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  • Question 1 - A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty.While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?

      Your Answer: Increase in testicular volume

      Explanation:

      In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement| the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea over the past one year. During these episodes, she may pass 3-7 very loose stools with mucus. Recently, over the past two months, she has passed stools mixed with blood. Her mother also complaints although she has not lost weight, she has failed to gain the appropriate weight for age according to her growth chart. The child is yet to attain her menarche, and her mother suffers from vitiligo. Clinical examination was unremarkable.Blood investigations revealed:Hb: 12.3 g/dLESR: 38 mm on the first hourTotal and differential counts were within normal limits, and an autoantibody screen was negative.What is the next most relevant investigation you will order?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient in question is most likely suffering from inflammatory bowel disease, probably ulcerative colitis. The most valuable investigation that can assess the severity and extent of the disease, including the opportunity to obtain biopsies is a colonoscopy.Other options:Barium studies and abdominal x-rays do not give sufficient information. While they can provide indicative evidence, only a colonoscopy-guided biopsy can confirm IBD.Radio-isotope scans will help in identifying a focus such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, and angiography is rarely indicated unless a vascular lesion is suspected of causing the intestinal bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      284.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Correct

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
      The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy....

    Correct

    • A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy. What is her risk of being a carrier for the condition?

      Your Answer: 0.66

      Explanation:

      Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disease. For the brother to present with the disease, both parents must be carriers. Therefore, with each pregnancy the probability that the child would be affected is 1 in 4| the probability that the child would be a carrier is 2 in 4| and the probability that the child would be unaffected is also 1 in 4. Unaffected children have a 2 in 3 chance, or 66%, of becoming a carrier according to the patterns of autosomal recessive inheritance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate...

    Correct

    • What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate nutritional input?

      Your Answer: 15g/kg/day

      Explanation:

      The general target of weight gain in the neonatal intensive care unit is to replicate the intrauterine growth in the third trimester, which equates to the daily weight gain of nearly 15 g/kg/day with infants receiving 120 kcal/kg/day

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with primary amenorrhoea and poor pubertal development. Investigations reveal low oestrogen, and high LH and FSH. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old Japanese boy presents to the hospital with pain in his elbows and knees associated with swelling of his hands and feet. On examination, he is found to be febrile with a temperature of 39°C. He is also tachycardic with a pulse rate of 120bpm and hypotensive with a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. Conjunctival congestion and cervical lymphadenopathy with a red tongue were also noted. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Kawasaki disease.Kawasaki disease:It is an acute systemic disorder of childhood that predominantly occurs in Japan (800 cases per million in children under the age of 5 years). The causative factor is not known, but mycoplasma and HIV infection may be associated in some cases. Clinical Features:The principal clinical features are fever persisting for more than five days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctival congestion, cervical lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, arthralgia, palmar erythema and strawberry tongue. Other options:- Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis is associated with skin, renal and gut involvement. Arthralgia, morning stiffness and flexor tenosynovitis are common. – Behçet syndrome is a vasculitis of unknown aetiology that characteristically targets venules. – Felty syndrome is the association of splenomegaly and neutropenia with rheumatoid arthritis. Lymphadenopathy is common, and there is a predisposition to recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a...

    Correct

    • A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old boy complains of fever, headache, and neck stiffness. On examination, Kernig's...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy complains of fever, headache, and neck stiffness. On examination, Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs were positive. In the meantime, while awaiting the results from blood culture, how will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Positive Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs may indicate meningitis. While awaiting blood culture results, a broad-spectrum antibiotic such as Cefotaxime (a third generation cephalosporin) is preferred over the other medications listed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts? ...

    Correct

    • Childhood absence epilepsy is characterized by which of the given facts?

      Your Answer: 3-Hz spike-and-slow-wave complexes are seen on electroencephalograms (EEGs)

      Explanation:

      Absence epilepsy is the most common type of generalized childhood epilepsies. It is mainly idiopathic, but 10-40% of the cases have a positive family history. It is characterized by frequent absence seizures and periods of unconsciousness. The hallmark of absence epilepsy on EEG is the bilaterally synchronous 2–4 Hz spike and wave discharges (SWDs). The average age of onset is around 4-8 years, being more prevalent among girls. Treatment resistance is not common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There...

    Correct

    • A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?

      Your Answer: Fragmented red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Congenital cataracts are NOT a known complication of which of the following conditions?...

    Correct

    • Congenital cataracts are NOT a known complication of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disease that does not lead to congenital cataracts. A congenital cataract is the clouding of the cornea that is present from birth. Causes can be categorized as genetic, infectious, and metabolic. The most common infectious cause is congenital rubella syndrome. Galactosemia is a metabolic cause of congenital cataracts. Down’s syndrome represents a genetic cause of congenital cataract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother. The family...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother. The family moved to the UK three months ago from The Congo. The baby’s mother explains that she is HIV positive and took combination antiretrovirals throughout her pregnancy. She was unable to attend follow-up for her baby as the family was displaced. The baby was breastfed until the age of six months and is thriving. A physical examination revealed no significant findings.What would be the most appropriate action concerning the baby’s HIV exposure?

      Your Answer: Perform HIV PCR and commence cART if HIV positive

      Correct Answer: Perform HIV PCR and commence cART and PCP prophylaxis if HIV positive

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate action in this baby would be to perform HIV PCR and commence cART and PCP prophylaxis if HIV positive.Treatment guidelines for HIV-positive infants state that all should receive combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP) prophylaxis, irrespective of CD4 count or viral load.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each...

    Correct

    • A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each feed. He was dehydrated on admission and IV fluids were started. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Projectile vomiting is the hallmark symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy, which has a male-to-female predominance of 4-5:1. Current management recommendations include ultrasonography for diagnosis, correction of electrolytes, and surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following cellular components is neuron-specific? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cellular components is neuron-specific?

      Your Answer: Nissl substance

      Explanation:

      Nissl body is a neuron-specific cellular structure. It is composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum and fine granules. The rough endoplasmic reticulum contains free ribosomes, and are the hub of protein synthesis. When these substances are exposed to a cresyl violet solution, they show selective-staining by turning purple-blue. In pathologic processes, they may undergo chromatolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 10-year-old newly diagnosed epileptic boy presents with pyrexia and a confluent, blistering...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old newly diagnosed epileptic boy presents with pyrexia and a confluent, blistering rash affecting his torso, arms, and legs. On examination, there are lesions on his mucous membranes also. On palpating the skin overlying the medial malleolus, it shears off with minimal force. What is the sign being elicited?

      Your Answer: Nikolsky's sign

      Explanation:

      The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorders, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is the strongest indicator for IV fluid administration?

      Your Answer: Capillary refilling time > 4secs

      Explanation:

      Children are very prone to dehydration during an episode of gastroenteritis. Dehydration is detected early by increased capillary filling time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT team

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old boy presents with complaints of ear pain. The pain started last...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with complaints of ear pain. The pain started last night and prevented him from sleeping. He reports that sounds are muffled on the affected side. On examination, he has a fever. A bulging tympanic membrane with a visible fluid level is seen on otoscopy. You suspect a diagnosis of acute suppurative otitis media. Tensor tympani is a muscle that is found in the middle ear. What is the nerve supplying the tensor tympani?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The nerve supply to the tensor tympani is the mandibular nerve.The mandibular nerve is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that carries motor fibres.Tensor tympani is a muscle that lies in a bony canal just superior to the pharyngotympanic tube. It originates from the cartilaginous portion of the pharyngotympanic tube, the bony canal in which it sits, and the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. It inserts into the upper part of the handle of the malleus. When contracted, it pulls the handle of the malleus medially. This action increases the tension across the tympanic membrane, reducing the magnitude of vibrations transmitted into the middle ear. This dampens loud noises or noises produced by chewing. Tensor tympani is innervated through the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve.Other options:- The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve. This nerve has two components, a vestibular division that carries balance information, and a cochlear division that carries hearing information.- The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve. It has a wide range of functions. It carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, as well as sensation from the pharyngeal wall and tonsils, the middle ear, external auditory canal and auricle. It carries parasympathetic fibres that supply the parotid gland. It also supplies the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus and supplies the secretomotor fibres to the parotid gland.- The maxillary nerve carries only sensory fibres.- The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve. It supplies the muscles of facial expression, as well as stylohyoid, the posterior belly of digastric, and stapedius (the only other muscle associated with the middle ear). It carries taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and sensation from part of the external acoustic meatus, parts of the auricle and the retro-auricular area. It provides secretomotor fibres which supply to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland (via chorda tympani nerve), nasal glands and lacrimal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A pregnant woman with atopic eczema and asthma, who has a 5-year-old child...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman with atopic eczema and asthma, who has a 5-year-old child with moderately severe eczema, requests advice about reducing the risk of eczema in her unborn child. Select the MOST appropriate advice from the following:

      Your Answer: Removing certain known food allergens from the mother’s diet during pregnancy does not reduce the risk or prevent the onset of atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Nonspecific triggers of inflammation in patients with atopic dermatitis may include physical or chemical irritants. The following simple measures should be followed in daily life to reduce the frequency and severity of irritant-induced atopic dermatitis flares :Skin care products that contain alcohol and astringents should be avoided.New clothes should be laundered before use to remove formaldehyde and other chemicals.Liquid detergents are preferred over powder detergents for laundering clothes, as liquids are easier to rinse out. A second rinse cycle may also improve removal of residual detergent.Patients should shower immediately after swimming in chlorinated pools and should subsequently apply moisturizer.Fragrance-free skin products that are hypoallergenic or made for sensitive skin may be less irritating than other kinds of skin products.Prenatal and postnatal probiotic supplementation may be helpful in preventing the development of atopic dermatitis in young children. In a 2008 meta-analysis, the most commonly studied probiotic was Lactobacillus rhamnoses GG. Larger, randomized controlled studies are needed to confirm these initial findings.Breastfeeding during the first 4 months of life may reduce the incidence and severity of childhood atopic disease but only modestly and only in those at high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of football. He couldn't recall any trauma to groin. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: USG of the scrotum

      Explanation:

      USG of the scrotum is important to exclude any abnormality with testicles, epididymis and scrotum. This presentation can be acute epididymo-orchitis or testicular torsion. USG of the scrotum will help to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E deficiency in premature infants has been described as being associated with low haemoglobin levels in the 2nd month of life, haemolytic anaemia associated with thrombocytosis. Recently, low vitamin E concentrations were suspected as being associated with sudden death in infancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis?

      Your Answer: Children can present with nephrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes Ca and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria, thus precipitating calcium compounds in the kidney. Other consequences of the dRTA in children include rickets, hypokalaemia, and polyuria. While dRTA can occur as a result of various pathologies including autoimmune disease, proximal renal tubular acidosis often presents as part of Fanconi’s syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA offering the child an acid load will decrease the urinary ph whereas in distal disease the pH will be unaffected due to impairment in hydrogen ion secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and...

    Correct

    • A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery

      Explanation:

      Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhoea, passing stools for up to 5 times a day. Following his return from a recent holiday in Egypt, he had been to the local pool a few days ago. He recalls that the stool floats in the toilet water and that he has not passed any blood in his stools. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      The most likely causative organism for the symptoms of this child is Giardia lamblia.Giardiasis results in fat malabsorption thus giving rise to greasy stools. It is resistant to chlorination, hence has a risk of transfer in swimming pools.World Health Organisation definitions- Diarrhoea: > 3 loose or watery stool per day- Acute diarrhoea < 14 days- Chronic diarrhoea > 14 daysConditions that usually present as acute diarrhoea:- Gastroenteritis: It may be accompanied by abdominal pain or nausea/vomiting.- Antibiotic therapy: Can occur following antibiotic therapy, especially common with broad spectrum antibiotics.Conditions that usually present as chronic diarrhoea:- Irritable bowel syndrome: It is a very common disease.The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS.Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present in these patients.- Ulcerative colitis: It presents as bloody diarrhoea. Patients can also present with crampy abdominal pain and weight loss. Faecal urgency and tenesmus may be seen.- Crohn’s disease: It is also associated with crampy abdominal pains and diarrhoea. Bloody diarrhoea less common than in ulcerative colitis. Other features include malabsorption, mouth ulcers perianal disease and intestinal obstruction – Colorectal cancer: It is very rare in children. The symptoms depend on the site of the lesion but include diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia and constitutional symptoms like weight loss and anorexia.- Coeliac disease: In children, it may present with failure to thrive, diarrhoea and abdominal distension.Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      51.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following gross motor skills would an 18-month-old boy have acquired,...

    Correct

    • Which of the following gross motor skills would an 18-month-old boy have acquired, assuming that his developmental milestones are normal?

      Your Answer: Carrying toys whilst walking

      Explanation:

      Among the provided options, we would expect a normally developing 18-month-old child to be able to carry toys while walking.At 18 months, a normally developing child will show the following gross motor abilities:- walks with the feet slightly apart- runs carefully with the head held high- pushes and pulls objects around the floor- walks upstairs if the hand is held- kneels on a flat surface without support- carry toys while walking.Other options:- Intentionally kicking a ball is a skill typically acquired by 2.5 years, not 18 months.- Jumping with two feet together from a small step is usually acquired by 2.5 years, not 18 months.- Propelling a tricycle forwards by pushing with the feet on the floor is a milestone generally acquired by 2 years, not 18 months.- Throwing a small ball overhand without falling is a milestone for children aged 2 years, not 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or...

    Incorrect

    • Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or excretion of hydrogen ions from the distal tubule. Which of the following is a key difference in clinical presentation of these two types of renal tubular acidosis?

      Your Answer: There is failure to thrive

      Correct Answer: Renal stone formation

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes calcium and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria. This precipitates calcium compounds in the kidney, predisposing it to renal stone formation. On the other hand, proximal renal tubular acidosis is characterised by an impairment in bicarbonate resorption. Both types lead to metabolic acidosis and electrolyte imbalances including potassium depletion. Children often present with failure to thrive. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA (type 2) administering an ammonium chloride load will decrease the urinary pH whereas in distal disease (type 1), the urine pH will not decrease below 5.3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 1 week old baby boy is taken to the A&E department after...

    Correct

    • A 1 week old baby boy is taken to the A&E department after a right sided groin swelling had been noticed. An examination is done and the testes are correctly located but there is a right sided inguinal hernia that is soft and easily reduced. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Surgery over the next few days

      Explanation:

      Answer: Surgery over the next few daysInguinal hernia is a type of ventral hernia that occurs when an intra-abdominal structure, such as bowel or omentum, protrudes through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias do not spontaneously heal and must be surgically repaired because of the ever-present risk of incarceration. Generally, a surgical consultation should be made at the time of diagnosis, and repair (on an elective basis) should be performed very soon after the diagnosis is confirmed.The infant or child with an inguinal hernia generally presents with an obvious bulge at the internal or external ring or within the scrotum. The parents typically provide the history of a visible swelling or bulge, commonly intermittent, in the inguinoscrotal region in boys and inguinolabial region in girls. The swelling may or may not be associated with any pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples...

    Correct

    • A child presents with lymphoedema. Clinical examination reveals she has widely spaced nipples and a systolic murmur. Her femoral pulses are absent. Her mother admits she did not have any scans during gestation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disease that affects females. It presents with wide-spread nipples, low hairline, lymphoedema, short 4th metacarpals, high-arched palate, cardiac problems, and horseshoe kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      16.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (4/4) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (2/3) 67%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
HIV (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/2) 50%
Paediatric Surgery (2/2) 100%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
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