-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?
Your Answer: Perinatal transmission
Explanation:The virus is transmitted by exposure to infectious blood or body fluids. Infection around the time of birth or from contact with other people’s blood during childhood is the most frequent method by which hepatitis B is acquired in areas where the disease is common. In areas where the disease is rare, intravenous drug use and sexual intercourse are the most frequent routes of infection. Perinatal transmission is the most common and without intervention, a mother who is positive for HBsAg has a 20% risk of passing the infection to her offspring at the time of birth. This risk is as high as 90% if the mother is also positive for HBeAg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not innervated by the parasympathetic nerve supply?
Your Answer: Sphincter muscle of iris
Correct Answer: Radial muscle of iris
Explanation:The sphincter pupillae is supplied by the parasympathetic fibers from the Edinger Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor nerve. The dilator pupillae (radial muscle) is supplied by the postganglionic fibers of the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion. The parasympathetic nerve supply to the salivary glands originate in the parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerve (superior salivatory nucleus) and the glossopharyngeal nerve (inferior salivatory nucleus). The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate in the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve and descend into the thorax in the vagus nerve. The fibers terminate by synapsing with postganglionic neurons in the cardiac plexuses. Postganglionic fibers terminate on the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes and on the coronary arteries Parasympathetic supply to the stomach is via the vagus nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are:
Your Answer: Isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.
Explanation:The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.1st stage: diastole, or passive filling is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. 2nd stage: atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle (active filling).3rd stage: isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. 4th stage: ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. 5th stage: isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a macrophage?
Your Answer: Astrocyte
Correct Answer: Microglia
Explanation:Microglia act as the macrophages of the central nervous system, and they contribute to innate and adaptive immune responses. Studies have shown that microglial cells recognize monocyte antigens, and there are similarities between them that demonstrate that they originate from these monocytes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Regarding gustatory sensation:
Your Answer: There are three morphologically distinct types of cells within each taste bud
Correct Answer: The sensory taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue travel to the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve
Explanation:There are three morphologically distinct types of taste buds including; circumvallate, fungiform and foliate. Circumvallate are rounded structures arranged in a v on the back of the tongue. The posterior third travels to glossopharyngeal nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Tumour necrosis factor is a cytokine. What is its major function?
Your Answer: Chemotaxis of neutrophils,
Correct Answer: Promotion of inflammation
Explanation:Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that has a wide variety of functions. It can cause cytolysis of certain tumour cell lines; it is involved in the induction of cachexia; it is a potent pyrogen, causing fever by direct action or by stimulation of interleukin-1 secretion; it can stimulate cell proliferation and induce cell differentiation under certain conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Concerning protein digestion:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum
Explanation:Human pepsinogens can be divided into two immunochemically distinct groups: Pepsinogen I (PG I) and Pepsinogen II (PGII). PG I is secreted mainly by chief cells in the fundic mucosa whereas PGII is secreted by the pyloric glands and the proximal duodenal mucosa. Maximal acid secretion correlates with PG I. Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum/jejunum. Pepsin functions best in an acidic environment and specifically at a pH of 1.5 to 3.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Cholesterol is synthesized in all of these organs EXCEPT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stomach
Explanation:The liver primarily synthesizes about 20-25% of the total daily cholesterol. Cholesterol is also synthesized to smaller extents in the adrenal glands, reproductive organs (as cholesterol is the precursor of sex hormones), skin and is also produced in the intestines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
What landmark divides the frontal and parietal lobes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central sulcus
Explanation:The central sulcus divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. It contains the motor cells for the movement function of the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Interruption of the left optic tract will result in which visual field defect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right homonymous hemianopia
Explanation:Right homonymous hemianopia is due to a lesion or pressure on the left optic tract. Total blindness of the left eye is due to a complete occlusion of the left optic nerve. Bipolar hemianopia is due to a midline chiasmal lesion. Left nasal hemianopia due to a lesion involving the left perichiasmal area. Right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia is due to involvement of the lower left optic radiations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which of the following stimulates glucagon release?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exercise
Explanation:Studies have shown a small increase in glucagon levels during stress tests and exercise. This occurs in response to the reduction of blood glucose levels during physical activity; epinephrine levels are also a stimulus for the release of glucagon during exercise, since it suppresses insulin, which accounts for its stimulatory effects on glucagon. The use of stored fats for energy during exercise also stimulates the release of glucagon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Where is the majority of Mg2+ absorbed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle.
Explanation:Although the majority of the filtered magnesium is reabsorbed within the ascending loop of Henle, it is now recognized that the distal tubule also plays an important role in magnesium conservation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Where is the aqueous humor normally reabsorbed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Canal of schlemm
Explanation:Aqueous humor is a clear protein free fluid secreted by the ciliary body, it travels to the anterior chamber through the pupil and is absorbed through a network of trabeculae into the canal of schlemm
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol in the adrenal gland?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 11βHSD type 1
Explanation:11β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, also known as HSD-11β or 11β-HSD, is a group of enzymes which catalyse the interconversion of active cortisol and corticosterone with inert cortisone and 11-dehydrocorticosterone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic rate rises?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.14
Explanation:An increase in body temperature is associated with a higher metabolic rate. Evidence suggests that an increase of 1°C in your body temperature increases your metabolism by 10 to 14%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
In a 60kg adult male with normal mean arterial pressure and oxygen consumption, what proportion of the cardiac output at rest goes to the brain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10-15%
Explanation:The rate of cerebral blood flow in the adult is typically 750 millilitres per minute, which is 10-15% of the cardiac output. On average around 13.9% of cardiac output is distributed to the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
In adults, the major site of haematopoiesis is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The axial skeleton
Explanation:Bone marrow is the flexible tissue in the interior of bones. In humans, red blood cells are produced by cores of bone marrow in the heads of long bones.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill
Explanation:The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.Other options:The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful. There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course. Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure. There are multiple different types of combined pills.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris
Explanation:The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
With regards to the cardiac cycle which of the following is true
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right atrial systole occurs before left atrial systole: as below
Explanation:Cardiac cycle: The first event in the cycle is atrial depolarization (a P wave on the surface ECG) follows by RIGHT ATRIAL and then LEFT ATRIAL contraction. Ventricular activation (QRS) follows after a short interval (the PR interval). LEFT VENTRICULAR contraction starts shortly thereafter RIGHT VENTRICULAR contraction begins. At the end, the aortic valve closure is followed by pulmonary valve closure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which of the following causes an increase in venous return?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An increase in the negative intra-thoracic pressure
Explanation:During inspiration, intrathoracic pressure becomes more negative and intra-abdominal pressure more positive. This increases the venous pressure gradient from abdomen to thorax and promotes filling of the central veins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
The following cells replicate without shortening their telomeres because they express telomerase.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Germ cells
Explanation:Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Endotoxin will typically act on which one of the following cells, to produce endogenous pyrogens?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monocytes
Explanation:Endotoxin, also known as lipopolysaccharides or lipoglycans, are molecules that consist of a lipid and a polysaccharide. They bind to many cell types, but especially to monocytes, promoting the secretion of proinflammatory cytokines, acting as a pyrogen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Chief cells secrete:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pepsinogen and gastric lipase
Explanation:A gastric chief cell (or peptic cell, or gastric zymogenic cell) is a type of cell in the stomach that releases pepsinogen and gastric lipase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What is troponin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A component of thin filaments
Explanation:Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GABA
Explanation:The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers: the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer. Purkinje cells play a fundamental role in controlling motor movement. They release a neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions thereby reducing transmission of impulses. These inhibitory functions enable purkinje cells to regulate and coordinate motor movements.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
