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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      Signs and symptoms of Sickle cell disease(SCD):
      Acute and chronic pain: The most common clinical manifestation of SCD is vaso-occlusive crisis; pain crises are the most distinguishing clinical feature of SCD
      Bone pain: Often seen in long bones of extremities, primarily due to bone marrow infarction
      Anaemia: Universally present, chronic, and haemolytic in nature
      Aplastic crisis: Serious complication due to infection with parvovirus B19 (B19V)
      Splenic sequestration: Characterized by the onset of life-threatening anaemia with rapid enlargement of the spleen and high reticulocyte count
      Infection: Organisms that pose the greatest danger include encapsulated respiratory bacteria, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae; adult infections are predominantly with gram-negative organisms, especially Salmonella
      Growth retardation, delayed sexual maturation, being underweight
      Hand-foot syndrome: This is a dactylitis presenting as bilateral painful and swollen hands and/or feet in children
      Acute chest syndrome: Young children present with chest pain, fever, cough, tachypnoea, leucocytosis, and pulmonary infiltrates in the upper lobes; adults are usually afebrile, dyspnoeic with severe chest pain, with multilobar/lower lobe disease
      Pulmonary hypertension: Increasingly recognized as a serious complication of SCD
      Avascular necrosis of the femoral or humeral head: Due to vascular occlusion
      Central nervous system (CNS) involvement: Most severe manifestation is stroke
      Ophthalmologic involvement: Ptosis, retinal vascular changes, proliferative retinitis
      Cardiac involvement: Dilation of both ventricles and the left atrium
      Gastrointestinal involvement: Cholelithiasis is common in children; liver may become involved
      Genitourinary involvement: Kidneys lose concentrating capacity; priapism is a well-recognized complication of SCD
      Dermatologic involvement: Leg ulcers are a chronic painful problem

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 76-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision. Upon physical examination, it...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision. Upon physical examination, it was observed that he exhibits left-sided hemiplegia and left-sided loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense and discriminatory touch. In addition, he has the inability to abduct his right eye and is holding his head towards the right side. A CT scan was ordered and showed that he has suffered a right-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      Inferior medial pontine syndrome, also known as Foville syndrome, is one of the brainstem stroke syndromes which occurs when there is infarction of the medial inferior aspect of the pons due to occlusion of the paramedian branches of the basilar artery.

      It is characterized by ipsilateral sixth nerve palsy, facial palsy, contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral loss of proprioception and vibration, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral facial weakness, and lateral gaze paralysis and diplopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding red blood cell group antigens and antibodies, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding red blood cell group antigens and antibodies, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Naturally occurring anti-D antibodies occur in the plasma of all subjects who lack the RhD antigen.

      Correct Answer: Anti-D antibodies are usually IgG.

      Explanation:

      Approximately 400 red blood cell group antigens have been described. The ABO group antigens are unusual in that naturally occurring antibodies occur in the plasma of subjects who lack the corresponding antigen, even if they have not been exposed to that antigen previously. The most important of these natural antibodies are anti-A and anti-B, which are usually IgM. Anti-D antibodies don’t occur naturally, and are therefore immune antibodies that result from previous transfusions or pregnancy. Only IgG antibodies are capable of transplacental passage and the most important immune antibody is the Rh antibody, anti-D.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a contraindication to using nitrous oxide: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a contraindication to using nitrous oxide:

      Your Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide should not be utilized in patients with an air-containing confined area because it diffuses into these spaces, causing a rise in pressure. This includes circumstances like pneumothorax, intracranial air after a head injury, imprisoned air from a recent undersea dive, a recent intraocular gas injection, or intestinal blockage. Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow and should be avoided in individuals who have or are at risk of having high intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are about to perform an emergency pericardiocentesis on a 26-year-old male who...

    Correct

    • You are about to perform an emergency pericardiocentesis on a 26-year-old male who was involved in a car accident and is suspected of having cardiac tamponade due to signs of hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and distended neck veins. Where should you insert the needle to relieve tamponade?

      Your Answer: Inferior and to the left of the xiphochondral junction

      Explanation:

      Pericardiocentesis is a procedure that removes excess fluid from the pericardium. As a result, it’s used in cases of cardiac tamponade, which occurs when there’s too much fluid in the space around the heart.

      During the procedure, a needle and a small catheter are inserted 1 to 2 cm inferior and to the left of the xiphochondral junction into the pericardial cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In the Emergency Department, a 35-year-old woman actively seizing is brought in. She...

    Incorrect

    • In the Emergency Department, a 35-year-old woman actively seizing is brought in. She is quickly shifted into the resuscitation room and is administered a dose of benzodiazepine. The seizure is quickly terminated.

      Once the patient is stable, she tells you she is a known case of epilepsy and takes phenytoin to control it.

      Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of phenytoin?

      Your Answer: GABA reuptake inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Sodium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin is in the anticonvulsants class of drugs and is used in the management and treatment of the following:
      1. epilepsy
      2. generalized tonic-clonic seizures
      3. complex partial seizures
      4. status epilepticus.

      It works by inactivating the voltage-gated sodium channels responsible for increasing the action potential. It is non-specific and targets almost all voltage-gated sodium channel subtypes. More specifically, phenytoin prevents seizures by inhibiting the positive feedback loop that results in neuronal propagation of high-frequency action potentials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding Clostridium difficile, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Clostridium difficile, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It has endotoxin-mediated effects causing profuse watery diarrhoea.

      Correct Answer: It is normally found in gut flora.

      Explanation:

      C. difficile is normally found in the gut flora but its growth is normally suppressed by more dominant anaerobes. It has exotoxin-mediated effects causing profuse diarrhoea. Oral clindamycin (a broad spectrum antibiotic) is commonly implicated in precipitating C. difficile colitis; first line treatment is with oral metronidazole. Tetanolysin is a toxin produced by Clostridium tetani bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male receives a small cut over his hand while climbing a fence causing it to bleed. Upon applying pressure for a few minutes, the bleeding stops. Which one of the following physiological components of the blood is responsible for the primary haemostasis reaction, such as in this case?

      Your Answer: Platelet plug formation

      Explanation:

      Haemostasis is your body’s defence against an injury that causes bleeding. It stops bleeding in three main steps:

      1) Primary haemostasis – formation of a weak platelet plug
      – The primary reaction of the body is to cause local vasoconstriction at the site of injury and decrease blood flow to the affected area
      – the release of cytokines and inflammatory markers lead to adhesion of platelets and aggregation at the site of injury forming a platelet plug
      – the injured vessel wall has exposed subendothelial collagen that releases von Willebrand factor

      Any damage to the vessel wall causes the release of the Von Willebrand factor, which is necessary for platelet adhesion. Tissue Thromboplastin is also released, which activates the coagulation pathway, a component of secondary haemostasis. The coagulation cascade ultimately results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

      2) Secondary haemostasis
      3) Fibrinolysis

      Fibrin (factor Ia) is a long, thin protein with branches produced at the end of the coagulation cascade when fibrinogen (factor I) is converted to fibrin, which stabilizes the blood clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Hodgkin's lymphoma?
    ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Hodgkin's lymphoma?

      Your Answer: Most patients present with painless asymmetrical lymphadenopathy, with cervical nodes involved most commonly.

      Explanation:

      Lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system, which is part of the body’s germ-fighting network. They are a group of diseases that are caused by malignant lymphocytes. These malignant cells accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue, giving rise to the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy.
      They can be subdivided into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) which are characterised by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL).
      Characteristics of HL include:
      1. can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults,
      2. almost 2:1 male predominance.
      3. presents with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes.
      4. cervical node involvement in 60-70% of cases,
      5. axillary node involvement in 10-15%
      6. inguinal node involvement in 6-12%.
      7. modest splenomegaly during the course of the disease in 50% of patients
      8. may occasionally have liver enlargement
      9. bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease.
      Approximately 85% of patients are cured, but the prognosis depends on age, stage and histology.
      Two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL are alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle, which of the following statements is true?...

    Correct

    • Regarding the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery

      Explanation:

      Extensor carpi ulnaris is a fusiform muscle in the posterior forearm. It spans between the elbow and base of the little finger. This muscle belongs to the superficial forearm extensor group, along with anconaeus, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum and extensor digiti minimi muscles.

      Like all the muscles of this compartment, extensor carpi ulnaris works as an extensor of the wrist. Moreover, due to its specific course, this muscle also acts to adduct the hand.

      Extensor carpi ulnaris is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve (C7, C8), a branch of the deep division of the radial nerve. The radial nerve stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

      Blood supply to the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle is provided by branches of the radial recurrent and posterior interosseous arteries, which stem from the radial and ulnar arteries, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 52-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a groin mass...

    Correct

    • A 52-year old male comes to the out-patient department for a groin mass that protrudes when standing. The patient notes that it is reducible when lying down. On physical examination, there is presence of a cough impulse. The initial assessment is hernia. Further investigation reveals that the mass lies lateral to the epigastric vessels.

      Among the types of hernia, which is the most likely diagnosis of the case above?

      Your Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias can present with an array of different symptoms. Most patients present with a bulge in the groin area, or pain in the groin. Some will describe the pain or bulge that gets worse with physical activity or coughing. Symptoms may include a burning or pinching sensation in the groin. These sensations can radiate into the scrotum or down the leg. It is important to perform a thorough physical and history to rule out other causes of groin pain. At times an inguinal hernia can present with severe pain or obstructive symptoms caused by incarceration or strangulation of the hernia sac contents. A proper physical exam is essential in the diagnosis of an inguinal hernia. Physical examination is the best way to diagnose a hernia. The exam is best performed with the patient standing. Visual inspection of the inguinal area is conducted first to rule out obvious bulges or asymmetry in groin or scrotum. Next, the examiner palpates over the groin and scrotum to detect the presence of a hernia. The palpation of the inguinal canal is completed last. The examiner palpates through the scrotum and towards the external inguinal ring. The patient is then instructed to cough or perform a Valsalva manoeuvre. If a hernia is present, the examiner will be able to palpate a bulge that moves in and out as the patient increases intra abdominal pressure through coughing or Valsalva.

      Groin hernias are categorized into 2 main categories: inguinal and femoral.

      Inguinal hernias are further subdivided into direct and indirect. An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum, and can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally. A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.

      A femoral hernia is a protrusion into the femoral ring. The borders of the femoral ring are the femoral vein laterally, Cooper’s ligament posteriorly, the iliopubic tract/inguinal ligament anteriorly and lacunar ligament medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - C5 - C9 deficiency increases susceptibility to infection with which of the following:...

    Incorrect

    • C5 - C9 deficiency increases susceptibility to infection with which of the following:

      Your Answer: Intracellular bacteria

      Correct Answer: Neisseria spp.

      Explanation:

      If the complement sequence is completed, an active phospholipase (the membrane attack complex, MAC) is produced, which punches holes in the cell membrane and causes cell lysis. Because the MAC appears to be the sole means to destroy the Neisseria family of bacteria, C5 – C9 deficiency increases susceptibility to Neisseria infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following would you NOT expect from a deep fibular nerve...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would you NOT expect from a deep fibular nerve palsy:

      Your Answer: Loss of extension of the toes

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation over heel

      Explanation:

      Damage to the deep fibular nerve results in loss of dorsiflexion of the ankle, with resultant foot drop with high-stepping gait, loss of toe extension, weakness of foot inversion and loss of sensation over the webspace between the 1st and 2nd toes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - From which of the following cell types are platelets derived? ...

    Correct

    • From which of the following cell types are platelets derived?

      Your Answer: Megakaryocytes

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of platelets occurs in the bone marrow by fragmentation of megakaryocytes cytoplasm, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The average time for differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets is about 10 days. The major regulator of platelet formation is thrombopoietin and 95% of this is produced by the liver. Normal platelet count is 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal lifespan of a platelet is about 10 days. Usually about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old female is diagnosed case of bipolar disorder and is on medication....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female is diagnosed case of bipolar disorder and is on medication. She presents to her psychiatric team with symptoms of severe depression. She is currently taking Lithium.

      Out of the following, which is TRUE regarding lithium?

      Your Answer: It can induce diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: It commonly causes a tremor

      Explanation:

      Lithium is the drug of choice for bipolar disorders but is commonly associated with side effects and toxicity.

      Fine hand tremor is very commonly seen and reported in as many as 50% of patients during the first week of therapy with Lithium. The tremor tends to reduce with time and is only present in around 5% of patients taking the medication two years or longer. Lithium tremors are more common with older age, presumably due to the additive effects of age-related essential tremors.

      Option The normal therapeutic range is 2.0-2.5 mmol/l: Lithium should be carefully monitored as it has a very low therapeutic index. The normal therapeutic range is 0.4-0.8 mmol/l. Levels should be checked one week after starting therapy and one week after every change in dosage. (Option Levels should be checked one month after starting therapy)

      Option It can induce hyperthyroidism: Lithium has a known effect on thyroid function. Lithium decreases the production of T4 and T3 and commonly causes hypothyroidism. More rarely, lithium causes hyperthyroidism due to thyroiditis.

      Option It can induce diabetes mellitus: Lithium can induce nephrogenic diabetes insipidus but not diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule: ...

    Incorrect

    • About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule:

      Your Answer: 50 - 60%

      Correct Answer: 65 - 70%

      Explanation:

      Of the filtered sodium, about 65% is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - One of your patients has been infected by an obligate pathogen and presents...

    Incorrect

    • One of your patients has been infected by an obligate pathogen and presents with features of this condition.

      Which of these is an example of an obligate pathogen?

      Your Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci

      Correct Answer: Trepenoma pallidum

      Explanation:

      Treponema pallidum is an obligate pathogen. Obligate pathogens are almost always associated with disease and usually cannot survive outside of the body for long periods of time. Examples include and HIV.

      Staphylococcus aureus and Bacteroides fragilis are conditional pathogens. These are pathogens that usually cause disease only if certain conditions are met.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, are opportunistic pathogens. These are pathogens that can only cause disease in an immunocompromised host or under unusual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding the phases of gastric secretion, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:...

    Correct

    • Regarding the phases of gastric secretion, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: A high pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion.

      Explanation:

      A low pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion, therefore when the stomach is empty or when acid has been secreted for some time after food has entered it, there is inhibition of acid secretion. However, when food first enters the stomach, the pH rises, and this leads to release of the inhibition and causes a maximum secretion of gastrin. Thus gastric acid secretion is self-regulating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Among the following microorganisms, which is considered to be transmitted by invasion of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following microorganisms, which is considered to be transmitted by invasion of intact skin?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Leptospira spp.

      Explanation:

      Rodents and domestic animals are the primary reservoirs for the Leptospira spp, although other animals, including cows, horses, mongooses, and frogs, can also harbour the leptospires. Humans may be directly infected from animal urine or indirectly by contact with soil or water that is contaminated with urine from infected animals. Infected humans can shed leptospires in urine for up to 11 months, infected cows for 3.5 months, infected dogs for 4 years, and infected rodents possibly for their entire lifetime.

      The organisms enter the host through mucous membranes or abraded skin. The incubation period ranges from 5 to 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You review a 46-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a...

    Correct

    • You review a 46-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. She suffers from COPD and is currently prescribed salbutamol and Seretide inhalers, and Phyllocontin continus. Since starting the antibiotics, she has been experiencing nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.
      Which of the following antibiotics is she MOST LIKELY to have been prescribed for her UTI? Select ONE answer only .

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Phyllocontin continus contains aminophylline (a mixture of theophylline and ethylenediamine), a bronchodilator used in the management of COPD and asthma.
      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of theophylline toxicity, which may have been triggered by the prescription of the antibiotic. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, and macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, increase the plasma concentration of theophyllines and can lead to toxicity.
      The drugs that commonly affect the half-life and the plasma concentration of theophylline are summarised in the table below:
      Drugs increasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Drugs decreasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Calcium channel blockers, e.g. Verapamil
      Cimetidine
      Fluconazole
      Macrolides, e.g. erythromycin
      Quinolones, e.g. ciprofloxacin
      Methotrexate
      Barbiturates
      Carbamazepine
      Phenobarbitol
      Phenytoin (and fosphenytoin)
      Rifampicin
      St. John’s wort

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      27
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (2/2) 100%
Pathology (3/5) 60%
Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (0/2) 0%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
CNS Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (0/3) 0%
Pathogens (0/1) 0%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Basic Cellular (1/1) 100%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/2) 0%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed