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  • Question 1 - Which of the following cranial nerves does not have both sensory and motor...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cranial nerves does not have both sensory and motor functions?

      Your Answer: Abducens (CN VI)

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerves I, II, and VIII are considered purely afferent nerves since they conduct sensory information from the olfactory region, the retina of the eye, and the inner ear structures, respectively.Cranial nerves III, IV, VI, XI, and XII are considered purely efferent due to their motor output to the orbit, the neck, and the tongue.Cranial nerves V, VII, IX, and X are considered mixed cranial nerves due to the presence of afferent and efferent fibres with both sensory and motor components.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following is true about the constituents of breast milk: ...

    Correct

    • The following is true about the constituents of breast milk:

      Your Answer: Main protein in breast-milk is whey, which is more digestible than cow’s milk protein casein.

      Explanation:

      Mature human breast milk is nutrient and enzyme rich, optimal for human infants. The average calorie requirement for a one month old infant is about 100kcal/kg/day. Lactose, the most abundant carbohydrate, is beneficial for the baby’s developing gastro intestinal system. The proteins in mature milk are mostly whey (as compared to a high proportion of casein in cows milk), which digests easily. Other proteins found in breast milk include immunoglobulin, lysozyme, lactoferrin and lactalbumin. In terms of micronutrients, while Vitamin K levels are low in breast milk, Vitamin A, C and E are found in higher concentrations than in cow’s milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full...

    Correct

    • A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full term by normal vaginal delivery weighing 3.48kg and has been breastfed since birth. She has now lost 11% of her birth weight and bilirubin is above the phototherapy line. On examination, her fontanelle is soft, CRT<2 seconds, she is active and alert. U&Es have been sent, and the sodium on a blood gas is 144. You have started phototherapy, but still, need to make a plan about fluids and feeding. Mother wants to continue breastfeeding but is also happy to introduce some formula milk. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Offer NG or cup feeds alongside breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A new-born child is not moving his left arm properly. He had shoulder...

    Correct

    • A new-born child is not moving his left arm properly. He had shoulder dystocia during childbirth. His arm is hanging down with the shoulder internally rotated, elbow extended, forearm pronated and wrist flexed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erb palsy

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy is a paralysis of the arm caused by injury to the brachial plexus, specifically the severing of the upper trunk C5–C6 nerves.The infant with an upper plexus palsy (C5-C7) keeps the arm adducted and internally rotated, with the elbow extended, the forearm pronated, the wrist flexed, and the hand in a fist. In the first hours of life, the hand also may appear flaccid, but strength returns over days to months.The right side is injured in 51% of cases. Left side occurs in 45% of patients and bilateral injuries, in 4%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was irritable with evidence of weight loss. His stools were pale, bulky and malodorous. What is the most appropriate test that can be done to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sweat Test

      Correct Answer: Jejunal Biopsy

      Explanation:

      Pale, bulky, malodorous stools are evidence of fat malabsorption syndrome. The diagnostic test is jejunal biopsy to rule out other differential diagnoses such as celiac disease, giardiasis or Crohn’s disease etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents...

    Correct

    • A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?

      Your Answer: Sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?

      Your Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 6 year old child diagnosed with minimal change nephrotic syndrome, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child diagnosed with minimal change nephrotic syndrome, presents with lower limb oedema. Which of the following is most likely lost upon urination?

      Your Answer: Anti-thrombin III

      Explanation:

      Minimal change nephrotic syndrome leads to the loss of anti-thrombin III which protects the body from forming venous emboli. It may be triggered by virus, immunisations, medication, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, or leukaemiaCharacterised by oedema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hypercholesterolemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?

      Your Answer: Neurogenic

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation? ...

    Correct

    • Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week

      Explanation:

      European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 18-year-old female presents to the dermatologist with a pigmented lesion on her...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old female presents to the dermatologist with a pigmented lesion on her back. A melanoma is suspected. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Excisional biopsy of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Melanoma, a highly malignant tumour arising from melanocytes, is the most common life-threatening dermatological disease. Risk factors include UV radiation exposure, particularly in light-skinned individuals that are easily sunburned, increasing age, family history, and immunosuppression. Lesions that are suspicious for melanoma should be excised with complete margins. Radical excision is not routinely undertaken for diagnostic purposes and therefore if subsequent histopathological assessment determines that the lesion is a melanoma a re-excision of margins may be required.Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thicknessLesions 0-1mm thick – 1cmLesions 1-2mm thick – 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions 2-4mm thick – 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions >4 mm thick – 3cm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia, and dysphagia. On examination, patchy white spots were noted in his oropharynx. An upper GI endoscopy revealed similar lesions in the oesophagus. Which of the following is most likely to identify the underlying pathology in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum urea and electrolytes

      Correct Answer: Viral serology

      Explanation:

      Based on the given scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Thus, the most appropriate investigation to confirm the underlying pathology in this patient would be viral serology. Rationale:The presence of oesophageal candidiasis is highly suggestive of severe immunosuppression. The causes of immunosuppression can be chemotherapy, with haematological malignancy, HIV or inhaled steroids. In patients with HIV, oesophageal candidiasis is part of the spectrum of AIDS-defining illnesses and usually occurs when the CD4 count is < 200 cells/microL. Other AIDS-defining illnesses include PCP pneumonia and CMV infections.Oesophageal Candidiasis:It is characterised by white spots in the oropharynx with extension into the oesophagus. It seldom occurs without an associated underlying risk factor like broad-spectrum antibiotic usage, immunosuppression and immunological disorders.Patients may present with oropharyngeal symptoms, odynophagia and dysphagia.Treatment is directed both at the underlying cause (which should be investigated for) and with oral antifungal agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual...

    Incorrect

    • In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?

      Your Answer: 11 years of age

      Correct Answer: 9 years of age

      Explanation:

      Precocious Puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in males is testicular enlargement, followed by growth of the penis and the scrotum at least a year after. Precocious puberty in boys in uncommon and usually has an organic cause leading to excess secretion of testosterone. These can be gonadotrophin dependent in the case of an inter cranial lesion, where the testes would be bilaterally enlarged, or from excess production from the adrenal gland in the case of adrenal hyperplasia or a tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you...

    Incorrect

    • Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you give?

      Your Answer: Child should sleep on the back with the head towards the end of the cot

      Correct Answer: Child should sleep on the back with legs towards the end of the cot

      Explanation:

      Cot death also know as SIDS or Sudden Infant Death syndrome. Putting a baby to sleep on his back has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Mania

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Pellagra occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Niacin is required for most cellular processes. Since tryptophan in the diet can be converted to niacin in the body, both of these need to be deficient for pellagra to develop.The classical triad of symptoms is diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia.The first sign is reddened skin with superficial scaling in areas exposed to sunlight, heat and friction. This may resemble severe sunburn then gradually subsides leaving a dusky brown-red colouration. The rash is usually symmetrical with a clear edge between affected and unaffected skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      145.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A pregnant woman that already has a son with haemophilia A, wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman that already has a son with haemophilia A, wants to know the chances of her next unborn child having the same condition.

      Your Answer: 0.25

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that is a 50% chance of having a son with haemophilia and 50% chance of the daughters being carriers of the haemophilia gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old schoolboy presents for a regular medical check-up. He complains of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old schoolboy presents for a regular medical check-up. He complains of a red patch of skin on his chest, that is surrounded by an area of skin scaling. This was followed by the development of oval macules over the rest of his trunk, arms and thighs three days later. he has just returned to school for the start of Spring term. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Likely drug reaction

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis rosea is a common, acute exanthem of uncertain aetiology. Viral and bacterial causes have been sought, but convincing answers have not yet been found. Pityriasis rosea typically affects children and young adults. It is characterized by an initial herald patch, followed by the development of a diffuse papulosquamous rash. The herald patch often is misdiagnosed as eczema. Pityriasis rosea is difficult to identify until the appearance of characteristic smaller secondary lesions that follow Langer’s lines (cleavage lines). Several medications can cause a rash similar to pityriasis rosea, and several diseases, including secondary syphilis, are included in the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Correct

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths| Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Use emollient wet wraps at night for 1 week then continue current treatment

      Correct Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap| advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer: Should never be treated with antivirals

      Correct Answer: Is usually associated with lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum (also called Kaposi varicelliform eruption) is a disseminated viral illness usually associated with lymphadenopathy.It is most often caused by Herpes Simplex type 1 or type 2. Occasionally, other viruses such as coxsackievirus A16 may cause eczema herpeticum. Affected children usually develop itchy blisters and fever after coming in contact with an affected individual who may or may not display cold sores.It is characterised by an itchy and sometimes painful cluster of blisters most commonly on the face initially. This spreads over one to several weeks resulting in further crops of blisters which can become confluent. Lymphadenopathy and fever are common in these patients.The severity varies from mild illness to life-threatening, especially in immunocompromised children or young infants. It is markedly more common in children with atopic dermatitis. It is one of the few dermatological emergencies, and oral antivirals are often indicated. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be needed if there is eyelid or eye involvement. Occasionally, superadded skin infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CXR

      Correct Answer: CSF analysis

      Explanation:

      This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a...

    Incorrect

    • A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Arrange an abdominal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which is not a variation of lichen planus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not a variation of lichen planus?

      Your Answer: Planopilaris

      Correct Answer: Sclerotic

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of lichen planus has several variations, as follows:- Hypertrophic lichen planus- Atrophic lichen planus- Erosive/ulcerative lichen planus- Follicular lichen planus (lichen planopilaris)- Annular lichen planus- Linear lichen planus- Vesicular and bullous lichen planus- Actinic lichen planus- Lichen planus pigmentosus- Lichen planus pemphigoides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias. Which of the following abnormalities is most often associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Ventricular - septal defect

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is an abnormality of anterior urethral and penile development. The urethral opening is located on the ventral aspect of the penis proximal to the tip of the glans penis, which, in this condition, is open. The urethral opening may be located as proximal as in the scrotum or perineum. The penis may also have associated ventral shortening and curvature, called chordee, with more proximal urethral defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?

      Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a baby born breech?

      Your Answer: X-Ray

      Correct Answer: USS

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a spectrum of anatomical abnormalities of the hip joint in which the femoral head has an abnormal relationship with the acetabulum.Plain radiographs are of limited value for diagnosis in the new-born child because the femoral head and acetabulum are largely cartilaginous. Ultrasound scanning is the investigation of choice to evaluate DDH in infants younger than six months of age and is useful to diagnose more subtle forms of the disorder when a clinical exam is equivocal. It is also the only imaging modality that enables a three-dimensional real-time image of a neonate’s hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A new-born at term with no significant family history presents with absent skin...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born at term with no significant family history presents with absent skin on both feet to mid-calf. The most appropriate thing to do is to:

      Your Answer: Counsel that this type of epidermolysis bullosa is fatal

      Correct Answer: Cover the affected areas in cling film

      Explanation:

      The baby most probably has dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa, a primarily autosomal dominant disorder associated with keratin 5 and 14 defects. Initial management consists of supportive measures such as protecting the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial meningitis

      Explanation:

      Hydrocephalus is a serious medical condition resulting from excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain leading to abnormal pressure build-up inside the brain. Hydrocephalus can be categorized into two types according to the flow of CSF between the ventricles. When the CSF flows freely between the ventricles, but is blocked after it exits the ventricular system, the hydrocephalus is said to be a communicating hydrocephalus. When the flow of CSF within the ventricles is blocked, the resulting hydrocephalus is termed as obstructive, or non-communicating. The communicating hydrocephalus is caused by insufficient reabsorption of CSF in the subarachnoid space, which is also observed in cases of bacterial meningitis, in which inflammatory process leads to the thickening of the leptomeninges and thereby reduces CSF reabsorption. Arnold Chiari malformation is associated with obstructive hydrocephalus due to blocked ventricles. Congenital aqueduct stenosis causes the blockage of third and lateral ventricles. Congenital atresia of the foramen of Monro leads to blocked lateral ventricles and thus results in obstructive hydrocephalus. Tumour of the posterior fossa is associated with blockage of the fourth ventricle outflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology And Neurodisability (2/2) 100%
Nutrition (2/2) 100%
Neonatology (4/4) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (2/3) 67%
Emergency Medicine (2/2) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (5/6) 83%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/1) 0%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed