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  • Question 1 - A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a left sided cataract after an ophthalmoscopic...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a left sided cataract after an ophthalmoscopic exam. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroidism is the least likely cause of cataract development as all of the other mentioned options can lead to eye problems. Asthma and crohn’s can lead to steroid induced cataract formation, while trauma to the eye can cause traumatic cataracts to develop afterwards. JIA often leads to uveitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop....

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop. On examination, there is weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. A small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of the right foot is also present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      Injuries to the peroneal nerve can cause numbness, tingling, pain, weakness and foot drop. The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate and control the muscles in the legs that lift the ankle and toes upward (dorsi flexion).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - All of the following are disorders of the supra-renal glands except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are disorders of the supra-renal glands except:

      Your Answer: Di-George syndrome

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, Di-George syndrome is not associated with adrenal gland disorders.Di-George syndrome is characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletionOther options:- Addison’s disease is a result of adrenal hypofunction and may present with collapse secondary to a salt-losing crisis.- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia: CAH is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme (classically 21-hydroxylase deficiency) in the biosynthetic pathway in the adrenal cortex, leading to insufficient production of cortisol and aldosterone, and a build-up of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.- Cushing’s syndrome is a syndrome of cortisol excess. An adrenal tumour is a primary cause.- Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine releasing tumour of the adrenal gland/s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old boy was admitted with a burn that looks third or fourth...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy was admitted with a burn that looks third or fourth degree upon inspection. He has not stopped crying. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: IV fluid start

      Explanation:

      The boy needs re-hydration due to his full thickness burn so IV fluids is the next most appropriate step. The greatest loss of plasma occurs in the first 12 hours after burn injury. The plasma loss then slowly decreases during the second 12 hours of the post-burn phase, although extensive leakage can continue for up to three days (Ahrns, 2004). Optimal fluid replacement during this period is essential to ensure cardiac output and renal and tissue perfusion. Usually, 36 hours post-burn, capillary permeability returns to normal and fluid is drawn back into the circulation. Burns of more than 15% of surface body area in adults and of over 10% in children warrant formal resuscitation.The Parkland formula for the total fluid requirement in 24 hours is as follows:4ml x TBSA (%) x body weight (kg)|50% given in first eight hours|50% given in next 16 hours.Children receive maintenance fluid in addition, at an hourly rate of:4ml/kg for the first 10kg of body weight plus|2ml/kg for the second 10kg of body weight plus|1ml/kg for >20kg of body weight.End pointUrine – adults: 0.5–1.0 ml/kg/hour|Urine – children: 1.0–1.5ml/kg/hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been...

    Correct

    • As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been informed of a case of ambiguous genitalia in which the midwife was unable to decide the gender at birth. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Inform the parents that a number of investigations will need to be performed and that they will need to wait before a sex is assigned

      Explanation:

      Cases of neonatal infant ambiguous genitalia can be a great source of psychological stress for families. One of the most important next steps in managing the case is reassuring the parents that the best care will be given to the baby and then informing them about the investigations that will need to be performed before a sex can be assigned. The sex should not be guessed just by examination nor assigned by karyotyping. Thorough investigations must be completed with the help of endocrinologists for the best outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What post-birth event encourages closure of the ductus venosus in a new-born baby?...

    Incorrect

    • What post-birth event encourages closure of the ductus venosus in a new-born baby?

      Your Answer: First breath and fall in pulmonary vascular resistance

      Correct Answer: Umbilical cord clamping and separation from mother

      Explanation:

      After birth, the infant takes its first breath and is exposed to a myriad of stimuli. The pulmonary vessels dilate, and pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) decreases remarkably while the systemic vascular pressure rises above the PVR. This allows blood from the right ventricle to enter the lungs for oxygenation. In most cases, this increased oxygenation, along with other factors, causes the ductal wall to constrict and the ductus arteriosus to close functionally. As left-sided pressures rise higher than right-sided pressures, the foramen ovale functionally closes. With the clamping of the umbilical cord and the cessation of blood flow, pressures in the portal sinus decrease. This causes the muscle in the sinus wall near the ductus venosus to contract. The lumen of the duct becomes filled with connective tissue, and, in two months, the ductus venosus becomes a fibrous strand embedded in the wall of the liver, thus establishing adult circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      84.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood...

    Incorrect

    • What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      The anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to the IgM class of immunoglobulins.Note:IgM is the largest antibody formed of 5 antibodies attached together. This functions to agglutinate or clump antigens. The associated anti-A and anti-B antibodies are usually IgM produced in the first years of life by sensitisation to environmental substances such as food, bacteria, and viruses.Other options:- IgG is the most common antibody. It is a single antibody complex.- IgD is found on the surface of B-lymphocytes.- IgE is bound to tissue cells, especially mast cells and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability? ...

    Incorrect

    • What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?

      Your Answer: <20

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years
      Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years
      Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years
      Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years
      Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - To which structure does the mesonephric duct give rise? ...

    Correct

    • To which structure does the mesonephric duct give rise?

      Your Answer: Seminal vesicles

      Explanation:

      The mesonephric duct is one of the paired embryogenic tubules that drain the primitive kidney (mesonephros) to the cloaca. It also gives off a lateral branch forming the ureteric bud. In both the male and the female the Wolffian duct develops into the trigone of the urinary bladder. When the ducts are exposed to testosterone during embryogenesis, male sexual differentiation occurs: the mesonephric duct develops into the rete testis, the ejaculatory ducts, the epididymis, the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the hospital by concerned parents. The teachers...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the hospital by concerned parents. The teachers of her school have brought to their attention that she struggles to see the whiteboard in class. The parents have also noticed that she has difficulty when looking at the computer.Except for being a nervous reader at times, the parents haven't noticed anything else unusual. She's otherwise healthy and plays well with her friends.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Refractive error

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the child most probably is suffering from a refractive error.Astigmatism, myopia and high hypermetropia could all cause these symptoms. This child has difficulty in using vision for finer tasks such as reading. Mild to moderate refractive error would not impair the child’s ability to play or even watch television as for the child in question. Note: Refractive error is the most common treatable cause of reduced vision in children all over the world! Other options:- A congenital cataract is rare and retinal dystrophy is even rarer. – Amblyopia would suggest poor vision in only one eye, something that might not cause symptoms in this age group. – Parents or teachers would have probably noticed squint if it was present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Correct

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever and urinary urgency. The temperature is recorded to be 39C. Which of the following is the best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Clean catch of urine

      Explanation:

      Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is true about haemophilia C? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about haemophilia C?

      Your Answer: The bleeding risk correlates to the severity of the deficiency

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin time (PT) is normal

      Explanation:

      In haemophilia C, The severity of the deficiency is based on plasma factor XIC (clotting) activity. Major factor XI deficiency is present when the activity of factor XI in plasma is less than 1-15 IU/dL.In major deficiency factor XI, bleeding is related to injury, especially when trauma involves tissues rich in fibrinolytic activators, such as the oral mucosa, the nose, and the urinary tract. Unlike patients with severe haemophilia A or B, patients with major factor XI deficiency do not spontaneously bleed.The aPTT is usually prolonged in factor XI deficiency (but depends on the sensitivity of the reagent and test system–partial deficiency can be missed), whereas the PT and TT are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      80.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad| patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Turner’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is sexually active with...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is sexually active with a boy her age. Which of the following advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: They both need immediate treatment without further testing. A test of cure is not necessary.

      Explanation:

      Treating persons infected with C. trachomatis prevents adverse reproductive health complications and continued sexual transmission, and treating their sex partners can prevent reinfection and infection of other partners. Treating pregnant women usually prevents transmission of C. trachomatis to neonates during birth. Chlamydia treatment should be provided promptly for all persons testing positive for infection. Treatment delays have been associated with complications (e.g. PID) in a limited proportion of women. To minimise disease transmission to sex partners, persons treated for chlamydia should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse for 7 days after single-dose therapy or until completion of a 7-day regimen and resolution of symptoms if present. To minimise risk for reinfection, patients also should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse until all of their sex partners are treated. Persons who receive a diagnosis of chlamydia should be tested for HIV, GC, and syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      87.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 6 year old child who has been developing normally until the age...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child who has been developing normally until the age of 18 months, is now being investigated for developmental delay. The girl started losing her acquired skills and stopped walking. During the clinical examination she is holding her hands together and twisting and turning them. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rett syndrome is a disorder that affects the brain and occurs most commonly in girls. It presents with a period of normal development followed by severe problems with language and communication, learning, coordination, and other brain functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A study shows that of children with asthma, 25% have a first-degree relative...

    Incorrect

    • A study shows that of children with asthma, 25% have a first-degree relative with asthma compared with only 10% of a sample of children without asthma. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Larger samples are needed to give more precise estimates

      Correct Answer: To interpret the results we need to know how the samples were selected

      Explanation:

      Observational studies fall under the category of analytic study designs and are further sub-classified as observational or experimental study designs. The goal of analytic studies is to identify and evaluate causes or risk factors of diseases or health-related events. The differentiating characteristic between observational and experimental study designs is that in the latter, the presence or absence of undergoing an intervention defines the groups. By contrast, in an observational study, the investigator does not intervene and rather simply “observes” and assesses the strength of the relationship between an exposure and disease variable.Three types of observational studies include cohort studies, case-control studies, and cross-sectional studies. Case-control and cohort studies offer specific advantages by measuring disease occurrence and its association with an exposure by offering a temporal dimension (i.e. prospective or retrospective study design). Cross-sectional studies, also known as prevalence studies, examine the data on disease and exposure at one particular time point. Because the temporal relationship between disease occurrence and exposure cannot be established, cross-sectional studies cannot assess the cause and effect relationshipDisadvantage of Cohort study is Susceptible to selection bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A term baby with a birth weight of 4.5 kg with meconium aspiration...

    Correct

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 4.5 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Settings are mean airway pressure 14 cmH2O, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 1.0. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 84%. Blood gas shows pH 7.32, CO2 6.5 kPa, BE –4. Chest X-ray shows poorly inflated lungs.What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer: Increase mean airway pressure

      Explanation:

      The baby needs more oxygen saturation which could be attempted by increasing the mean airway pressureAfter initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially...

    Incorrect

    • A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially appears to be stable. However, over the next 24 hours, he develops worsening neurological function.Which one of the following processes is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Sub arachnoid haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences.Loss of autoregulation of cerebral blood flow is a pathophysiologic feature of germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Prematurity itself results in derangements in cerebral autoregulation. In some patients, a history of additional events that result in loss of autoregulation can be obtained. Furthermore, events that can result in beat-to-beat variability of cerebral blood flow may be identified in some patients.There may be no symptoms. The most common symptoms seen in premature infants include:- Breathing pauses (apnoea)- Changes in blood pressure and heart rate- Decreased muscle tone- Decreased reflexes- Excessive sleep- Lethargy- Weak suck- Seizures and other abnormal movements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer: Anthracotic pigment

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned regarding her development. Which of the following is expected of developmental milestones at this age?

      Your Answer: Can play peek-a-boo

      Correct Answer: They enjoy playing with their parents

      Explanation:

      6 month old babies that go through normal developmental milestones, should enjoy playing with others and especially their parents.The other milestones are expected of a 9-month-old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement? ...

    Incorrect

    • Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement?

      Your Answer: Raised free T3

      Correct Answer: Low serum creatinine

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is associated with a decrease in muscle mass, which is one of the primary locations of creatinine metabolism. Due to this, plasma creatinine levels are found to be decreased in patients with anorexia. Other blood chemistry derangements in patients of anorexia nervosa include hypercortisolism, hypoglycaemia, low free T3 levels, and hypercholesterolemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 10-month-old boy was brought to the emergency department with bilateral watery discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old boy was brought to the emergency department with bilateral watery discharge from both eyes with occasional mucoid discharge. The presentation is highly suggestive of a nasolacrimal duct dysfunction.Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice to be given to the boy's parents?

      Your Answer: The child needs urgent ophthalmological review

      Correct Answer: Reassurance, as most infants tend to resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate management would be to reassure the parents, as nasolacrimal duct dysfunction in most infants tends to resolve spontaneously.Note:Nasolacrimal duct blockage occurs in up to 5% of new-borns. 90% of these babies spontaneously resolve in the first year of life. They do not require urgent ophthalmological review, as often advice and reassurance for parents suffice for up to the age of 18 months old or so. A lump can often be seen in the nasolacrimal region following the accumulation of mucous. This does not need to be treated with antibiotics unless there are signs of acute infection.Other options:- The child does not require urgent ophthalmology review as there are no signs of severe infection. Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is a common non-worrying sign.- A course of topical antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge. Unnecessary topical antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.- A course of topical and oral antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge. Unnecessary topical and oral antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.- Reassurance is necessary. However, the advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect. Reassurance, but include advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect as 90% of infants that have these symptoms and signs resolve within the first year of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      77
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after birth. Which of the following heart conditions might the baby have?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a common congenital heart lesion that presents with severe cyanosis that is likely to appear in the first day of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?

      Your Answer: Patent foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin and lansoprazole for 1 week

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week

      Explanation:

      European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      54.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer: Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-1

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid is the protective liquid that surrounds the fetus in utero. It prevents the fetus from injury, protects the umbilical cord from compression, and provides necessary nutrients and a medium for growth and movement. Amniotic fluid originates from the maternal plasma initially, but by 16th week of gestation, fetal kidneys start making urine which contributes to further production of the amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid contains a number of chemical substances including hormones, tumour markers, nutrients, electrolytes, and immunoglobulins. Main substances found in amniotic fluid include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, lactoferrin, insulin-like growth factor, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, erythropoietin, etc. Interleukin-1 is not a component of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 3-year-old girl presents with pallor and marked gland enlargement. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with pallor and marked gland enlargement. She has been unwell for the past three weeks. She had a full term normal delivery with no neonatal problems. Her immunisations are up to date. There is no family or social history of note. On examination, her temperature is 37.6°C, and she looks pale and unwell. She has a few petechiae on the neck and palate, with moderate generalised lymphadenopathy and a 3 cm spleen. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Acute leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma: The history is of enlarged reticuloendothelial system with abnormalities in all 3 cell lines of the bone marrow (pallor, fever and petechiae). The most likely diagnosis is therefore acute (lymphoblastic) leukaemia. Lymphadenopathy may be prominent: mediastinal nodes are characteristic of T-cell leukaemia. In lymphoma the marrow involvement tends to be much less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      62.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament tear

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      103.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic...

    Correct

    • A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows:HBsAg PositiveHBeAg PositiveWhat is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?

      Your Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      423
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a purpuric rash on his legs and buttocks,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a purpuric rash on his legs and buttocks, and coffee ground emesis. The joints of his body are also painful. Blood testing reveals mild eosinophilia and a small rise in IgA levels. Urine testing reveals microscopic haematuria. Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Dysphonia

      Explanation:

      Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?

      Your Answer: Raised TSH

      Correct Answer: Raised Testosterone

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels↑ Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen index↑ LH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?...

    Incorrect

    • A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?

      Your Answer: Hop

      Correct Answer: Make a tower out of 9 bricks

      Explanation:

      3-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalCopies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/CommunicationFollows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handle Movement/Physical DevelopmentClimbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and downstairs one foot on each step

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      262.1
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee pain that has been occurring over the past 2 days. The pain is associated with mild fever that started on the 2nd day. The patient is able to walk but with a limp. Examination reveals painful and restricted motion of the right knee. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Osteomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Septic (infectious) arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint space. Contamination occurs either via the bloodstream, iatrogenically, or by local extension (e.g., penetrating trauma). Patients with damaged (e.g., patients with rheumatoid arthritis) or prosthetic joints have an increased risk. Patients usually present with an acutely swollen, painful joint, limited range of motion, and a fever. Suspected infectious arthritis requires prompt arthrocentesis for diagnosis. In addition to the immediate broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy, surgical drainage and debridement may be necessary to prevent cartilage destruction and sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with...

    Incorrect

    • A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was...

    Incorrect

    • A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was administered. There was a delay in clamping the cord. No respiratory effort is observed, and the heart rate is slow. What should be the next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Place saturation probe on baby’s left hand

      Correct Answer: 5× inflation breaths

      Explanation:

      Most infants have a good heart rate after birth and establish breathing by about 90 s. If the infant is not breathing adequately aerate the lungs by giving 5 inflation breaths, preferably using air. Until now the infant’s lungs will have been filled with fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement...

    Incorrect

    • The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement between the two groups:

      Your Answer: Do not help with the interpretation of results

      Correct Answer: Should be performed before the study commences

      Explanation:

      Power calculations are a important step in study design and preparation, but do not directly help with the interpretation of the results. They are used to determine how many subjects are needed in order to avoid errors in accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. These calculations are not usually complex and for the best results, the power of the test should be set to above 80%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has not responded to over a year of medical management.A colonoscopy-guided biopsy has ruled out Hirschsprung's disease.Which of the following procedures would be appropriate in the surgical management of this child?

      Your Answer: Left hemi-colectomy to increase transit time

      Correct Answer: Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate procedure in the surgical management of this child would be to perform an appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas (Malone procedure).Idiopathic constipation leading to faecal incontinence is managed in a stepwise progression, first with laxatives such as movicol, enemas and stronger laxatives and in younger children inter-sphincteric injection of botox may be performed. Following this either anal irrigation or antegrade continence enemas are performed. Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas allow colonic washouts and thereby rapid achievement of continence.Other options:- Defunctioning Ileostomy: Although an option in extreme cases, an ACE stoma would be more appropriate in this child.- Laparotomy for resection of the megarectum is performed if ACE stoma fails due to megarectum.- Left hemicolectomy is a procedure reserved for slow-transit colons to increase transit time.- Bishop-Koop stoma: It is a procedure of historical significance. It is a way of washing out and managing meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      62.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which of the following structures must be divided to gain access to the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      External oblique forms the outermost muscle of the three muscles comprising the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. Its aponeurosis comprises the anterior wall of the inguinal canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the dermatologist due to an appearance of an...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the dermatologist due to an appearance of an odd patch of skin on her left thigh which has developed over a period of two weeks. Physical examination reveals a firm, slightly indurated pale area of skin with an erythematous border on the upper thigh. the lesion has a glazed appearance and is rather atrophic. From the options provided below, which one is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus

      Correct Answer: Morphoea

      Explanation:

      Morphea, also known as localized scleroderma, is a disorder characterized by excessive collagen deposition leading to thickening of the dermis, subcutaneous tissues, or both. Morphea is classified into circumscribed, generalized, linear, and pansclerotic subtypes according to the clinical presentation and depth of tissue involvement. Unlike systemic sclerosis, morphea lacks features such as sclerodactyly, Raynaud phenomenon, nailfold capillary changes, telangiectasias, and progressive internal organ involvement. Morphea can present with extracutaneous manifestations, including fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, fatigue, central nervous system involvement, as well as laboratory abnormalities, including eosinophilia, polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia, and positive antinuclear antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache, which is mostly frontal in location and occasionally associated with nausea.He has been taking paracetamol 3 g daily, aspirin 300 mg thrice daily, and codeine 40 mg thrice daily, all of which have had only a temporary effect. He has a two year history of depression treated with paroxetine. No abnormalities were found on examination.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Correct Answer: Analgesic misuse headache

      Explanation:

      Because of the patient’s history of chronic analgesic use of daily paracetamol intake, the most likely diagnosis of this case is Analgesic misuse headache. In these cases, the headache is only temporarily relieved by analgesics. Treatment involves gradual withdrawal of analgesics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2 days. She is lethargic and persistently crying. Urine dipstick showed leucocytes. What is the single most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CSF analysis

      Correct Answer: Urine for C&S

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation and leucocytes on the urine dipstick is suggestive of a urinary tract infection. To confirm the diagnosis, urine should be sent for culture and sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following is there Growth hormone deficiency (GHD)?

      Your Answer: Chronic renal failure (CRF)

      Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The main cause of growth hormone (GH) deficiency is a pituitary tumour or the consequences of treatment of the tumour including surgery and/or radiation therapy.Sheehan’s syndrome (SS) is postpartum hypopituitarism caused by necrosis of the pituitary gland. It is usually the result of severe hypotension or shock caused by massive haemorrhage during or after delivery. Patients with SS have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency.Laron syndrome is Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) deficiency due to GH resistance or insensitivity due to genetic disorders of the GH receptor causing GH receptor deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with aplastic anaemia after presenting with fatigue, dyspnoea and headaches. He lives on a farm and would usually play hide and seek with his siblings in the barn where the family store pesticides and other chemicals. Lab investigations reveal a significant leukopenia. Aplastic anaemia results due to failure of hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to progenitors of immune cells. In which area of the body are these cells primarily located?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are a rare population of cells residing in the bone marrow (BM) and continuously replenish all mature blood cells throughout their life span.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Pellagra occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Niacin is required for most cellular processes. Since tryptophan in the diet can be converted to niacin in the body, both of these need to be deficient for pellagra to develop.The classical triad of symptoms is diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia.The first sign is reddened skin with superficial scaling in areas exposed to sunlight, heat and friction. This may resemble severe sunburn then gradually subsides leaving a dusky brown-red colouration. The rash is usually symmetrical with a clear edge between affected and unaffected skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (2/3) 67%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Emergency Medicine (2/2) 100%
Neonatology (4/5) 80%
Haematology And Oncology (2/4) 50%
Nephro-urology (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Adolescent Health (2/3) 67%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/2) 50%
Child Development (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (4/4) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (4/4) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Passmed