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  • Question 1 - The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except:

      Your Answer: paralysis

      Correct Answer: exfoliative skin rash

      Explanation:

      Clostridium species do not present with an exfoliative skin rash. C. perfringens is a common aetiology in necrotizing infections (gas gangrene) as well as food poisoning, which often also includes diarrhoea. C. difficle causes diarrhoea. C. tetany and C. botulinum have neurotoxins that can lead to paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old male presented with a mass in his right groin. On examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presented with a mass in his right groin. On examination there was a pulsatile mass just below the midpoint of the inguinal ligament. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Correct Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Midpoint of the inguinal ligament is halfway between the pubic tubercle and the anterior superior iliac spine (the two attachments of the inguinal ligament). The opening to the inguinal canal is located just above this point. The femoral artery is at the mid-inguinal point which is halfway between the pubic symphysis and the anterior superior iliac spine. As the mass is at the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, the most probable answer is a femoral hernia. A femoral aneurysm is also a possibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old female admitted with heat intolerance, neck pain, palpitations and recent onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female admitted with heat intolerance, neck pain, palpitations and recent onset weight loss despite increased appetite. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with diagnosis of thyroiditis associated with viral infection?

      Your Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Correct Answer: Reduced uptake on thyroid isotope scan

      Explanation:

      Subacute thyroiditis (De Quervain’s thyroiditis) is a self-limiting thyroid condition presenting with three clinical courses of hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and return to normal thyroid function. In subacute thyroiditis serum thyroglobulin (TG) levels are elevated. ESR is usually greater than 50 mm/h, often exceeding 100 mm/h. Radio-iodine uptake is low or nil. Antithyroperoxidase antibodies are associated with autoimmune thyroiditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Respect parental wishes and withhold the blood transfusion

      Correct Answer: Give the blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.

      Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.
      This could be:
      the child’s mother or father
      the child’s legally appointed guardian
      a person with a residence order concerning the child
      a local authority designated to care for the child
      a local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.
      Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.
      Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethical & Legal
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23-year-old female presents to the hospital with worsening shortness of breath, increased...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the hospital with worsening shortness of breath, increased volume of purulent sputum and left-sided chest pain. She has a history of cystic fibrosis. Medical notes state that she is under consideration for the transplant list and for some years has been colonised with pseudomonas.
      On examination she has a temperature of 38.4°C and FEV1 falling below 75% of the previous value that was recorded. She looks unwell and is tachycardic and hypotensive with a respiratory rate of 21/min. Burkholderia cepacia is confirmed as the pathogen in this case.

      What would be the most appropriate antibiotic regime?

      Your Answer: Ceftazidime and aminoglycoside

      Explanation:

      Burkholderia cepacia is an aerobic gram-negative bacillus found in various aquatic environments. B cepacia is an organism of low virulence and is a frequent colonizer of fluids used in the hospital (e.g., irrigation solutions, intravenous fluids).
      B cepacia, as a non-aeruginosa pseudomonad, is usually resistant to aminoglycosides, antipseudomonal penicillin, and antipseudomonal third-generation cephalosporins and polymyxin B.
      B cepacia is often susceptible to trimethoprim plus sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), cefepime, meropenem, minocycline, and tigecycline and has varying susceptibility to fluoroquinolones.
      Based on the options available, ceftazidime and aminoglycoside would be the best option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3...

    Correct

    • A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acid fast bacilli

      Explanation:

      History and CXR are suggestive of tuberculosis. Acid fast bacilli should be seen on microscopy to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      81.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An echocardiogram of a 50-year-old male patient showed an infarct in the anterolateral...

    Incorrect

    • An echocardiogram of a 50-year-old male patient showed an infarct in the anterolateral aspect of the left side of the heart and apex. An angiogram was then done. Obstruction of which of the following arteries is the cause of this myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: Circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery is responsible for supplying the entire left side of the heart, however, it divides into the left anterior descending artery which supplies the apex of the heart and the interventricular septum, and the left circumflex artery which supplies the posterolateral part of the left ventricle and a portion of the papillary muscle. The infarction is noted at the apex of the heart and the interventricular septum, therefore, the obstruction has occurred in the left anterior descending artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A west Indian man complains of limb and abdominal pain. He is also...

    Incorrect

    • A west Indian man complains of limb and abdominal pain. He is also anaemic and has frequent infections, which precipitate these symptoms. On examination, his spleen is not palpable and he has a mild jaundice. What is your most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: G6PD deficiency

      Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell disease (SCD) and its variants are genetic disorders resulting from the presence of a mutated form of haemoglobin, haemoglobin S (HbS). This leads to a rigid, sickle-like shape of red blood cells under certain circumstances which can result in attacks of pain (sickle cell crisis), anaemia, swelling in the hands and feet, bacterial infections and stroke. Anaemia and jaundice happen due to insufficient healthy red blood cell capacity and increased breakdown of haem groups by the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old woman with contralateral hemisensory loss presents with severe burning pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with contralateral hemisensory loss presents with severe burning pain in this area. In which of the following areas has arterial occlusion most probably occurred?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: Thalamogeniculate artery

      Explanation:

      The woman’s clinical evolution suggests that there was a thalamic stroke in the contralateral hemisphere. The artery most likely affected is the thalamogeniculate artery. Sensory loss is usually unilateral and presents at the opposite side of the brain lesion. This kind of stroke can result in severe burning pain which is responsive to tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      109.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 79-year-old nursing home resident presents to the clinic with an intensely itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old nursing home resident presents to the clinic with an intensely itchy rash. Examination reveals white linear lesions on the wrists and elbows, and red papules on the penile surface. Which of the following will be the most suitable management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Scabies is a parasitic skin infestation caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mite, which is primarily transmitted via direct human-to-human contact. The female scabies mite burrows into the superficial skin layer, causing severe pruritus, particularly at night. Primary lesions commonly include erythematous papules, vesicles, or burrows. Treatment involves topical medical therapy (e.g. permethrin) and decontamination of all clothing and textiles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old female was examined after complaining of weak limbs. It was discovered...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female was examined after complaining of weak limbs. It was discovered she had burn marks on her fingers, diminished reflexes, and wasted and weak hands. Additionally, she has dissociated sensory loss and weak spastic legs. What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syringomyelia

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms experienced by this patient are consistent with Syringomyelia. The sensory features are as follows: loss of temperature and pain sensation; sensory loss in the arms, shoulders, and upper body; touch, vibration, and position senses are affected in the feet as the syrinx enlarges into the dorsal column. Motor features are as follows: muscle wasting and weakness which begins in the hand, and moves onto the forearms and shoulders; loss of tendon reflexes. Autonomic involvement, such as the bladder and bowel, can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a purpuric rash covering the abdominal wall and thighs, and a fever of 38C. Investigations reveal haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury.
       
      Which feature of the presentation makes the diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura more likely than haemolytic uremic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Confusion in the patient refers to neurological symptoms that are more associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura than with haemolytic uremic syndrome. All the other symptoms present in both conditions similarly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia...

    Incorrect

    • What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      5-15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old female from a nursing home presented in the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female from a nursing home presented in the emergency department with complaints of headache, blurred vision and confused state for the last 4 to 5 days. On examination, she has several bruises on her head. Which of the following is the most likely cause behind the confused state of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subdural hematoma

      Explanation:

      Bruises on her head are suggestive of a head injury. Confused state with a headache and blurred vision are due to a subdural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and haemoptysis. Examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and haemoptysis. Examination shows nasal mucosal ulceration. The doctor suspects Wegener's granulomatosis. Which anatomical area would be most commonly involved in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis) is a systemic vasculitis that affects both small and medium-sized vessels. Patients typically initially suffer from a limited form that may consist of constitutional symptoms and localized manifestations such as chronic sinusitis, rhinitis, otitis media, ocular conditions. In later stages, more serious manifestations may arise, including pulmonary complications and glomerulonephritis, although the skin, eyes, and heart may also be involved but these lesions are less common.
      Diagnosis is based on laboratory testing (positive for PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA), imaging, and biopsy of affected organs, which demonstrate necrotizing granulomatous inflammation. GPA is treated with immunosuppressive drugs, typically consisting of glucocorticoids combined with methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, or rituximab. Relapses are common and the following systems are affected: Lower respiratory tract (95% of cases), renal involvement (80% of cases), skin lesions (45% of cases), ocular involvement (45% of cases) and cardiac involvement (33% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?...

    Incorrect

    • Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Procainamide

      Explanation:

      Many drugs are responsible for causing drug induced lupus. However, it is most commonly associated with hydralazine, procainamide and quinidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During examination, numerous small vesicles were found within the ear canal and her ear is very tender. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for such a condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster is a viral disorder in which painful vesicular lesions are present in a specific dermatome area. High-grade fever may present as well due to infection. Varicella zoster, measles, herpes simplex and HIV do not present with tender lesions of a limited area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is not a recognised feature of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognised feature of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pO2 but normal oxygen saturation

      Explanation:

      Normal pO2 but decreased oxygen saturation is characteristic of methemoglobinemia.

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis.
      Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.

      Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
      The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      – Hirsutism
      – Infertility
      – Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      – Diabetes
      – Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Androgen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.

      Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain.
    He underwent pituitary surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain.
      He underwent pituitary surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour two years ago. Although he recovered from his pituitary surgery well, he has been found to have complete anterior hypopituitarism. Accordingly he is receiving stable replacement therapy with testosterone monthly injections, thyroxine and hydrocortisone.
      On examination, there are no specific abnormalities, his vision is 6/9 in both eyes and he has no visual field defects.
      From his notes, you see that he has gained 8 kg in weight over the last six months and his BMI is 31. His blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg.
      Thyroid function tests and testosterone concentrations have been normal. A postoperative MRI scan report shows that the pituitary tumour has been adequately cleared with no residual tissue.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      The somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland produce growth hormone (GH).
      GH deficiency in adults usually manifests as reduced physical performance and impaired psychological well-being. It results in alterations in the physiology of different systems of the body, manifesting as altered lipid metabolism, increased subcutaneous and visceral fat, decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, low exercise performance, and reduced quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years complains of drooling of saliva and sudden difficulty in swallowing while eating. She is a known hypertensive on treatment. What would be your next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia or difficulty in swallowing. Endoscopy allows for visual examination of the oesophagus and is indicated in patients with dysphagia to determine the underlying aetiology, exclude malignant and premalignant conditions, assess the need for therapy, and perform therapy including dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Oculomotor nerve palsy is an eye condition resulting from damage to the third cranial nerve or a branch thereof. A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic down and out position in the affected eye. This is because the lateral rectus (innervated by the sixth cranial nerve) and superior oblique (innervated by the fourth cranial or trochlear nerve), is unantagonized by the paralyzed superior rectus, inferior rectus and inferior oblique. The affected individual will also have a ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, and mydriasis (pupil dilation), not miosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment. He presents to the acute medical ward with one month history of worsening central lower back pain, which becomes worse at night and cannot be managed with an analgesia at home. He has no other new symptoms.

      Out of the following, which investigation should be performed next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI whole spine

      Explanation:

      An MRI whole spine should be performed in a patient suspected of spinal metastasis which can occur before developing metastatic spinal cord compression. This patient has renal cell carcinoma, which readily metastasises to the bones and also has progressive back pain. He, therefore, needs urgent imaging of his spine before any neurological compromise develops. MRI whole spine is preferable because patients with spinal metastasis often have metastases at multiple levels within the spine. Plain radiographs and CT scans should not be performed as they have a lower sensitivity for revealing lesions and cannot exclude cord compression.

      In general, imaging should be performed within one week if symptoms suspicious of spinal metastasis without neurological symptoms are present. If there are symptoms suggestive of malignant spinal cord compression, then imaging should be done within 24 hours.

      The signs and symptoms of spinal metastases include:
      1. Unrelenting lumbar back pain
      2. Thoracic or cervical back pain
      3. Pain associated with tenderness and worsens with sneezing, coughing, or straining
      4. Nocturnal pain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In which condition are β-blockers not recommended as the first line of therapy?...

    Incorrect

    • In which condition are β-blockers not recommended as the first line of therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      For patients with hypertension, ACE inhibitors, diuretics, or calcium-channel blockers are given as first-line pharmacological agents. Patients with angina, chronic heart failure, myocardial infarction, and permanent atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular rate, are given β-blockers as first-line therapy. In these cases, increased cardiac activity can not be met by the amount of blood being supplied to the heart. Giving β-blockers will reduce the workload of the heart and slow down the cardiac activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients

      Explanation:

      For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:

    Opening...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:

      Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)
      Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)
      Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)
      White cell count 60 per ml (<5)
      Lymphocytes 90%
      Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A young woman presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight where she was stabbed in the neck. On examination, her tongue deviates to the right side on protrusion. Which of the following nerves is involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve injury

      Explanation:

      The motor functions of the intrinsic tongue muscles, as well as the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles, are all innervated by the hypoglossal nerve. These muscles are essential for swallowing and speech. To test nerve function, the physical examiner has a patient protrude his or her tongue. In intranuclear, or lower motor neuron lesions, the tongue deviates toward the injured side, as the contralateral genioglossus is acting unopposed. In contrast, supranuclear (upper motor neuron) lesions result in deviation away from the lesion. In addition to causing deviation toward the lesion, an injury involving a hypoglossal nucleus may result in tongue atrophy and fasciculation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He has been married for 15 years and has two children. He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly.
      Examination reveals an obese man who is phenotypically normal with normal secondary sexual characteristics.
      Investigations are as follows:
      Hb 13.4 g/dl (13.0-18.0)
      WCC 6 x 109/l (4-11)
      Platelets 210 x 109/l (150-400)
      Electrolytes Normal
      Fasting glucose 5.6 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)
      LFTs Normal
      T4 12.7 pmol/l (10-22)
      TSH 2.1 mU/l (0.4-5)
      Prolactin 259 mU/l (<450)
      Testosterone 6.6 nmol/l (9-30)
      LH 23.7 mU/l (4-8)
      FSH 18.1 mU/l (4-10)

      What is the next investigation needed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination of the testes

      Explanation:

      The patient has primary Hypogonadism.
      Since he already had two children, Klinefelter syndrome is excluded and the patient does not need karyotyping.
      His lab results are normal indicating normal pituitary gland functions.
      So the next step is testicular ultrasound as testicular tumour, infiltration or idiopathic failure is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A patient presented with acute onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body....

    Incorrect

    • A patient presented with acute onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body. He also has evidence of sensory loss on the right hand side. There is evidence of Horner's syndrome and sensory loss on the face on the left hand side.
      Which of the following structures are involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain stem

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome or posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome, where the symptoms are due to an ischemia in the brainstem. The classical symptoms include contralateral sensory deficits of the trunk region paired with ipsilateral facial sensory deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
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