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  • Question 1 - Cranial nerves VI, VII, VIII enter/exit the base of the brain at the:...

    Correct

    • Cranial nerves VI, VII, VIII enter/exit the base of the brain at the:

      Your Answer: Ponto-medullary junction

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerves III, IV and V exit from the pons, VI, VII, VIII exit from the pontomedullary junction and cranial nerve IX, X, XI, XII exit from the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following is true about the carotid arterial supply to the brain: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is true about the carotid arterial supply to the brain:

      Your Answer: Its contribution to brain arterial flow falls second to that of basilar arteries

      Correct Answer: Following carotid occlusion, precapillary anastomoses are unable to prevent infarction

      Explanation:

      The brain has two sources of blood supply; the internal carotid arteries which are the anterior segment or the main artery that supplies the anterior portion of the brain, and the vertebral arteries which is the posterior segment which supplies the posterior portion of the brain. The internal carotid arteries branch and form two major arteries anterior and middle cerebral arteries. The right and left vertebral arteries fuse together at the level of the pons on the anterior surface of the brainstem to form the midline basilar artery. The basilar artery joins the blood supply from the internal carotids in an arterial ring at the base of the brain called the circle of Willis. The anterior and posterior communicating arteries conjoin the two major sources of cerebral vascular supply via the circle of Willis improving the chances of any region of the brain continuing to receive blood if one of the major arteries becomes occluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following ocular presentations is atypical for multiple sclerosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ocular presentations is atypical for multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer: Diplopia

      Correct Answer: Raised intraocular pressure

      Explanation:

      There is no correlation between multiple sclerosis and raised intraocular pressure, which is known as glaucoma when accompanied by visual field loss.

      Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.

      The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A teenage girl is asked why it is wrong to cheat on a...

    Correct

    • A teenage girl is asked why it is wrong to cheat on a test. She answers, Because I could get in trouble with the school and my parents.
      According to Kohlberg's model of moral development, which stage is she at?

      Your Answer: Punishment and obedience orientation

      Explanation:

      The first two stages of moral development, punishment and obedience orientation and individuation and exchange, are collectively referred to as preconventional morality. At this stage, children understand right and wrong based on the consequences of their actions, with punishment being a deterrent in the first stage and risk avoidance in the second stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What are the defining features of Kleine-Levin syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the defining features of Kleine-Levin syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hyperorality

      Correct Answer: Hyperphagia

      Explanation:

      Hyperphagia and hypersomnia are the defining features of Kleine-Levin syndrome.

      Kleine-Levin Syndrome: A Mysterious Condition

      Kleine-Levin syndrome is a peculiar disorder that typically affects adolescent boys. It is characterized by an excessive need for sleep and an insatiable appetite when awake. The condition is also associated with emotional and behavioral issues such as irritability and aggression.

      The onset of symptoms is sudden and can last for several days to weeks before disappearing. This is followed by a period of normalcy, only to be followed by another episode. This pattern can continue for years, but the severity of symptoms tends to decrease over time. During the periods between episodes, those affected appear to be perfectly healthy with no signs of physical of behavioral dysfunction. The media has dubbed this condition as Sleeping Beauty syndrome.

      Despite extensive research, the cause of Kleine-Levin syndrome remains unknown. However, the prognosis is generally positive, with most individuals making a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the DSM-5's definition of 'gender dysphoria'? ...

    Correct

    • What is the DSM-5's definition of 'gender dysphoria'?

      Your Answer: To meet the diagnostic threshold the condition must be associated with significant distress

      Explanation:

      The main requirement is a mismatch between an individual’s biological sex and their gender identity, which causes significant distress.

      Gender identity is the person’s identification of lived role in society, which is separate from their biological sex. Gender can include non-binary and pangender identities, and cisgender refers to people whose gender is congruent with their biological sex. Gender identity is not the same as sexual preference, which is covered by separate diagnostic categories. The ICD-11 has redefined gender identity-related health, replacing diagnostic categories like “transsexualism” and “gender identity disorder of children” with “gender incongruence of adolescence and adulthood” and “gender incongruence of childhood”, respectively. The DSM-5 uses the term ‘gender dysphoria’ to cover the whole range of gender identity disorders, which is characterized by a marked incongruence between one’s experienced/expressed gender and their assigned gender, lasting at least 6 months, and associated with clinically significant distress of impairment in social, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old South Asian female graduate is preparing for a job interview.
    She reports...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old South Asian female graduate is preparing for a job interview.
      She reports difficulty focusing, forgetfulness, and persistent feelings of sadness. Additionally, she experiences tension in her head and neck and occasional vision disturbances.
      What culture-specific syndrome is most probable in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Brain fag

      Explanation:

      Culture-bound disorders are mental health conditions that are specific to certain cultural settings and may be related to other diagnostic categories such as anxiety disorders of psychosis. Examples of these disorders include windigo and brain fag, which are depressive states, latah and piblokto, which are hysterical states, and amok, which is a dissociative state.

      Brain fag is commonly observed in West African students and is a reaction to extreme stress, often related to school work. Symptoms include difficulty concentrating, memory problems, low mood, and sometimes pain around the head and neck, and blurred vision.

      Amok is a dissociative state that is more prevalent in Malaysia. It is characterized by symptoms such as neurasthenia, depersonalization, rage, automatism, and violent acts.

      Latah is a condition similar to Tourette’s syndrome, where an exaggerated startle response leads to abnormal behavior such as screaming, cursing, dancing movements, and uncontrollable laughter. Upon provocation, affected individuals may also shout obscene utterances, imitate a word, gesture, of action, of automatically obey commands that they would not normally follow.

      Piblokto, traditionally found among Eskimo women, presents with attacks of screaming, crying, and running naked through the snow.

      Wendigo is a depressive condition characterized by the delusion that one has become cannibalistic. It is mostly observed in Native Americans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old female with a bipolar disorder history has been effectively managed on...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female with a bipolar disorder history has been effectively managed on lithium for a few years. She plans to conceive and seeks guidance on the safety of lithium during pregnancy and breastfeeding. What is the accurate statement regarding this matter?

      Your Answer: Lithium should not be used during the first trimester of when breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      During the first trimester, lithium may lead to atrialisation of the right ventricle. However, it can be used in the second and third trimesters with increased dosage requirements. After delivery, lithium dosage requirements return to normal suddenly. Continuing a high dose of lithium can result in dangerously elevated lithium levels. Additionally, lithium is excreted in breast milk, and if the infant becomes dehydrated, toxic levels of lithium can develop quickly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which SSRI can be administered intravenously to treat depression? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which SSRI can be administered intravenously to treat depression?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants

      While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.

      One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.

      Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.

      Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.

      Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old male comes to your clinic as a new patient and reports...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male comes to your clinic as a new patient and reports experiencing persistent and distressing thoughts related to his past trauma, which often lead to avoidance behaviors. Which psychological therapy would be the most suitable referral for him?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment options for obsessive-compulsive disorder and body dysmorphic disorder, according to NICE guidelines, include the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), of a combination of both. Other therapies such as cognitive analytical therapy, interpersonal therapy, and psychodynamic psychotherapy have not been found to have sufficient evidence to support their use in managing OCD. Additionally, referral to an anxiety management group would not provide targeted treatment for OCD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which statement about EPSEs is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about EPSEs is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Patients who develop one EPSE are more vulnerable to developing another

      Correct Answer: Anticholinergics are indicated in the treatment of tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Patients who develop TD who are prescribed an anticholinergic drug should not have this discontinued if possible.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the estimated number of words a 30-month-old child typically knows? ...

    Correct

    • What is the estimated number of words a 30-month-old child typically knows?

      Your Answer: 100-200 words

      Explanation:

      Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language

      The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.

      However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What database is most suitable for finding scholarly material that has not undergone...

    Correct

    • What database is most suitable for finding scholarly material that has not undergone official publication?

      Your Answer: SIGLE

      Explanation:

      SIGLE is a database that contains unpublished of ‘grey’ literature, while CINAHL is a database that focuses on healthcare and biomedical journal articles. The Cochrane Library is a collection of databases that includes the Cochrane Reviews, which are systematic reviews and meta-analyses of medical research. EMBASE is a pharmacological and biomedical database, and PsycINFO is a database of abstracts from psychological literature that is created by the American Psychological Association.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In which of the following therapeutic approaches are the three flawed processes 'traps,...

    Correct

    • In which of the following therapeutic approaches are the three flawed processes 'traps, snags, and dilemmas' identified?

      Your Answer: Cognitive analytical therapy

      Explanation:

      Mentalisation therapy is a psychotherapy approach that is particularly helpful for individuals with borderline personality disorder. It is psychodynamically-oriented and focuses on helping individuals develop the ability to mentalise, of understand their own and others’ thoughts, feelings, and intentions. This therapy approach aims to improve interpersonal relationships and reduce impulsive and self-destructive behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What type of dysarthria is typically caused by damage to the lower motor...

    Incorrect

    • What type of dysarthria is typically caused by damage to the lower motor neurons related to a tumor?

      Your Answer: Spastic dysarthria

      Correct Answer: Flaccid dysarthria

      Explanation:

      Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.

      Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.

      Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.

      Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.

      Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Ms. Johnson is a 35-year-old teacher who you are seeing for anxiety. She...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Johnson is a 35-year-old teacher who you are seeing for anxiety. She tells you that she is convinced that her colleagues are talking about her behind her back. She knows this because sometimes they whisper when she walks by and then stop when she approaches. She has started recording their conversations and tells you she would confront them if she had proof. She has previously confronted a colleague and accused them of spreading rumors. She has two young children who she cares for at home.

      Which of the following is the most urgent aspect of your management plan?

      Your Answer: Start antipsychotic medication

      Correct Answer: Contact his wife to warn her she is in danger

      Explanation:

      The management plan will include all options, including contacting the police, and may involve admission under the Mental Health Act depending on the level of immediate risk. Morbid jealousy is a highly dangerous condition, with 17% of homicides in the UK linked to it. Studies have shown that 14% of those suffering from it have attempted to harm their partner, with over 50% having assaulted them, often while under the influence of alcohol. While the patient may be threatening only the other man, their partner is the most likely person to be harmed. Both men and women can pose a risk to their partners, but men are more likely to cause severe injuries. It is important to note that the duty of confidentiality does not override the duty to prevent foreseeable harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      73.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What factor is most likely to worsen a patient's psoriasis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to worsen a patient's psoriasis?

      Your Answer: Valproate

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What was the outcome of the war crimes tribunals that dealt with human...

    Incorrect

    • What was the outcome of the war crimes tribunals that dealt with human experimentation at the conclusion of World War II?

      Your Answer: Declaration of Geneva

      Correct Answer: Nuremberg Code

      Explanation:

      The Nuremberg Code is a set of ethical principles for human experimentation that emerged from the Nuremberg trials after World War II. It includes guidelines such as obtaining informed consent, avoiding harm to participants, and not conducting experiments that may result in death.

      The Helsinki Declaration, established by the World Medical Association, is another set of ethical principles for human research. It has been amended several times since its adoption in 1964 and provides guidelines for conducting research with human subjects.

      The Declaration of Geneva is a statement of a physician’s commitment to the humanitarian goals of medicine. It was created as a revision of the Hippocratic oath and has been amended and revised over time.

      The Nightingale Pledge is a statement of ethical principles for the nursing profession. It outlines the responsibilities and commitments of nurses to their patients and the healthcare system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which one of the following is a 10 item scale used as a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a 10 item scale used as a screening tool for problematic alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: CAGE

      Correct Answer: AUDIT

      Explanation:

      The AUDIT is a screening tool consisting of 10 items that can quickly identify potential alcohol problems. Similarly, the AQ-10 is a 10 item scale used to measure autism quotient. The CAGE is a four item screening tool for alcohol problems, while the CIWA is a scale used to assess alcohol withdrawal. The PHQ-9, commonly used in general practice, is the personal health questionnaire.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is divided by the fissure of Rolando? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is divided by the fissure of Rolando?

      Your Answer: The parietal and occipital lobes

      Correct Answer: The frontal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex

      The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are seeing a 35-year-old male in your office. He has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 35-year-old male in your office. He has been referred by his primary care physician due to symptoms of increased appetite, weight gain, excessive sleepiness, feeling physically heavy, and sensitivity to rejection. He asks you about the most effective treatments for his condition. What would be the best response to his question?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Phenelzine

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to a classic case of atypical depression, which is best treated with phenelzine, a MAOI. While imipramine and other TCAs have some evidence for treating atypical depression, they are not as effective as MAOIs. Nowadays, SSRIs are commonly used as a first-line treatment, but they have a weaker evidence base compared to MAOIs and TCAs. Vortioxetine is a new antidepressant that has complex effects on the 5HT system, but it has not been studied for its efficacy in treating atypical depression. Similarly, venlafaxine has not been studied for this indication either.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the classification of binge eating disorder in the ICD-11? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the classification of binge eating disorder in the ICD-11?

      Your Answer: Binge eating disorder can only be diagnosed when episodes of binge eating have occurred over a three-month period of more

      Correct Answer: Binge eating disorder has a higher rate of remission than other eating disorders

      Explanation:

      Binge eating disorder has a higher rate of remission compared to other eating disorders, and remission can occur spontaneously of as a result of treatment. The disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating, which can be assigned as a diagnosis after a shorter period if they occur multiple times a week and cause significant distress. Onset typically occurs during adolescence of young adulthood but can also begin in later adulthood. Binge eating episodes can be objective of subjective, but the core feature is the experience of loss of control overeating. If an individual engages in inappropriate compensatory behaviors following binge eating episodes, the diagnosis of bulimia nervosa should be assigned instead of binge eating disorder, as the two diagnoses cannot coexist.

      Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.

      Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.

      It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Visceral afferent fibers are found in the following areas except the…? ...

    Incorrect

    • Visceral afferent fibers are found in the following areas except the…?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The general visceral afferent (GVA) fibers carry impulses from viscera to the central nervous system. The cranial nerves that contain GVA fibers include the facial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve and the vagus nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - How can the effectiveness of executive function be tested, and which test is...

    Incorrect

    • How can the effectiveness of executive function be tested, and which test is the least effective?

      Your Answer: Verbal fluency

      Correct Answer: Digit span

      Explanation:

      While digit span is primarily used to assess working memory, it also involves executive attention, which is a component shared by tests of working memory capacity and executive function. Therefore, digit span cannot be considered solely a test of working memory.

      The mental state exam assesses various areas of cognition, including orientation, attention/concentration, short term memory, long term memory, and executive function. Standard tests for each area include asking about time, place, and person for orientation, serial 7’s for attention/concentration, digit span for short term memory, delayed recall of name and address for long term memory, and various tasks such as proverbs, similarities, differences, verbal fluency, and cognitive estimates for executive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A woman taking quetiapine has an ECG and is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman taking quetiapine has an ECG and is found to have a QTc of 410 ms. What is the appropriate next step in her treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Switch to an alternative antipsychotic such as olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Continue quetiapine and just continue with routine monitoring

      Explanation:

      It is advisable to maintain the medication and regular monitoring as a QTC of 410 ms is within the normal range.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What symptom of characteristic may indicate a diagnosis of Prader-Willi syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What symptom of characteristic may indicate a diagnosis of Prader-Willi syndrome?

      Your Answer: Compulsive skin picking

      Explanation:

      Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Unique Characteristics

      Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when there is a deletion of genetic material from the paternal chromosome 15. This condition is a classic example of imprinting, where the expression of certain genes is dependent on whether they are inherited from the mother of father. The syndrome is characterized by several unique features, including hyperphagia (excessive eating) and obesity, short stature, delayed puberty, hypogonadism, infertility, learning difficulties, and compulsive behavior such as skin picking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is an example of a first generation H1 antihistamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an example of a first generation H1 antihistamine?

      Your Answer: Acrivastine

      Correct Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      Promethazine is utilized for its sedative properties in cases of agitation due to the fact that first generation H1 antihistamines easily penetrate the BBB and induce drowsiness.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Who initially coined the term 'expressed emotion' (EE) in relation to schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • Who initially coined the term 'expressed emotion' (EE) in relation to schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Brown

      Explanation:

      Expressed emotion (EE) in schizophrenia was first introduced by Brown et al., which refers to the emotions exhibited by family members towards their loved one with the illness. The James-Lange theory is one of two fundamental theories of emotions, alongside the Cannon-Bard theory. Fromm-Reichmann coined the term ‘schizophrenogenic mother.’ Harris proposed a model of emotional development consisting of five stages. Plutchik identified eight primary emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax...

    Correct

    • Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax and upper abdomen?

      Your Answer: CN X

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve X supplies the structures of the thorax and abdomen. All the rest of the cranial nerves supply the structures in the head and neck

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In which hypothalamic nuclei are leptin receptors found in the highest concentration? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which hypothalamic nuclei are leptin receptors found in the highest concentration?

      Your Answer: Posterior

      Correct Answer: Arcuate

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Hypothalamus

      The hypothalamus is a vital part of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. It receives and integrates sensory information about the internal environment and directs actions to control internal homeostasis. The hypothalamus contains several nuclei and fiber tracts, each with specific functions.

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms. Neurons in the SCN have an intrinsic rhythm of discharge activity and receive input from the retina. The SCN is considered the body’s master clock, but it has multiple connections with other hypothalamic nuclei.

      Body temperature control is mainly under the control of the preoptic, anterior, and posterior nuclei, which have temperature-sensitive neurons. As the temperature goes above 37ºC, warm-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering parasympathetic activity to promote heat loss. As the temperature goes below 37ºC, cold-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering sympathetic activity to promote conservation of heat.

      The hypothalamus also plays a role in regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine is tonically secreted by dopaminergic neurons that project from the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus into the anterior pituitary gland via the tuberoinfundibular pathway. The dopamine that is released acts on lactotrophic cells through D2-receptors, inhibiting prolactin synthesis. In the absence of pregnancy of lactation, prolactin is constitutively inhibited by dopamine. Dopamine antagonists result in hyperprolactinemia, while dopamine agonists inhibit prolactin secretion.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is a complex structure that regulates various bodily functions, including circadian rhythms, body temperature, and prolactin secretion. Dysfunction of the hypothalamus can lead to various disorders, such as sleep-rhythm disorder, diabetes insipidus, hyperprolactinemia, and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neuro-anatomy (2/4) 50%
Neurosciences (0/4) 0%
Psychological Development (2/3) 67%
General Adult Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Psychopharmacology (1/7) 14%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (3/3) 100%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (1/1) 100%
Assessment (0/1) 0%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Classification And Assessment (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
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