mmol/lAdditionally, urinalysis reveals 1+ glucose and 1+ protein. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bartter syndrome

      Correct Answer: Fanconi tubular syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fanconi tubular syndrome is characterised by malabsorption of various electrolytes and substances commonly absorbed by the proximal tubule. Hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is usually present. Also, urinalysis reveals an increased fractional excretion of glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back. What diagnosis should he be given?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever

      Correct Answer: Chicken pox

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. The clinical signs of infection are fever and a maculopapular rash – this is a unique rash with both flat and raised lesions on the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      66.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Combined pill

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Correct Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Erythema Migrans is associated with Lyme disease, a tic transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia Burgdorferi. The rash usually appears at the bite site after 7 to 10 days. It is flat or slightly raised and migrates as the name suggests. Streptococcal throat infection and Crohn’s disease are both associated with erythema nodosum.Herpes simplex and Rheumatic fever may present with Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Marginatum respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 13-year-old male with epilepsy presents to the emergency department. On examination, he...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old male with epilepsy presents to the emergency department. On examination, he is found to have a prominent carotid pulse but a feeble femoral pulse. He was also found to be hypertensive with blood pressure in his upper limbs found to be 40 mmHg more than that of the lower limbs.Auscultation reveals an ejection-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge and the left interscapular area and an audible ejection click at the apex.An ECG reveals features suggestive of mild left ventricular hypertrophy and a chest X-ray reveals mild cardiomegaly with notches on the lower surface of the 3rd, 4th and 5th ribs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the clinical scenario provided is coarctation of the aorta. It contributes to about 4% of all congenital heart disease and is more prominent in males than females.It is associated with trisomy 13 and 18, Turner syndrome, valproate toxicity as well as ventricular septal defects, persistent ductus arteriosus, mitral valve abnormalities and berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis. Other associated cardiac abnormalities include a bicuspid aortic valve (50%), mitral valve disease, aortic regurgitation (20%) and subaortic stenosis. Ninety-eight per cent of coarctations occur at the level of the pulmonary artery after the subclavian artery. It is for this reason that, on observation, the proximal blood pressure varies compared with the distal blood pressure. The blood pressure in the right arm is often higher than that in the left arm. Clinically, these children present with hypertension, prominent carotid pulses, radio-femoral delay, left ventricular hypertrophy and an ejection systolic murmur maximum over the posterior left interscapular area. An apical click over the aortic valve may be heard. Coarctation of the aorta may be simple (post-ductal), or complex (pre-ductal or with a septal defect), and may be associated with aortic stenosis, transposition of the great arteries or a bicuspid aortic valve. The ECG and chest radiograph may be normal. However, as the child enters the first decade, evidence of cardiomegaly, congestive heart failure, post-stenotic dilatation with a dilated subclavian artery and rib notching may be noticed. The ECG may show right ventricular hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy in infancy and right axis deviation. Complications of coarctation of the aorta include left ventricular failure, cerebral haemorrhage, aortic dissection, renal vascular stenosis and infective endocarditis. This condition may result in death due to an aortic aneurysm or rupture in the third or fourth decade of life. It may also cause premature ischaemic heart disease as a result of hypertension. If left untreated, 20% of individuals die before 20 years of age and 80% before 50 years of age. Treatment options include surgical balloon dilatation or the grafting of a subclavian flap, and should surgical correction not normalise the blood pressure, further medical management is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In an age and sex matched case control study, 30 adolescents with high...

    Incorrect

    • In an age and sex matched case control study, 30 adolescents with high blood pressure were compared to 30 controls from the same clinic. The mean birth weights of the two groups were compared using a paired t-test. The results indicated that the control group was 150 g heavier with a standard error of 100 g.Which one of these is the most appropriate conclusion?

      Your Answer: There is a statistically significant association (P< 0.05) between low birthweight and the development of adolescent hypertension

      Correct Answer: There is insufficient evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of hypertension in adolescence

      Explanation:

      In case control studies, observational studies are made to compare two groups, individuals with a certain condition, to those without the condition, with all other factors being equal. In the situation presented by the question, the study was to determine whether a prior risk factor, a low birth weight, was associated with later developing adolescent hypertension, using a paired t-test to statistically determine whether there was indeed a significant association between the two conditions. Case control studies only help to draw associations between two groups and therefore cannot indicate causation. In this scenario we are also not given the p value to determine whether the association is statistically significant. Therefore there is not enough evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of adolescent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      142.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates milk after a feed, especially when laying on her back. Doctors suspect gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR). What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Trial of Omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Reassure the parents

      Explanation:

      Most experts suggest that parents reassurance in case of infantile gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a sufficient initial measure that involves education about regurgitation and lifestyle changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 12-month-old baby with HIV is scheduled for his MMR vaccine. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old baby with HIV is scheduled for his MMR vaccine. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Proceed with standard immunization schedule

      Correct Answer: Don’t give the vaccine

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines such as the MMR, should be avoided in HIV+ patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement? ...

    Correct

    • Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement?

      Your Answer: Low serum creatinine

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is associated with a decrease in muscle mass, which is one of the primary locations of creatinine metabolism. Due to this, plasma creatinine levels are found to be decreased in patients with anorexia. Other blood chemistry derangements in patients of anorexia nervosa include hypercortisolism, hypoglycaemia, low free T3 levels, and hypercholesterolemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following is true about Kwashiorkor Protein Energy Malnutrition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about Kwashiorkor Protein Energy Malnutrition?

      Your Answer: Its effects are always reversed after nutritional rehabilitation

      Correct Answer: Children affected have generalised oedema

      Explanation:

      Protein energy malnutrition often presents in two common forms, Kwashiorkor and Marasmus. Kwashiorkor is characterised by a protein deficiency with an additional inadequate calorie intake. As a result, affected children present with oedema, muscular atrophy, and their weight for age is 60-80% of the expected weight. Their cutaneous tissue is however preserved. Marasmus on the other hand is characterised by a severe calorie deficiency leading to atrophy of the muscles and adipose tissue, with weight loss being less than 60% of the normal. In both cases, if the child is not promptly rehabilitated, the malnutrition could cause irreversible damage, such as hepatic, cardiac and renal impairments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints of a 0.5 cm cystic lump on the lateral aspect of her eyebrow. It has been present since birth but is slowly increasing in size. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: External angular dermoid

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be external angular dermoid.External angular dermoids typically form where there are overlapping tissue planes such as the midline. They contain a caseous material. The cysts are essentially benign in nature and are excised for cosmetic purposes or when they encroach on vision.Other options:- Branchial remnant typically presents as a supraclavicular pit.- Sebaceous cysts tend to be present on the scalp.- There is nothing in the clinical scenario to suggest a vascular malformation such as pigment change or ‘bag of worms’.- Lymphatic malformations are typically found in the neck or under the axilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly,...

    Correct

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery? ...

    Correct

    • What is embryological origin of the pulmonary artery?

      Your Answer: Sixth pharyngeal arch

      Explanation:

      There are 6 pharyngeal arches, the fifth does not contribute any useful structures and often fuses with the sixth arch. The structures arising from the aortic arches are as follows:First aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part that gives rise to the maxillary artery.Second aortic arch: It regresses except for a very small part giving rise to the stapedial artery.Third aortic arch: This arch is the source of the common carotid artery and the proximal part of the internal carotid artery, and the external carotid which arises as a bud from this arch.Right Fourth aortic arch: Is the genesis of the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.Left Fourth aortic arch: Gives rise to the medial portion of the arch of the aorta.Fifth aortic arch: The fifth aortic arch regresses completely and very early in the development.Sixth aortic arch: Either of the sixth aortic arches divides into ventral and dorsal segments, and therefore, their derivatives also divide into these two segments.Right Sixth Arch:Ventral: Gives rise to the right pulmonary artery.Dorsal: It degenerates completely and loses its connection with the dorsal aorta.Left Sixth ArchVentral: It gives rise to the left pulmonary artery that goes to the left pulmonary bud.Dorsal: It forms a vital connection during intrauterine life between the left pulmonary artery and the arch of the aorta. This structure is called ductus arteriosus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which...

    Correct

    • In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which one must consider biliary atresia as the probable cause?

      Your Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      After a period of 14 days, if jaundice persists in a term new-born, having ruled out the other possibilities, biliary atresia should be considered as a possible diagnosis.Biliary atresia is a rare but serious condition. Symptoms include obstructive jaundice (dark urine and pale stool). Management:Surgery within 8 weeks is recommended. Survival is around 90% using current treatment regimes. Without treatment, children will survive to around 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?

      Your Answer: Polio (Sabin)

      Correct Answer: Polio (Salk)

      Explanation:

      Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed. On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs....

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs. His mother denied any history of trauma. The boy had a sore throat a few weeks ago. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue regular child care

      Correct Answer: Coagulation profile

      Explanation:

      This history is suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura following a respiratory infection. A typical rash involving thighs and buttocks is often seen in this age group. Coagulation profile is the suitable answer from the given answers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Where does Stensens duct primarily open? ...

    Correct

    • Where does Stensens duct primarily open?

      Your Answer: Opposite the second molar tooth

      Explanation:

      The parotid duct (Stensen’s duct), which provides an exit for the gland’s secretions, passes through the anterior edge of the gland in the superficial lobe, turns medially at the anterior border of the masseter, penetrates the buccinator, then enters the oral cavity lateral to the second maxillary molar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Hypercalcemia occurs in association with which of the following diseases? ...

    Correct

    • Hypercalcemia occurs in association with which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcemia refers to increased serum calcium levels and is characterized by a number of significant constellations, including polyuria, muscle weakness, abdominal pain, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias. The causes of hypercalcemia can be classified as PTH-dependant causes and PTH-independent causes. The causes can be both congenital and acquired. The most common cause of PTH-dependent hypercalcemia is the primary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism, resulting from parathyroid gland tumours. Hyperparathyroidism is also associated with chronic renal failure. PTH-independent hypercalcemia is caused by William’s syndrome, hypervitaminosis (vitamin A and D intoxication), endocrinopathies (hyperthyroidism), various drugs (thiazide diuretics), and some inborn errors of metabolism. One of the congenital causes of PTH-independent hypercalcemia is idiopathic infantile hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - When discussing child development with a parent, which one of the following motor...

    Correct

    • When discussing child development with a parent, which one of the following motor skills would NOT be expected of a 3-year-old?

      Your Answer: Catching a bounced ball

      Explanation:

      Milestones of 3 years old:Social and Emotional:Copies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/Communication:Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns door handle Movement/Physical Development:Climbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and down stairs, one foot on each step

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - In a premature infant boy, an inguinal hernia will most likely: ...

    Correct

    • In a premature infant boy, an inguinal hernia will most likely:

      Your Answer: Recur after surgery

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias are a common surgical condition in preterm male infants. Surgical repair is usually suggested shortly after birth due to a fear of incarceration or strangulation. These hernias are often indirect as they pass though the processes vaginalis, rather than the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Recurrence of the hernia is the most common post operative complication. While other complications can occur if left un-repaired, hydrocele and testicular atrophy are not as common, neither is spontaneous resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following is not associated with hirsutism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with hirsutism?

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Correct Answer: Delayed puberty

      Explanation:

      Hirsutism is the growth of excess hair in androgen dependent areas or in a male pattern. The phenomenon is found in conditions where there is abnormal androgen action. This can occur in adrenal lesions including congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome, or a failure to produce adequate female hormones such as PCOS and premature menopause. Similarly, drugs such as anabolic steroids, danazol and minoxidil can also cause hirsutism. Delayed puberty is unlikely to cause hirsutism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which among the following is a common feature of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis...

    Correct

    • Which among the following is a common feature of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis (Still's disease)?

      Your Answer: Negative rheumatoid factor

      Explanation:

      Still’s disease is a rare systemic disorder that accounts for 10% of cases of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). The aetiology is unknown. It affects boys and girls equally up to the age of five years of age, following which, girls are more commonly affected. Clinical features of this disease include:- Fever- Maculopapular rash- Myalgia- Generalised lymphadenopathy- Hepatosplenomegaly- Pericarditis and pleuritis Laboratory investigations reveal raised ESR and CRP. There can also be coexisting neutrophilia and thrombocytosis. Anti-nuclear autoantibodies and rheumatoid factor are usually negative in patients with Still’s disease.On the rare case that they are present, their titres are generally low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Scoliosis

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis (aka Von Recklinghausen’s disease) includes: neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma, optic nerve tumours, scoliosis and acoustic neuromas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - An 8 year old girl presents with a chest injury, following a road...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old girl presents with a chest injury, following a road traffic accident. You intubate and ventilate her. However, at some point you notice that the girl becomes tachycardic and her blood pressure drops. Her trachea is displaced to one side and neck veins appear quite distended. What should you do next?

      Your Answer: Oxygen therapy

      Correct Answer: Needle Decompression

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests tension pneumothorax which requires immediate needle decompression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart defects are common (40-50%)| they are frequently observed in patients with Down syndrome who are hospitalized (62%) and are a common cause of death in this aneuploidy in the first 2 years of life.The most common congenital heart defects are the following:- Endocardial cushion defect (43%), which results in atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)/AV canal defect- Ventricular septal defect (32%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (6%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (4%).About 30% of patients have more than one cardiac defect. The most common secondary lesions are patent ductus arteriosus (16%), atrial septal defect, and pulmonic stenosis (9%). About 70% of all endocardial cushion defects are associated with Down syndrome.Valve abnormalities, such as mitral valve prolapse or aortic regurgitation may develop in up to 40-50% of adolescents and adults who were born without structural heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A pregnant woman with atopic eczema and asthma, who has a 5-year-old child...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman with atopic eczema and asthma, who has a 5-year-old child with moderately severe eczema, requests advice about reducing the risk of eczema in her unborn child. Select the MOST appropriate advice from the following:

      Your Answer: If breastfeeding is not possible, soya-based formulae should be used in preference to cows’ milk preparations

      Correct Answer: Removing certain known food allergens from the mother’s diet during pregnancy does not reduce the risk or prevent the onset of atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Nonspecific triggers of inflammation in patients with atopic dermatitis may include physical or chemical irritants. The following simple measures should be followed in daily life to reduce the frequency and severity of irritant-induced atopic dermatitis flares :Skin care products that contain alcohol and astringents should be avoided.New clothes should be laundered before use to remove formaldehyde and other chemicals.Liquid detergents are preferred over powder detergents for laundering clothes, as liquids are easier to rinse out. A second rinse cycle may also improve removal of residual detergent.Patients should shower immediately after swimming in chlorinated pools and should subsequently apply moisturizer.Fragrance-free skin products that are hypoallergenic or made for sensitive skin may be less irritating than other kinds of skin products.Prenatal and postnatal probiotic supplementation may be helpful in preventing the development of atopic dermatitis in young children. In a 2008 meta-analysis, the most commonly studied probiotic was Lactobacillus rhamnoses GG. Larger, randomized controlled studies are needed to confirm these initial findings.Breastfeeding during the first 4 months of life may reduce the incidence and severity of childhood atopic disease but only modestly and only in those at high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?

      Your Answer: Left superior lobar bronchus

      Correct Answer: Right mainstem bronchus

      Explanation:

      Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1–3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi| approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A mother attends the clinic with her 4-year-old. She has noticed a discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A mother attends the clinic with her 4-year-old. She has noticed a discharge from the his left ear over the past two weeks. He has a history of frequent episodes of ‘ear infection’ but has been otherwise well. There is no reported fever. On examination, the child is systemically well. The child is co-operative with otoscopy which shows an intact pink tympanic membrane on the right but a possible perforation on the left. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Topical aminoglycosides

      Correct Answer: Refer for ENT opinion

      Explanation:

      The child has Chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) which is defined as a perforated tympanic membrane with persistent drainage from the middle ear for more than 2-6 weeks.CSOM differs from chronic serous otitis media in that chronic serous otitis media may be defined as a middle ear effusion without perforation that is reported to persist for more than 1-3 months. Patients with chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) present with a draining ear of some duration and a premorbid history of recurrent acute otitis media, traumatic perforation, or the placement of ventilation tubes. Typically, they deny pain or discomfort. A common presenting symptom is hearing loss in the affected ear. Reports of fever, vertigo, and pain should raise concerns about infratemporal or intracranial complications. A history of persistent CSOM after appropriate medical treatment should alert the physician to consider cholesteatoma.The external auditory canal may or may not be oedematous and is not typically tender. The discharge varies from fetid, purulent, and cheese like to clear and serous. Granulation tissue is often seen in the medial canal or middle ear space. The middle ear mucosa visualized through the perforation may be oedematous or even polypoid, pale, or erythematous.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - In a double blind trial of a new diabetes medication, 25% more in...

    Incorrect

    • In a double blind trial of a new diabetes medication, 25% more in the treated group responded positively than those in the control group (95% CI 10% to 50%| P=0.004)

      Your Answer: The number needed to treat (NNT) for 1 to benefit is at least 4

      Correct Answer: The therapy benefits an additional 1 in 4 (95% CI 2 to 10), patients who receive it

      Explanation:

      In the final result of this double blind study, 25% or one in four of patients who received the treatment responded positively. Though the difference is significant at P<0.05, it is better to present this as a significant difference at 0.4%. The number needed to treat (NNT) is defined as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. Taking this as 0.25 (25%), the NNT is 1/0.25 = 4. However given the 95% confidence interval is between 10-50% for absolute risk reduction, the NNT with 95% CI is between 2 and 10. Therefore we cannot say with certainty that the NNT is at least 4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal enuresis. A urine dipstick reveals no glucose or ketones, but her pregnancy test is positive.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gestational diabetes

      Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      The presenting features with the positive pregnancy test are highly suggestive of gestational diabetes mellitus.Diabetes Insipidus:It is much less common than gestational diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by the inability to concentrate urine, with marked thirst.Presenting symptoms include polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis.Physical examination may reveal features of dehydration and an enlarged bladder.Investigations include biochemical analysis for electrolytes, urine and plasma osmolality, fluid deprivation test, and cranial MRI.The main differential diagnosis is for diabetes insipidus is psychogenic polydipsia.There are three broad categories of diabetes insipidus (DI): – Central (cranial) DI: It is the most common form of diabetes insipidus.It occurs due to decreased secretion of ADH. It usually occurs due to hypothalamic disease and may show response to low-dose desmopressin.- Peripheral (nephrogenic) DI:It is characterised by the resistance of the kidney to ADH.It usually does not respond to low-dose desmopressin.- Gestational DI:It is rare and is mostly seen in teenage pregnancy.It usually presents in the third trimester and often resolves 4-6 weeks post-partum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following pathological criteria carries the greatest prognostic weight for malignant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following pathological criteria carries the greatest prognostic weight for malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer: Vascular invasion

      Correct Answer: Breslow thickness

      Explanation:

      Breslow thickness is measured from the top of the granular layer of the epidermis (or, if the surface is ulcerated, from the base of the ulcer) to the deepest invasive cell across the broad base of the tumour (dermal/subcutaneous) as described by Breslow.Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thicknessLesions 0-1mm thick – 1cmLesions 1-2mm thick – 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions 2-4mm thick – 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions >4 mm thick – 3cmMarsden J et al Revised UK guidelines for management of Melanoma. Br J Dermatol 2010 163:238-256.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother came to the clinic, with her 7 month old baby. She anxiously explained that he was not responding to loud sounds. He was vocalizing at the presentation and he had normal motor milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: MRI Brain

      Correct Answer: Arrange Hearing test

      Explanation:

      History is suggestive of a possible hearing impairment. As the baby is vocalizing and has normal motor development, an isolated hearing problem is possible. A hearing test will confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following exhibits low genetic penetrance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following exhibits low genetic penetrance?

      Your Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Gaucher disease

      Explanation:

      Penetrance is defined as the percentage of individuals having a particular mutation or genotype who exhibit clinical signs or phenotype of the associated disorder or genotype.Gaucher disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but they typically do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 13-year-old boy complains of chest pain. Examination reveals hypotension and tachycardia with...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of chest pain. Examination reveals hypotension and tachycardia with distended neck veins and a displaced trachea. What is the next appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Portable X-ray

      Correct Answer: Needle thoracocenthesis

      Explanation:

      The patient history suggests a spontaneous tension pneumothorax which is a life-threatening situation in which excess air is introduced into the pleural space surrounding the lung. When there is a significant amount of air trapped in the pleural cavity, the increasing pressure from this abnormal air causes the lung to shrink and collapse, leading to respiratory distress. This pressure also pushes the mediastinum (including the heart and great vessels) away from its central position, e.g. deviated trachea, and diminishing the cardiac output. Tension pneumothoraxes cause chest pain, extreme shortness of breath, respiratory failure, hypoxia, tachycardia, and hypotension. These are definitively managed by insertion of a chest tube. However, in the emergency setting temporizing measures are needed while chest tube materials are being gathered. In these situations, urgent needle thoracostomy (also called needle decompression) is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?...

    Incorrect

    • Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Conductive deafness

      Correct Answer: Hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Treacher Collins syndrome is a congenital disorder transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. The basic abnormality is the TCOF 1 gene mutation, which leads to a multitude of clinical features, of which the most striking is the symmetrical craniofacial deformities. Important clinical features include conductive deafness, coloboma of lower eyelids, cleft palate, antimongoloid (short and downward slanting) palpebral fissures, deformed or absent ears, sleep apnoea, and airway issues. Hirsutism is not a recognized feature of this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 3-year-old boy was brought at the hospital by his mother due to...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy was brought at the hospital by his mother due to sudden onset pyrexia with emesis and bilateral facial swelling. Upon history taking, she mentions that she brought her son to the GP who suggested analgesics for his bilateral parotid pain, 2 days ago. What would be the next step of your management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of mumps. Mumps is a viral disease with initial signs and symptoms including fever, muscle pain, headache, poor appetite, and feeling tired. This is then usually followed by painful swelling of one or both parotid salivary glands. Mumps is a self-limiting condition treated only for symptomatic relief. As he currently is taking analgesics for pain relief, one should only offer reassurance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT...

    Correct

    • A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?

      Your Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome

      Explanation:

      Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic...

    Correct

    • A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident. His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands. He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes. He tries to move away from the examining hand.What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS. Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):Spontaneous – 4To speech – 3To pain – 2No response – 1Best Verbal Response:Oriented – 5Words – 4Vocal sounds – 3Cries – 2No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):Obeys commands – 5Localises pain – 4Flexion to pain – 3 Extension to pain – 2No response – 1 The described child scores:Eye response – 1| Verbal response – 3| Motor response – 4Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A first-time mother is concerned about the development of her 2-month-old baby.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A first-time mother is concerned about the development of her 2-month-old baby.Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at the age of 2 months?

      Your Answer: The infant is not expected to get bored if not kept engaged

      Correct Answer: The infant is not expected to mirror facial expressions like smiling

      Explanation:

      Developmental milestones at the age of 2 months are as follows:Social and Emotional:- Begins to smile at people – Can briefly calm herself (may bring hands to mouth and suck on hand)- Tries to look at the parents Language/Communication:- Coos, makes gurgling sounds – Turns head toward sounds Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):- Pays attention to faces – Begins to follow things with eyes and recognize people at a distance – Begins to act bored (cries, fussy) if an activity doesn’t changeMovement/Physical Development:- Can hold head up and begins to push up when lying on tummy – Makes smoother movements with arms and legs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after birth. Which of the following heart conditions might the baby have?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a common congenital heart lesion that presents with severe cyanosis that is likely to appear in the first day of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Absence of which of the following milestones warrants further assessment in a 15-month-old...

    Incorrect

    • Absence of which of the following milestones warrants further assessment in a 15-month-old child?

      Your Answer: Follow a one step command

      Correct Answer: Stand holding onto furniture

      Explanation:

      By 15 months, it’s common for many toddlers to:- say three to five words.- understand and follow simple commands.- point to one body part.- walk alone and begin to run.- climb on furniture.- make marks with a crayon.- imitate activities, such as housework.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy presents with a history of one episode of green vomiting. Upon clinical examination, doctors notice an acutely swollen mass located in the groin, extending to the scrotum. What is the most probable diagnosis and what’s the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Incarcerated direct inguinal hernia, emergency surgery

      Correct Answer: Incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia, analgesia, sedation and attempt to reduce

      Explanation:

      An incarcerated indirect inguinal hernia presents with abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, and intestinal obstruction. It is characterized by the appearance of a tender mass in the inguinal area. Manual reduction in children requires analgesia and sedation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      76.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history of proximal myopathy. He has missed motor milestones and has pseudohypertrophy of the calves. Doctors suspect it might be Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Which of the following should you advise the parents?

      Your Answer: DMD is always inherited and does not occur as a new mutation

      Correct Answer: Girl offspring have a less than 10% chance of inheriting the condition

      Explanation:

      Although initially thought to affect only boys, girls with DMD also have an estimated 10% chance of inheriting the condition. In girls, DMD may present with all or some clinical manifestations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is referred from his optician with a diagnosis of Lisch nodules of the iris. What is the most likely sign to observe on examination?

      Your Answer: Ash-leaf spots on the trunk

      Correct Answer: Axillary freckles

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a common autosomal dominant disease. The Lisch nodule represents one of the most common NF1 ocular manifestations.NF1 is caused by a genetic mutation which can cause tumours to grow on nerve endings| these cutaneous neurofibromas are benign tumours which grow on the skin, often first appearing during the hormonal changes that occur in teenage years. They vary in size and can appear anywhere on the body. The number of neurofibromas present differs greatly between individuals and over a lifetime Café au lait spots (coffee coloured birthmarks) are often the first and most common sign of NF1, and these are often found at birth and are usually evident by 2 years of age.Other features of NF1 can include Lisch nodules of the iris (small pigmentation in the iris which causes no disturbance to vision), skin-fold freckling (freckling/pigmentation in the groyne and armpits), plexiform neurofibromas (or sub cutaneous neurofibromas) which are diffuse tumours that grow along a nerve and are found in at least 25 % of people with NF1, optic gliomas (tumour of the optic nerve), and skeletal complications including pseudarthrosis and scoliosis. Macrocephaly (large head size) is also common, and short stature is found in around a third of people with NF1. Rare complications include a risk of malignancy, organs being compromised by neurofibromas, seizures, and hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Which of the following does NOT cause benign intracranial hypertension? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does NOT cause benign intracranial hypertension?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Benign intracranial hypertension is characterized by an elevation of the CSF pressure that is not caused by hydrocephalus or any space-occupying lesion. The cause is most likely the decreased absorption of CSF into the dural sinuses. The main symptoms are headache and visual abnormalities. It can lead to blindness if not managed on time. The most important risk factors for BIH are female gender and obesity. The causes of BIH include iron deficiency anaemia, sarcoidosis, Lyme disease, SLE, polycythaemia vera, chronic kidney disease, meningitis, and sleep apnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 5 month old girl was admitted to the emergency department with reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old girl was admitted to the emergency department with reduced movement of her right arm. History reveals she was born at term, 4.5 kg and via natural delivery. Her mother reports her head was stuck for a while before she was fully delivered. Postnatal examination revealed reduced movement of her right arm as well but was thought to improve over time. The baby cannot sit and her right arm is flaccid, internally rotated, adducted, and extended. The reflexes are absent in the right arm. Which of the following investigations would provide the most useful information?

      Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies

      Correct Answer: MRI scan

      Explanation:

      The vignette describes an infant with a sustained post-delivery brachial plexus injury that does not improve with time. MRI is the most appropriate intervention to assess the injury and evaluate the treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Which of the following congenital abnormalities are usually associated with a characteristic karyotype?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following congenital abnormalities are usually associated with a characteristic karyotype?

      Your Answer: Meningomyelocele

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is a sex chromosome disorder in boys and men that results from the presence of an extra X chromosome in cells. People typically have 46 chromosomes in each cell, two of which are the sex chromosomes. Females have two X chromosomes (46,XX), and males have one X and one Y chromosome (46,XY). Most often, boys and men with Klinefelter syndrome have the usual X and Y chromosomes, plus one extra X chromosome, for a total of 47 chromosomes (47,XXY).Cri-du-chat (cat’s cry) syndrome, also known as 5p- (5p minus) syndrome, is a chromosomal condition that results when a piece of chromosome 5 is missing.Pierre Robin syndrome is not caused by a single gene defect but is a sequence.Meningomyelocele does not follow usual patterns of inheritance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT

      Correct Answer: Tall T waves

      Explanation:

      On electrocardiography (ECG), characteristic changes in patients with hypercalcemia include:Tall T wavesReduced QTProlonged and depressed STArrhythmiaOther electrolyte disturbances:Hypokalaemia:Flat T wavesST depressionU waveAtrial and ventricular ectopicsVF and VTHyperkalaemia:Tall T wavesST- changesReduced QT intervalIncreased PR intervalSmaller or absent P wavesWidened QRS, broadening to VFHypocalcaemia:Prolonged QTProlonged STFlat or absent T wavesU waves

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?...

    Incorrect

    • A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?

      Your Answer: Fasten buttons fully without assistance

      Correct Answer: Make a tower out of 9 bricks

      Explanation:

      3-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalCopies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/CommunicationFollows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handle Movement/Physical DevelopmentClimbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and downstairs one foot on each step

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4. Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?

      Your Answer: Increase FiO2

      Correct Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume

      Explanation:

      Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneousbreaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are relatedto respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4–6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of eczema?

      Your Answer: Children's Dermatology Life Quality Index

      Correct Answer: Eczema Severity Questionnaire

      Explanation:

      Eczema is an immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by intense pruritis and scaly rashes over the body. The impact of the disease can be measured by using certain scales, which include the Dermatitis Family Impact (DFI) Questionnaire, infant’s Dermatitis Quality of Life Index, Patient-oriented Eczema Measure, and Children’s Dermatology Life Quality Index among many others. Eczema severity questionnaire is not a recognized scale to determine eczema impact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      103.1
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development in a 2-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Correct Answer: Congenital ptosis

      Explanation:

      A drooping eyelid is called ptosis or blepharoptosis. In ptosis, the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. Severe ptosis may cover part or all of the pupil and interfere with vision, resulting in amblyopia.Visual development in a child can be permanently impaired when there is deprivation of visual stimulation or when the oculomotor function is impaired. Congenital ptosis can represent both these components

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:

      Your Answer: Astrocytoma

      Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
      ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She has no other symptoms. Which is the most suitable next step of management?

      Your Answer: Phototherapy

      Correct Answer: Continue breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding should be continued for babies with breast milk jaundice as this is a benign condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for...

    Correct

    • The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has noticed that the boy has become tired quicker than normal for the past two months. She also noticed a reduction in the boy's appetite. He no longer enjoys football and often complains of aches and pains. He has a faint rash on his arms and has to 'climb up' his legs to get up from a supine position.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation and way the boy ‘climbs up’ his legs to get up from a supine position (Gowers’ sign) suggests proximal muscle weakness secondary to dermatomyositis.Dermatomyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that typically presents between the ages of five years and ten years. The onset is insidious, and the proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase might be mistaken for muscular dystrophy. However, the systemic illness and rash are characteristic features of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - The parents of a 5 year old child with cystic fibrosis present at...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 5 year old child with cystic fibrosis present at the clinic with concerns over having another child. Neither of them have cystic fibrosis, and they would like to know what the chances are of their next child being a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene. What is the probability of this occurring?

      Your Answer: 1 in 25

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder that affects the lungs or the pancreas. In the case of an affected child whose parents do not have the disorder but carry one copy of the mutated gene, each sibling has a 50% chance of being a carrier of the disease. They can inherit one copy of the gene from each parent. There is a 25 % chance that the child may inherit both mutated genes and be homozygous for the trait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep'...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep' pain during intercourse and pain on defecation during this time. She states that her periods are regular with little bleeding.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavityAbout one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:- Dysmenorrhea- Heavy or irregular bleeding- Pelvic pain- Lower abdominal or back pain – Dyspareunia- Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation- Bloating, nausea, and vomiting- Inguinal pain- Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency- Pain during exercise- Patients with endometriosis do not frequently have any physical examination findings beyond tenderness related to the site of involvement. – The most common finding is nonspecific pelvic tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise healthy and with a clear family history. He drinks sufficient amounts of fluids but is a fussy eater. Clinical examination reveals a mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Constipation is often associated with nocturnal enuresis in children. The palpable mass is the impacted stool. The decreased appetite is common in those with constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician with vomiting, joint pains, diarrhoea and crampy abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals a purpuric rash on her legs and over the belt area. She has microscopic haematuria, proteinuria and RBC casts on urine testing. Which of the underlying diagnoses is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for...

    Correct

    • A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:

      Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Explanation:

      Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
      ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the given options cause persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Maple syrup urine disease

      Correct Answer: Phenylketonuria

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that needs prompt attention and management. The accepted criteria to define neonatal hypoglycaemia is blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. Multiple aetiologies and various risk factors are involved in causing hypoglycaemia in new-borns| the most common and important causes include prematurity, erythroblastosis fetalis, hypoxia at birth, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, hypopituitarism, and hyperinsulinism due to maternal diabetes. Inborn errors of metabolism that lead to persistent neonatal hypoglycaemia are maple syrup urine disease, glycogen storage disease, fatty acid enzyme deficiencies, and fructose intolerance. Phenylketonuria does not cause hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A young girl is brought to the ED by her parents because of...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl is brought to the ED by her parents because of increased body temperature, rhinorrhoea and an unusual bark-like cough. The girl is also drooling because of excessive salivation. What would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline nebulizer

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs described are typical for epiglottitis which represents a paediatric emergency and the child should be put immediately on corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      104.3
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history:Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago.Current medications:Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasoneMesalazine 400 mg TDSShe was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7ºC, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult. What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis| therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination. The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ophthalmic branch exits the skull from which of the following foramina?

      Your Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the head, and the muscles of mastication. The nerve is divided into three branches, the ophthalmic nerve (V1) the mandibular nerve (V2) and the maxillary nerve (V3) which all exit the skull through their respective foramina. An easy way to remember these foramina is with the following mnemonic:Standing Room Only, for V1-V3 respectivelyV1- Superior orbital FissureV2- foramen RotundumV3 foramen Ovale

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 6 year old child diagnosed with minimal change nephrotic syndrome, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child diagnosed with minimal change nephrotic syndrome, presents with lower limb oedema. Which of the following is most likely lost upon urination?

      Your Answer: Anti-thrombin III

      Explanation:

      Minimal change nephrotic syndrome leads to the loss of anti-thrombin III which protects the body from forming venous emboli. It may be triggered by virus, immunisations, medication, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, or leukaemiaCharacterised by oedema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hypercholesterolemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 2 year old girl with a history of oligohydramnios, hypotonia, and scissoring...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old girl with a history of oligohydramnios, hypotonia, and scissoring of the legs, presents with delayed walking. She was born by breech delivery. Clinical examination reveals absence of fever and no dysmorphism. Although the limbs look symmetrical and equal, the right leg seems to be shorter. The girl is otherwise healthy. Neurological examination reveals hypotonia with normal reflexes and power. The mother confirms there is no history of myelomeningocele, cerebral palsy, or birth asphyxia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Correct Answer: Congenital dislocation of the hip

      Explanation:

      In this particular case, the symptoms and signs are suggestive for congenital dislocation of the hip. There are several risk factors present including, a breech delivery, female gender (female:male = 6:1) and oligohydramnios. It is also more common in the left hip than the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a complete loss of consciousness, intercostal retractions, no residual signs and no post-ictal phase. She later went on to have a full recovery. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Febrile convulsion

      Correct Answer: Partial generalized seizure

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of a partial generalized seizure are consistent with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - In which one of the following conditions is faltering growth frequently seen? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following conditions is faltering growth frequently seen?

      Your Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve

      Correct Answer: Complete atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart diseases such as complete atrioventricular septal defects are most likely to cause large left to right shunts leading to faltering growth due to chronic severe hypoxia, pulmonary oedema, and feeding problems. Isolated atrial septal defects or ventricular septal defects result in relatively smaller shunts. Pulmonary stenosis and bicuspid aortic valve do not cause chronic systemic hypoxia. People with these conditions are often asymptomatic and only show some symptoms with intense physical activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Glossitis

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Pellagra occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Niacin is required for most cellular processes. Since tryptophan in the diet can be converted to niacin in the body, both of these need to be deficient for pellagra to develop.The classical triad of symptoms is diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia.The first sign is reddened skin with superficial scaling in areas exposed to sunlight, heat and friction. This may resemble severe sunburn then gradually subsides leaving a dusky brown-red colouration. The rash is usually symmetrical with a clear edge between affected and unaffected skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following is the first sign of the onset of puberty?

      Your Answer: Axillary hair growth

      Correct Answer: Breast-bud development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of pubarche in females is breast-bud development (thelarche).This begins between the ages of 9 and 12 years and continues to 12–18 years. Pubic hair growth occurs next (said to occur in stage 3), at ages 9–14 years, and is complete at 12–16 years. Menarche occurs relatively late in stage 4 (age 11–15 years) and is associated with a deceleration in growth. The peak height velocity is reached earlier (10–13 years) and growth is completed much earlier than in boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A severe asthma exacerbation according to the British Thoracic Society suggests an oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • A severe asthma exacerbation according to the British Thoracic Society suggests an oxygen saturation that is less than:

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 0.92

      Explanation:

      In an acute and severe asthma attack the child cannot complete sentences in one breath because they are too breathless. The O2 saturation is less than 92% and PEF is between 33-50% best or predicted. In children that are 2-5 years old, HR is more than 140 bpm and more than 125 bpm in those older than 5 years old. The RR in children between 2-5 years old is more than 40/min, and more than 30/min in those older than 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?

      Your Answer: Raised Testosterone

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels↑ Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen index↑ LH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized tonic clonic seizures and reports 4 episodes in 2 weeks. Her teacher has reported that her attention span has deteriorated markedly which has affected her performance in studies. She often stops in the middle of tasks and forgets what she is doing. After discussing with the mother and the patient you decide to start medication. While speaking alone, the patient tells you that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes POPs (progestin only pills) but sometimes forgets to take them. which of the following anti-epileptic drug can be safely initiated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Oxcarbazepine

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Lamotrigine does not significantly increase risk of birth defects during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      103.7
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions?

      Your Answer: Congenital aqueduct stenosis

      Correct Answer: Bacterial meningitis

      Explanation:

      Hydrocephalus is a serious medical condition resulting from excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain leading to abnormal pressure build-up inside the brain. Hydrocephalus can be categorized into two types according to the flow of CSF between the ventricles. When the CSF flows freely between the ventricles, but is blocked after it exits the ventricular system, the hydrocephalus is said to be a communicating hydrocephalus. When the flow of CSF within the ventricles is blocked, the resulting hydrocephalus is termed as obstructive, or non-communicating. The communicating hydrocephalus is caused by insufficient reabsorption of CSF in the subarachnoid space, which is also observed in cases of bacterial meningitis, in which inflammatory process leads to the thickening of the leptomeninges and thereby reduces CSF reabsorption. Arnold Chiari malformation is associated with obstructive hydrocephalus due to blocked ventricles. Congenital aqueduct stenosis causes the blockage of third and lateral ventricles. Congenital atresia of the foramen of Monro leads to blocked lateral ventricles and thus results in obstructive hydrocephalus. Tumour of the posterior fossa is associated with blockage of the fourth ventricle outflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with jerking movements in her limbs. This lasted for around 10 seconds, and then she fell unconscious. She soon regained consciousness - she was disorientated but afebrile with no symptoms of meningeal irritation. From the list of options, chose the most appropriate investigation route for this patient.

      Your Answer: 24 hour EEG

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour an epilepsy diagnosis: uncontrollable jerking of the limbs and a loss of consciousness. A 24-hour EEG is used to diagnose epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling. Physical examination also reveals digital clubbing and linea nigra on her abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Clinical signs of early pregnancy-Amenorrhoea-Nausea and vomiting -Breast enlargement and tenderness -Hyperpigmentation of the areola and formation of linea nigra: Most likely due to increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone produced by the placenta -Increased urinary frequency-Fatigue-Cravings for or aversions to certain foods-Abdominal bloating and constipation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies with respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer: Maintaining arterial blood haemoglobin >120g/L

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      A preterm with respiratory distress syndrome presents with the condition as a result of immature lungs and inadequate surfactant production. Management of RDS therefore includes surfactant therapy, oxygen administration and mechanical ventilation, as well as measures such maintaining acid base levels and blood haemoglobin in an intensive care unit. Dexamethasone is not shown to be particularly effective when given to a preterm, but can however be used to prevent or decrease RDS severity when given to the mother before delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?

      Your Answer: Surveillance colonoscopy every 1–2 years from the age of 16 years onwards

      Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years

      Explanation:

      Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13–15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his parents who say...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic by his parents who say that he has had frequent breath holding spells which occur almost 4 times per week. Which of the following nutritional deficiency most often results in the breath holding spells like the ones experienced by this child?

      Your Answer: Riboflavin

      Correct Answer: Iron

      Explanation:

      Breath-holding spells are usually caused by either a change in the child’s breathing or a slowing of the heart rate. In some children, breath-holding spells may be related to iron deficiency anaemia, a condition in which the body doesn’t produce a normal number of red blood cells. Conclusion: Not only Iron deficiency anaemia but also iron deficiency alone without anaemia is associated with a risk of high-frequency cyanotic breath holding spells. Iron therapy results in reduction in spells’ frequency which was correlated with increasing ferritin and iron levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - What is most likely to occur in lead poisoning? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is most likely to occur in lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: Delayed developmental milestones

      Explanation:

      Lead can be found in material used for mining, leaded paints and gasoline, glassware, toys, and even cosmetics. Lead poisoning is rare nowadays as the use of lead has been banned from many products. Lead is toxic and in certain concentrations can cause irreversible damage. Children are especially vulnerable as they absorb 4 times as much ingested lead as adults. The typical features of lead poisoning include developmental delay and behavioural disorders, microcytic anaemia, constipation and vomiting. Pulmonary fibrosis, Osteomalacia and cardiomyopathy are not known features of lead poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic hair. What is the present stage of pubic hair development in this boy according to the Tanner system?

      Your Answer: Stage 1

      Correct Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical presentation, the pubic hair development is in Tanner stage 2.The Tanner stages for pubic hair are as follows:Stage 1 – pre-adolescentStage 2 – sparse hair that is long, slightly pigmented and downyStage 3 – hair spread over the junction of the pubes, darker and coarserStage 4 – adult-type hair, but the area covered is smaller than it is in an adult.Stage 5 – adult in quantity and type

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology And Oncology (1/3) 33%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (7/7) 100%
Endocrinology (6/7) 86%
Emergency Medicine (5/5) 100%
Neonatology (5/7) 71%
Cardiovascular (5/7) 71%
Neurology And Neurodisability (5/7) 71%
Dermatology (3/9) 33%
Nephro-urology (4/5) 80%
Infectious Diseases (3/5) 60%
Adolescent Health (6/6) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (5/6) 83%
HIV (0/1) 0%
Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Paediatric Surgery (3/3) 100%
ENT (3/4) 75%
Child Development (4/4) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/3) 33%
Ophthalmology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Passmed