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Question 1
Correct
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A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them.Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following are not a recognized feature of Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Ataxic gait
Explanation:Ataxic gait is not a direct association of Down’s syndrome. All other given responses are associated with Down’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 3
Correct
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A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age. The serum bilirubin was 286 µmol/L, direct Coombs test negative, blood film showed spherocytes and reticulocytes. The baby’s blood group was A rhesus negative and mother’s blood group O Rhesus negative.Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: ABO incompatibility
Explanation:Haemolytic disease of the new-born due to ABO incompatibility is usually less severe than Rh incompatibility. One reason is that fetal RBCs express less of the ABO blood group antigens compared with adult levels. In addition, in contrast to the Rh antigens, the ABO blood group antigens are expressed by a variety of fetal (and adult) tissues, reducing the chances of anti-A and anti-B binding their target antigens on the fetal RBCs.ABO HDN occurs almost exclusively in the offspring of women of blood group O, although reports exist of occasional cases in group A mothers with high‐titre anti‐(group B) IgG
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 4
Correct
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Sensorineural deafness is strongly associated with which one of the following?
Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Primary rubella infection during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester, can affect several organs and cause birth defects that are responsible for congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). The most common defects of CRS are hearing impairment (unilateral or bilateral sensorineural), eye defects (e.g., cataracts, congenital glaucoma, or pigmentary retinopathy), and cardiac defects (e.g., patent ductus arteriosus or peripheral pulmonic stenosis). Congenital hearing loss is the most common sequela, occurring in approximately 60% of cases, especially when infection occurs in the 4th month of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency after collapsing at a shopping mall. She is accompanied by her mother who reveals that she has had amenorrhea for the past 7 consecutive months. There is fine hair on her body. Which of the following investigations is mandatory in this case?
Your Answer: No test needed
Correct Answer: Urea & Electrolytes
Explanation:Although some individuals with Anorexia Nervosa exhibit no laboratory abnormalities, the semistarvation characteristic of this disorder can affect most major organ systems and produce a variety of disturbances. The induced vomiting and abuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas can also cause a number of disturbances leading to abnormal laboratory findings.Haematology: Leukopenia and mild anaemia are common| thrombocytopenia occurs rarely.Chemistry: Dehydration may be reflected by an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN). Hypercholesterolemia is common. Liver function tests may be elevated.Hypomagnesemia, hypozincaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperamylasaemia are occasionally found. Induced vomiting may lead to metabolic alkalosis (elevated serum bicarbonate), hypochloraemia, and hypokalaemia, and laxative abuse may cause a metabolic acidosis. Serum thyroxine levels are usually in the low-normal range| triiodothyronine levels are decreased. Hyperadrenocorticism and abnormal responsiveness to a variety of neuroendocrine challenges are common.In females, low serum oestrogen levels are present, whereas males have low levels of serum testosterone. There is a regression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in both sexes in that the 24-hour pattern of secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) resembles that normally seen in prepubertal or pubertal individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Erythema nodosum is NOT caused by which one of the following?
Your Answer: Penicillin
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), and drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides. Coeliac disease is not linked with the formation of erythema nodosum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Edward's syndrome
Explanation:The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features represent the clues for the diagnosis in the perinatal period and include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Explanation:Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.
Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.
DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.
Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?
Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea
Explanation:Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
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Question 10
Correct
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Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement?
Your Answer: Low serum creatinine
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is associated with a decrease in muscle mass, which is one of the primary locations of creatinine metabolism. Due to this, plasma creatinine levels are found to be decreased in patients with anorexia. Other blood chemistry derangements in patients of anorexia nervosa include hypercortisolism, hypoglycaemia, low free T3 levels, and hypercholesterolemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?
Your Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin
Explanation:Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one go. She immediately regrets her actions and calls for help. She was brought to the hospital 2 hours after consuming the tablets. She has a history of HIV and is on antiretroviral therapy, though she cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Check paracetamol level in further 2 hours' time
Explanation:According to the Rumack-Matthew Normogram, accurate levels of paracetamol can be measured only between 4-15 hours. The levels measured before 4 hours post-ingestion would highly underestimate the level of paracetamol ingested.The patient in question presents 2 hours after ingestion. Hence the most appropriate time to measure the levels of acetaminophen would be a further 2 hours later. Other options:- Note that the treatment with NAC can be delayed until the 4-hour level is obtained and compared to the nomogram.- Furthermore, haemodialysis is only indicated if she develops hepato-renal syndrome that is likely to occur 72-96 hours post-ingestion.- Indications for acute liver transplantation include persistent acidosis, hepatorenal syndrome and worsening coagulopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?
Your Answer: Pin point pupils
Explanation:Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true of miliaria?
Your Answer: It results in a maculopapular rash
Correct Answer: Miliaria crystalline causes tiny, fragile clear vesicles
Explanation:Miliaria is a common skin disease caused by blockage and/or inflammation of eccrine sweat ducts. Miliaria is frequently seen in hot, humid or tropical climates, in patients in the hospital, and in the neonatal period. Miliaria is also known as sweat rash.Based on the level of the sweat duct obstruction, miliaria is divided into three subtypes:- Miliaria crystallina (sudamina), caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts close to the surface of the skin (epidermis)|- Miliaria rubra, caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts deeper in the epidermis|- Miliaria profunda (tropical anhidrosis), the result of sweat leaking into the middle layer of skin (dermis).Miliaria crystallina appears as 1–2 mm superficial clear blisters that easily break. The blisters can look like beads of sweat. There is no inflammation. The blisters are usually seen widely spread on the head, neck, and upper trunk.Miliaria rubra is the most common type of miliaria results in red, 2–4 mm, non-follicular papules and papulovesicles. They are very itchy. Background erythema is often present. In children, miliaria affects the skin folds of the neck, axilla or groin. In adults, miliaria often affects the upper trunk, scalp, neck and flexures, particularly areas of friction with clothing. Miliaria pustulosa is a variant of milia rubra in which there are pustules.Miliaria profunda describes asymptomatic deep papules. The flesh–coloured, 1–3 mm diameter papules usually arise on the trunk and extremities.Mild Topical steroids can be used as a treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:
Your Answer: Midgut
Explanation:From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 6-year-old male was brought to the OPD with complaints of weight loss and fatigue for the last few months. On examination he was pale and had hepatosplenomegaly. A full blood count was ordered and it revealed immature white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:The age of the patient and the presence of immature white blood cells are suggestive of leukaemia. Hodgkin’s disease is unlikely in this age group and it usually presents with lymphadenopathy. In HIV, immature white blood cells are not present in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle following a fall from his bicycle.Which vessel is at the highest risk of injury?
Your Answer: Subclavian artery
Correct Answer: Subclavian vein
Explanation:Being anatomically situated immediately posterior to the subclavius muscle and the medial part of the clavicle, the subclavian vein is at the highest risk of injury in the above patient.As a direct tributary of the brachiocephalic vein, it’s injury poses a high risk of massive bleeding.The brachiocephalic vein rests on the first rib, below and in front of the third part of the subclavian artery, and then on scalenus anterior which separates it from the second part of the artery (posteriorly).Anatomy of the clavicle:The clavicle extends from the sternum to the acromion and helps prevent the shoulder falling forwards and downwards.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 12-week antenatal scan reveals a massive neck swelling in the foetus. While assessing the mother, she is found to have mild learning difficulties, short stature and a heart murmur. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Noonan syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is Noonan syndrome.Noonan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by short stature, heart defects (mainly pulmonary stenosis) and learning difficulties. An affected foetus can present with a significant increase in the nuchal thickness or a cystic hygroma of the neck. The condition is variable, and an affected parent is often only diagnosed after the diagnosis in the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 6 year old boy presents with a history of repeated respiratory and gastro-intestinal infections since birth. His birth was, however, uncomplicated. His mother claims that he's not growing as he should for his age. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease that interferes with the normal development of the child. It manifests with recurrent episodes of pneumonia accompanied by coughing, wheezing and dyspnoea. The appetite is normal but weight gain seems difficult. This condition also affects bowel habits with repeated gastrointestinal infections. The gold standard for the diagnosis is considered the sweat test which reveals abnormally high levels of Cl-.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Osteochondroma
Explanation:Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Correct
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A 14 year-old is brought to the ED after being hit on the head with a cricket ball during a match. His teacher describes that he initially collapsed on the ground and complained of a sore head. Two minutes later, he got up and said he felt OK and continued playing. However, 30 minutes later he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What injury is he most likely to have sustained?
Your Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:A lucid interval, in which the patient portrays a temporary improvement in condition after a traumatic brain injury, is especially indicative of an epidural haematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is due to a deletion of chromosome 15q inherited from the father?
Your Answer: Prader-Willi
Explanation:Most cases of Prader-Willi syndrome are not inherited, particularly those caused by a deletion in the paternal chromosome 15 or by maternal uniparental disomy. These genetic changes occur as random events during the formation of reproductive cells (eggs and sperm) or in early embryonic development. Affected people typically have no history of the disorder in their family.Rarely, a genetic change responsible for Prader-Willi syndrome can be inherited. For example, it is possible for a genetic change that abnormally inactivates genes on the paternal chromosome 15 to be passed from one generation to the next.Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic condition that affects many parts of the body. In infancy, this condition is characterized by weak muscle tone (hypotonia), feeding difficulties, poor growth, and delayed development. Beginning in childhood, affected individuals develop an insatiable appetite, which leads to chronic overeating (hyperphagia) and obesity. Some people with Prader-Willi syndrome, particularly those with obesity, also develop type 2 diabetes (the most common form of diabetes).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement between the two groups:
Your Answer: Should be done retrospectively when the variance of the measurement in the samples is known
Correct Answer: Should be performed before the study commences
Explanation:Power calculations are a important step in study design and preparation, but do not directly help with the interpretation of the results. They are used to determine how many subjects are needed in order to avoid errors in accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. These calculations are not usually complex and for the best results, the power of the test should be set to above 80%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, vomiting and constipation. Her parents notice that she has been eating substances like soil, soap and paper recently. Her blood count and peripheral smear examination reveal a microcytic-hypochromic anaemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Iron-deficiency anaemia
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is lead poisoning.Lead poisoning: While it is not common, it can be potentially fatal. One of the key presenting features here is pica, the ingestion of non-nutritive substances such as soil, soap, paper or wood. Pica can also be observed in children in iron-deficiency anaemia, developmental delay and pregnancy. However, in a child who is exposed to lead in their environment (e.g. from lead paint or pipes), lead poisoning is most likely. It is commonly associated with iron deficiency which in turn increases the lead absorption. Treatment is either with oral D-penicillamine or intravenous sodium calcium edetate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?
Your Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome
Explanation:Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%. The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of the following statements concerning the gluten-free diet is correct?
Your Answer: Products labelled as ‘gluten-free’ (e.g. bread, biscuits, crackers) by law may contain up to 200 parts per million of gluten
Correct Answer: Buckwheat is suitable in a gluten-free diet
Explanation:Buckwheat is not wheat. It’s a seed rather than a grain, which means it’s gluten-free and safe for people with celiac disease and non-celiac gluten sensitivity. It is an excellent source of fibre and nutrients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a baby born breech?
Your Answer: USS
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a spectrum of anatomical abnormalities of the hip joint in which the femoral head has an abnormal relationship with the acetabulum.Plain radiographs are of limited value for diagnosis in the new-born child because the femoral head and acetabulum are largely cartilaginous. Ultrasound scanning is the investigation of choice to evaluate DDH in infants younger than six months of age and is useful to diagnose more subtle forms of the disorder when a clinical exam is equivocal. It is also the only imaging modality that enables a three-dimensional real-time image of a neonate’s hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma
Explanation:Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 31
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?Your Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy presented to the ophthalmology clinic with a painless swelling on the superotemporal aspect of his orbit. It was smooth on examination and produced no visual disturbances. Following excision, it was found to be lined by squamous epithelium and hair follicles.Which lesion is most probably associated with these findings?
Your Answer: Dermoid cyst
Explanation:The most probable lesion in the patient is a dermoid cyst.Rationale:Dermoid cysts are embryological remnants and may be lined by hair and squamous epithelium (like teratomas). They are often located in the midline and may be linked to deeper structures resulting in a dumbbell shape to the lesion. Complete excision is required as they have a propensity to local recurrence if not excised.Note:Desmoid tumours are a different entity entirely. These lesions most commonly develop in ligaments and tendons. They are also referred to as aggressive fibromatosis and consist of dense fibroblastic lesions (resembling scar tissue). They should be managed in a similar manner to soft tissue sarcomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl developed haemoptysis with acute kidney injury requiring dialysis. She suffered from recurrent epistaxis for the past 2 weeks. Renal biopsy showed crescentic glomerulonephritis. Which antibody would you expect to be positive?
Your Answer: Antiproteinase 3
Explanation:This patient has pulmonary renal syndrome which is most commonly due to an ANCA positive vasculitis. The history of recurrent epistaxis makes Wegener’s granulomatosis the most probable diagnosis. Wegener’s granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis, and idiopathic pauci-immune necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis (NCGN) are strongly associated with antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies (ANCAs) directed against either proteinase 3 (anti-PR3) or myeloperoxidase (anti-MPO).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Ventricular Septal defect
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)
Explanation:Congenital heart defects are common (40-50%)| they are frequently observed in patients with Down syndrome who are hospitalized (62%) and are a common cause of death in this aneuploidy in the first 2 years of life.The most common congenital heart defects are the following:- Endocardial cushion defect (43%), which results in atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)/AV canal defect- Ventricular septal defect (32%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (6%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (4%).About 30% of patients have more than one cardiac defect. The most common secondary lesions are patent ductus arteriosus (16%), atrial septal defect, and pulmonic stenosis (9%). About 70% of all endocardial cushion defects are associated with Down syndrome.Valve abnormalities, such as mitral valve prolapse or aortic regurgitation may develop in up to 40-50% of adolescents and adults who were born without structural heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose pre-test odds were 2 tests positiveThe following is most accurate:
Your Answer: The negative likelihood ratio for the test must be known to interpret the results in this patient.
Correct Answer: Their prior odds of having the disease are now 6
Explanation:Before the test, the patient was likely to have the disease being tested for. Their pre test odds were 2, making them twice as likely to have the disease. After testing positive, their pretest odds of 2 and the likelihood ratio of 3 are multiplied to produce 6 as the post test odds. The patient is now 6 times as likely to have the disease after the test. Likelihood ratios above 10 or below 0.1 are strong evidence to rule in and rule out a diagnosis. The negative likelihood ratio is not known here, but does not subtract from the interpretation of the outcomes in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV infection is usually asymptomatic in adults. However, if the mother is infected for the first time during pregnancy then there is high chances of this infection passing on to the foetus. CMV infection can cause blindness, deafness, learning difficulties, restricted growth etc. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex, syphilis and HIV do not present with these classical signs of CMV infection in new-borns. It is estimated that 10 stillbirths occur in England and Wales every year due to CMV infection. The foetus is most at risk in early pregnancy. There is no effective prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 37
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular meals daily. Which of the following is the insulin regimen of choice for this patient?
Your Answer: Twice daily (30% short/70% intermediate acting): at 2/3 of dose am and 1/3 of dose pm
Correct Answer: Basal–bolus regimen
Explanation:In older children who are able to have regular meal timings, the insulin regimen of choice is the basal-bolus regimen, which comprises a dose of long-acting insulin in combination with three doses of short-acting insulin. The dosage timings coincide with the meal times, ensuring greater flexibility and feasibility. The long-acting insulin serves to provide a stable glycaemic control. The other given regimens are suitable for younger children with a more irregular meal schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old male presented in the OPD with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, his BP was normal. Urinalysis showed a high degree of proteinuria was present. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Correct Answer: Minimal change GN
Explanation:Minimal change disease is a type of glomerulonephritis that mostly affects younger children. Proteinuria is present which leads to body oedema. But in these patients blood pressure is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 39
Correct
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Which of the given clinical findings is the hallmark of Trisomy 21?
Your Answer: Hypotonia
Explanation:Trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome)is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 in all the body cells, mostly due to non-disjunction during gametogenesis. Robertsonian translocation occurs only in about 2-4% of the cases. A variety of clinical features are found in trisomy 21 due to multi-system involvement but the hallmark is hypotonia, which is present in almost all the cases of trisomy 21. Different types of leukemias are also found in association with down’s syndrome, but they are not the hallmark. Atlantoaxial subluxation is secondary to hypotonia, which induces joint and ligament laxity. Other clinical findings are hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, Hirschsprung’s disease, and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 40
Correct
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The parents of a 5-year-old overweight boy are concerned that the boy is 'breathing strangely' at night for the past few months now. This is associated with frequent and loud snoring. Furthermore, he seems to have sleep disturbances due to these nocturnal breathing difficulties. This, they feel, is reflected as daytime somnolence in the boy.Clinical examination reveals bilateral tonsillar hypertrophy. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?
Your Answer: Refer for ENT opinion
Explanation:The most appropriate next step in the management would be to refer the patient for an ENT opinion. Rationale:This child has clinical signs of adenotonsillar hypertrophy, symptoms of persistent snoring and features of obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA). Suspected OSA warrants referral to an ENT specialist. Other options:- Capillary blood gas: The investigation consists of overnight oxygen saturation monitoring or polysomnography.- Chest X-ray: A chest x-ray is not indicated.- Phenoxymethylpenicillin (Penicillin V) is the first-line treatment for tonsillitis. However, with a history of several months and no suggestion of fever or sore throat, acute tonsillitis is unlikely.- Weight loss advice: Obesity is a risk factor for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) amongst other health problems. The child’s weight should be highlighted and advice and support for weight loss provided however referral to ENT is warranted for further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 41
Correct
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Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome?
Your Answer: Fertility is affected
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome is the most common sex chromosome linked disorder with a karyotype of 47XXY. The incidence of the disease is 1 in 500-1000 male births. Childhood presentation consists of unusual growth spurt along with learning difficulties and delayed speech. The adolescence is marked by abnormal sexual maturation leading to hypogonadism and sub-fertility in adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Georgie is a bright 3 year old girl whose development seems to be ahead of her preschool classmates. Which of the following should a typical 3 year old be able to do?
Your Answer: Copy a cross
Correct Answer: Match 2 colours
Explanation:A 3 year old should be able to match two colours, copy a circle, walk up and down the stairs, and jump up and down. By the time they are 4 they can copy a cross, draw a person with three parts, count to 10, stand on one foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency after being stabbed in the upper arm and the median nerve is transected. Impaired function can be demonstrated in which of the following muscle/s?
Your Answer: Abductor pollicis longus
Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis
Explanation:The median nerve is a peripheral nerve originating in the cervical roots C5–T1 of the brachial plexus. It supplies motor innervation to the anterior forearm flexors, the thenar muscles, and the two lateral lumbricals as well as sensory innervation to the lateral palm and anterior, lateral three and a half fingers. Motor and sensory deficits depend on whether the lesion is proximal (above the elbow) or distal (below the elbow). While proximal lesions present with the “hand of benediction,” distal lesions present with either the “pinch sign” (anterior interosseous nerve syndrome) or, in the case of carpal tunnel syndrome, with mildly impaired thumb and index finger motion. Both proximal lesions and carpal tunnel syndrome result in reduced sensation in the area of the thumb, index and middle finger. Anterior interosseus nerve syndrome does not cause any sensory deficits. Chronic injuries to the nerve result in atrophy of median nerve innervated muscles while acute injuries do not have this feature. Treatment is mostly conservative and focuses on rest and immobilization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 44
Correct
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A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are they most commonly associated?
Your Answer: Medulla of the thymus
Explanation:Hassall’s corpuscles are groups of epithelial cells within the thymic medulla. The physical nature of these structures differs between mammalian species. Although Hassall’s corpuscles have been proposed to act in both the removal of apoptotic thymocytes and the maturation of developing thymocytes within the thymus, the function of Hassall’s corpuscles has remained an enigma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?
Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction
Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia
Explanation:Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?
Your Answer: Sagittal synostosis
Correct Answer: Macrocephaly
Explanation:Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 47
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. This infection is most likely caused by which of the following organism?
Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum
Explanation:Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 48
Correct
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A child suffering from a chest infection is prescribed flucloxacillin. A few days later, he develops jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. What is he suffering from now?
Your Answer: Cholestatic jaundice
Explanation:Due to its cholestatic properties, Flucloxacillin can block bile flow through the liver, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, giving rise to jaundice. Dark urine is the result of excessive bilirubin in the blood being filtered by the kidney. As the bile doesn’t move into the small intestine, stools are pale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?
Your Answer: Sleep alarms
Explanation:As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
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Question 50
Correct
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A woman gives birth to a baby at 32 weeks of gestation by spontaneous vaginal delivery. The new-born looks floppy, irritable, and drowsy and soon has a seizure. His blood sugar levels and CRP are normal and the doctors refer the baby for urgent neuroimaging. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Intracranial haemorrhage
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests intracranial haemorrhage which is uncommon but prevalent in pre-term babies. The rest of the options suggest peripheral causes which do not affect the central function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 51
Correct
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Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?
Your Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium
Explanation:In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 52
Correct
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A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?
Your Answer: 2.25
Explanation:An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 15 year old girl presents to the clinic with a history of hard to control psoriasis. She is to start on ultraviolet B phototherapy as prescribed by her dermatologist. What is the mechanism of action of the phototherapy?
Your Answer: Increase in fibroblast
Correct Answer: Induction of pyrimidine dimerization
Explanation:Psoriasis is an autoimmune dermatological condition that causes cells of the epidermal layer to rapidly develop, leading to itchy scaly plaques. Phototherapy with UV radiation has emerged as a new treatment for difficult to treat psoriasis. The therapy works by inducing epidermal cell apoptosis by DNA damage through the formation of pyrimidine dimerization, disrupting the cell cycle. This slows the rapid proliferation of cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 54
Correct
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An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot form a sentence. What is the best management strategy?
Your Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Not being able to form a sentence at the age of 18 months is quite normal. A combination of two words to form a sentence can be done by 2 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 55
Correct
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A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?
Your Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted
Explanation:Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin graftedThird-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 56
Correct
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What is the primary reason for a written protocol?
Your Answer: Document the process of the trial in advance
Explanation:A written protocol is important in clinical research as it helps to decrease bias with early findings as the process of the trial has been documented in advance. To show that the study has been properly undertaken before commencing, the investigators must document their names| they must describe the process, detail the analysis that will be undertaken, and provide a power calculation. The ethics committee does not always need to see the protocol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 57
Correct
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A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?
Your Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side
Explanation:The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 58
Correct
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Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus
Explanation:The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows diffuse eczema on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Scabies infection in neonates typically manifests as nodular eruptions involving the face, neck, scalp, palms, and soles in contrast to the predominant involvement of the hands, wrists, elbows, and ankles in adults. Differential diagnoses for the nodular eruption in neonates are broad, and scabies often is misdiagnosed as Langerhans cell histiocytosis, urticaria pigmentosa, or another pruritic, bullous, or lymphoproliferative dermatosis. Histopathology of the reactive nodules usually is not diagnostic, because scabetic organisms are often unidentified and histologic findings are nonspecific. Furthermore, because of the atypical presentation, scabies in children is often missed until persons in close contact with the child present with similar symptoms. Thus, a thorough history and close follow-up are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary aggressive treatment. Moreover, synchronized treatment of patients and their close contacts is needed to ensure the success of therapy, considering that relapse is 2-3 times more frequent in children and infants
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 60
Correct
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Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?
Your Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 61
Incorrect
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Which of the given pathologies follow the autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:The autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance involves the presence of at least one of the defected copies of the gene in an individual to develop a specific diseased condition. Examples of this mode of inheritance include myotonic dystrophy, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, etc. Still’s disease, also called juvenile idiopathic arthritis, is not a heritable disease. Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disease., while spinocerebellar ataxia and Friedreich’s ataxia are caused by trinucleotide repeat expansion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 62
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party. Her friends state that she complained about palpitations prior to collapsing. On further history, it is revealed that she recently visited the dermatologist and was given an antibiotic prescription for an infected toe. She is reported to be allergic to penicillin. Her mother died of a sudden cardiac event when the girl was just 3 years old. An uncle and aunt also passed away suddenly at a young age. ECG shows sinus rhythm and a corrected QT interval of 550 ms. Which of the following most likely lead to the collapse in this young girl?
Your Answer: Congenital long QT syndrome
Explanation:Congenital LQTS arises from mutations in genes that code for ion channels within myocytes.These mutations all cause ventricular action potentials to be prolonged, resulting in a lengthened QT interval on ECG. The congenital long-QT syndrome (LQTS) is a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia syndrome that represents a leading cause of sudden death in the young. LQTS is typically characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG and by the occurrence of syncope or cardiac arrest, mainly precipitated by emotional or physical stress.LQTS type 1Most common type of congenital LQTSDefect: loss of function mutation on the KCNQ1 gene located on chromosome 11p → defective slow delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channelSubtypesJervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome Associated with congenital deafnessAutosomal recessiveAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmiasRomano-Ward syndrome No associated deafnessAutosomal dominantAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmias
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 63
Correct
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Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones be able to perform?
Your Answer: Pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor
Explanation:Among the given options a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones will be able to pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor.Other options:- Bouncing and catching a ball is learnt by the age of 5.- The ability to pedal a tricycle should be attained by 3 years of age, not 2.- A child can walk on tip-toe by 2.5 and run on tip-toe by (option D) 3 years of age, not 2.- The ability to momentarily maintain balance using one leg (option E) should be attained by 3 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old boy was brought to the emergency department with bilateral watery discharge from both eyes with occasional mucoid discharge. The presentation is highly suggestive of a nasolacrimal duct dysfunction.Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice to be given to the boy's parents?
Your Answer: Reassurance, but include advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this
Correct Answer: Reassurance, as most infants tend to resolve spontaneously
Explanation:The most appropriate management would be to reassure the parents, as nasolacrimal duct dysfunction in most infants tends to resolve spontaneously.Note:Nasolacrimal duct blockage occurs in up to 5% of new-borns. 90% of these babies spontaneously resolve in the first year of life. They do not require urgent ophthalmological review, as often advice and reassurance for parents suffice for up to the age of 18 months old or so. A lump can often be seen in the nasolacrimal region following the accumulation of mucous. This does not need to be treated with antibiotics unless there are signs of acute infection.Other options:- The child does not require urgent ophthalmology review as there are no signs of severe infection. Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is a common non-worrying sign.- A course of topical antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge. Unnecessary topical antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.- A course of topical and oral antibiotics: Watery eyes often lead to mucous production, which is distinct from pus discharge. Unnecessary topical and oral antibiotics can cause secondary red eyes as well as give parents false expectations for the resolution of the symptoms and signs.- Reassurance is necessary. However, the advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect. Reassurance, but include advice that the child most likely will need a surgical procedure to resolve this is incorrect as 90% of infants that have these symptoms and signs resolve within the first year of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found to be 5 days pregnant. The fertilized tissue is at which stage of development?
Your Answer: Morula
Correct Answer: Blastocyst
Explanation:Time- EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 66
Correct
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Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?
Your Answer: Target cells
Explanation:The diagnosis of a post-splenectomy/hyposplenism blood picture can be made reliably by identifying Howell Jolly bodies in routine Wright-Giemsa stained blood and target cells. These are round basophilic bodies in red blood cells that represent residual nuclear material from marrow nucleated red cell precursors that are usually culled out by the spleen.These do not occur in individuals with normally functioning splenic tissue and their presence indicates either 1) an asplenic state or 2) hypofunctioning splenic tissue as might be seen in a patient with late-stage sickle cell anaemia. Their presence in an individual with splenomegaly leads to a narrow differential diagnosis and their absence in a splenectomised individual indicates accessory splenic Heinz bodies and poikilocytosis typically increase in a splenectomised individual and care must be taken not to overdiagnose haemolysis in such an individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 67
Correct
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A 4-year-old female was suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection. Her mother treated her with paracetamol only, for 5 days. After that, she presented in the emergency room with severe pain in her left ear, high-grade fever and irritability. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Otitis media (OM)
Explanation:Upper respiratory tract infection when not treated accordingly can lead to otitis media and the patient presents with severe earache and fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 68
Correct
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A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?
Your Answer: Relative risk
Explanation:A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 69
Correct
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An 11-month old infant was brought by the parents with complaints of poor feeding, failure to thrive, and developmental delay. He was reluctant to play and was unable to sit independently at ten months. Examination revealed blond hair and pale skin with small hands and feet and a squint. He also has poor central muscle tone and unilaterally undescended testes. What is the probable diagnosis of this infant?
Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Explanation:The physical features and developmental delay are the key aspects in the given scenario. The child in question shows features of gross motor and social developmental delay and has physical features indicative of Prader-Willi syndrome (hypopigmentation, esotropia, disproportionately small hands and feet, loss of central muscle tone and undescended testes). Children with Prader-Willi syndrome can present with failure to thrive until ,12-18 months, at which point, hyperphagia and obesity become more prominent. Other options:- Although Klinefelter syndrome can present with delayed development, undescended/small testes and reduced muscle power, the presence of small hands/feet, hypopigmentation and failure to thrive are not characteristic features. – Marfan syndrome presents with different physical features (arachnodactyly, cardio-respiratory complications and skin changes, amongst others) than those associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. – DiGeorge can manifest with developmental delay, hypotonia and feeding difficulties. However, this clinical scenario does not report any of the typical facial features, hearing abnormalities or cardiac abnormalities that are typically caused by DiGeorge syndrome. – Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental abnormalities, poor muscle tone and power (poor head control and muscle function), feeding difficulties and poor growth during the post-natal period and infancy. However, characteristic facial (small, triangular face, blue sclerae) and skeletal abnormalities (limb asymmetry, finger abnormalities) are not present. Therefore, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient.Note:Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of genetic imprinting where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father: In Prader-Willi syndrome, it is the paternal gene that is deleted from the long arm of chromosome 15, while in Angelman syndrome the maternal gene is deleted. Prader-Willi syndrome can occur due to the microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 (70% of cases) maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 70
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?
Your Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 71
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a gonadal or sexual differentiation disorder?
Your Answer: XXX (Triple X Syndrome)
Explanation:The correct answer is triple X syndrome with a genotype of XXX and an almost normal female phenotype. The extra X chromosome is inactive. The final phenotype of an individual is determined after normal sexual and gonadal differentiation, a process that involves several genes located on chromosomes X and Y. Disorders of sexual differentiation result in cases of ambiguous genitalia and are caused by a number of genetic abnormalities. Among these disorders is the turner syndrome with a genotype of 45X0, characterized by gonadal dysgenesis and ovarian failure. DAX-1 gene mutation leads to congenital adrenal hypoplasia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which results in virilization of female external genitalia. Campomelic dysplasia results from mutation of the SOX-9 gene, leading to 46XY sex reversal. Danys-Drash syndrome is characterized by disordered sexual development in affected males due to the mutated WT-1 gene, which also causes Wilm’s tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 72
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head with a hammer. On arrival at the emergency department, he is pronounced dead. Post-mortem findings will show which of the following features?
Your Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery
Explanation:An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (a tough fibrous layer of tissue between the brain and skull) and the skull bone. These occur when arteries are torn as a result of a blow to the head, and injury in the temple area is a common cause. Although the pattern of a lucid interval followed by later neurological symptoms is characteristic, only a minority of patients display this pattern of symptoms. Reported death rates from epidural hematoma vary widely, ranging from 5% to over 40%. Middle meningeal artery is frequently involved in such incidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 73
Correct
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What is the cause for tinea incognito?
Your Answer: Inappropriate treatment with steroid cream
Explanation:“Tinea incognito” is a term used to describe a tinea infection modified by topical steroids. It is caused by prolonged use of topical steroids, sometimes prescribed as a result of incorrect diagnosis. Topical steroids suppress the local immune response and allow the fungus to grow easily. As a result, the fungal infection may take on the bizarre appearance seen in this patient.The diagnosis of tinea incognito is simple to confirm by microscopic visualization of branching hyphae and spores typical of dermatophytes in a potassium hydroxide preparation.Treatment of tinea incognito requires cessation of all topical steroid use and implementation of specific antifungal treatment. A low-potency corticosteroid may be used briefly to avoid the flare often associated with abrupt cessation of a potent steroid. Patients should be warned of this possibility so they do not reinstitute use of topical steroids on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 74
Correct
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A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On the CT scan of the abdomen, a hematoma was present beneath the capsule of the spleen. His BP and pulse were normal. What is the next step in his management?
Your Answer: Refer to surgeons for observation
Explanation:A surgeon will observe the patient and will decide which procedure he needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 75
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in the urine and pain in his abdomen. On examination, abdominal swelling is present and blood pressure is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Haematuria and abdominal swelling may indicate either polycystic kidney disease or a tumour. Because of the patient’s age, the likelihood of a tumorous growth is small, thus an ultrasound is the best choice for this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 76
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis?
Your Answer: Children can present with nephrocalcinosis
Explanation:Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes Ca and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria, thus precipitating calcium compounds in the kidney. Other consequences of the dRTA in children include rickets, hypokalaemia, and polyuria. While dRTA can occur as a result of various pathologies including autoimmune disease, proximal renal tubular acidosis often presents as part of Fanconi’s syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA offering the child an acid load will decrease the urinary ph whereas in distal disease the pH will be unaffected due to impairment in hydrogen ion secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty?
Your Answer: It is usually idiopathic in boys
Correct Answer: It is treated with LHRH agonists
Explanation:Precocious puberty refers to the appearance of physical and hormonal signs of pubertal development at an earlier age than is considered normal.Most patients, particularly girls suspected of having central precocious puberty, are otherwise healthy children whose pubertal maturation begins at the early end of the normal distribution curveIn a series of more than 200 patients evaluated at a single medical centre, central precocious puberty occurred 5 times more often in girls than boys.GnRH-dependent precocious puberty is treated with GnRH agonists or Luteinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone (LHRH). Follow up every 4-6 months to ensure that progression of puberty has been arrestedFavourable signs include normalization of accelerated growth, reduction (or at least no increase) in size of breasts, and suppression of gonadotropin levels after a challenge of GnRHThe ideal testing frequency has not been established. Monitor bone age yearly to confirm that the rapid advancement seen in the untreated state has slowed, typically to a half year of bone age per year or less
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 78
Correct
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All of the given conditions are scaly dermatologic pathologies EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Hand, foot, and mouth disease
Explanation:Skin conditions resulting from excessive epidermal proliferation or inflammation, leading to a production of excessive scales, are referred to as papulosquamous disorders. These disorders can be generalized and localized. Localized causes of scaly lesions include tinea corporis, tinea cruris, tinea pedis, seborrheic dermatitis, psoriasis, pityriasis Versicolor, pityriasis alba, DLE, ichthyosis including Netherton syndrome (a severe form of ichthyosis which is autosomal recessive), and pellagra. Generalized causes include guttate psoriasis and pityriasis rosacea. Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a contagious viral illness that causes blisters in the mouth and on the extremities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?
Your Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome should be considered if there is more than one child in a family with gastrointestinal mucosal ulceration
Correct Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach
Explanation:H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 80
Correct
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An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 81
Correct
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A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Explanation:Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 82
Correct
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Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?
Your Answer: Hypovolaemia
Explanation:The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2–3 white blood cells/mm3. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 84
Incorrect
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During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal
Correct Answer: Lingual nerve
Explanation:The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 85
Correct
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Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line.Conditions associated with torsade include the following:Electrolyte abnormalities – Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemiaEndocrine disorders – Hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism, hypoglycaemiaCardiac conditions – Myocardial ischemia, myocardial infarction, myocarditis, bradyarrhythmia, complete atrioventricular (AV) block, takotsubo cardiomyopathyIntracranial disorders – Subarachnoid haemorrhage, thalamic hematoma, cerebrovascular accident, encephalitis, head injuryNutritional disorders – Anorexia nervosa, starvation, liquid protein diets, gastroplasty and ileojejunal bypass, celiac diseaseRisk factors for torsade include the following:Congenital long QT syndromeFemale genderAcquired long QT syndrome (causes of which include medications and electrolyte disorders such as hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia)BradycardiaBaseline electrocardiographic abnormalitiesRenal or liver failure
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 86
Correct
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The following are the causes of hydrops fetalis EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Hydrops fetalis is a serious condition characterized by excessive fluid accumulation resulting in oedema in one or more of the fetal compartments. The most likely cause is fetal anaemia, and the condition may lead to ascites and pleural effusion. The anaemia that results in hydrops may be caused by Rh incompatibility, Parvovirus B19 infection, toxoplasmosis, hepatitis B, maternal syphilis (strong association), Cytomegalovirus, Turner syndrome, and Noonan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 87
Correct
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A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 88
Correct
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A boy with Tay-Sachs disease has a sister who is normal and healthy. What is her risk of being a carrier for the condition?
Your Answer: 0.66
Explanation:Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disease. For the brother to present with the disease, both parents must be carriers. Therefore, with each pregnancy the probability that the child would be affected is 1 in 4| the probability that the child would be a carrier is 2 in 4| and the probability that the child would be unaffected is also 1 in 4. Unaffected children have a 2 in 3 chance, or 66%, of becoming a carrier according to the patterns of autosomal recessive inheritance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 89
Correct
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A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Explanation:In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 90
Correct
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A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?
Your Answer: Cystine stone
Explanation:Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 91
Correct
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A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a consult with a dietician, a decision was made to supplement her nutrition through total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. Which of the following is a common complication associated with TPN?
Your Answer: Deranged liver function tests
Explanation:Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) frequently causes derangement of liver function in children. Other options:- While line sepsis and thromboembolism are recognised complications of TPN, they do not occur frequently. – A child who is on TPN will require regular blood tests because of the potential for the development of electrolyte abnormalities. Need to observe their liver function, in order to provide TPN more accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 92
Correct
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A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back. His mother noticed the mark that same morning and she is concerned about its severity. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mongolian spot
Explanation:Mongolian spots, otherwise called congenital dermal melanocytosis, are pigmented birthmarks. They are usually located on the buttocks or back and although they’re usually present at birth, they may appear soon after. They are flat and have a blue-grey colour (bruise-like). They are benign and present no health risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 93
Correct
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A 2-year-old child, who is not very active, presented with bruises on the back as well as on the chest. X-ray showed a radiolucent area around the ribs indicating callus formation. Which of the following is the most important investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Skeletal survey
Explanation:Because the initial chest X-ray returned an anomaly, a skeletal survey is the best option. Also known as a bone survey, the skeletal survey is a series of X-rays that will help analyse the structure of all the bones in the body. Because the child is not very active yet presents with bruising, the child protection register should also be checked but only after a skeletal survey has been conducted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 94
Correct
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Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes not require annually?
Your Answer: Retinopathy screening
Explanation:Retinopathy screening need not be done on an annual basis for a 9-year-old child. Screening for diabetic retinopathy should begin at the age of 12.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike. Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking. Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands?
Your Answer: 40%
Correct Answer: 0.7
Explanation:The submandibular glands provide the bulk of salivary secretions contributing close to 70%. The sublingual glands provide 5% and the remainder from the parotid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 96
Correct
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What is the most likely cause for bloody diarrhoea of 3 days duration in a 10-year-old child?
Your Answer: Campylobacter
Explanation:The most common cause for acute bloody diarrhoea in a 10-year-old child is Campylobacter.Note:Campylobacter is the most common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It typically presents with bloody diarrhoea, fever, abdominal pain and vomiting. The primary source of Campylobacter is uncooked poultry. Treatment is generally supportive unless the child is immunosuppressed or the symptoms are persistent.Other options:- E. coli 0157:H7: It causes acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea, usually afebrile. It can lead to haemolytic uremic syndrome (haemolytic anaemia, acute renal failure and thrombocytopenia), which is the commonest cause of acute renal failure in children.- Rotavirus: It rarely causes bloody diarrhoea.- Salmonella and Yersinia: While they can cause bloody diarrhoea, they are much less common compared to Campylobacter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 97
Correct
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What is the investigation of choice to look for renal scarring in a child with vesicoureteric reflux?
Your Answer: DMSA
Explanation:Vesicoureteral reflux is a common disorder in children but can result in kidney scarring following acute pyelonephritis. The gold standard diagnostic test to detect renal scars in children is 99mTc-dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scintigraphy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 98
Correct
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A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10 hour history of pelvic pain. Her last normal menstrual cycle was 14 days ago and she is otherwise well. Her abdomen was soft with mild suprapubic pain on examination. What is the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Mittelschmerz
Explanation:Answer: MittelschmerzMittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered. Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 99
Correct
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A neonate is born with a suspected duct dependent cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following should be used in the immediate management of the condition?
Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:Severe cyanotic heart diseases such as pulmonary stenosis, transposition of the great vessels, hypoplastic left heart syndrome and truncus arteriosus all run the risk of a poor prognosis for a neonate. To continue the supply of oxygen the ductus arteriosus must be kept patent. This can be done with the immediate administration of Prostaglandin E1 as a temporary measure until a surgical intervention such as an atrial septostomy can be done. The closure of the duct can subsequently be initiated with the administration of indomethacin and oxygen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 100
Correct
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A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain, fever, and listlessness. She doesn’t want to eat and the doctors noticed a bloody nappy. Upon clinical examination she’s found to be tachycardic and with cool peripheries. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Resuscitate with intravenous fluids and commence triple antibiotics
Explanation:This clinical case is most probably due to intussusception complicated by sepsis. Regardless of the cause, the baby is sick and in a critical condition. The first thing to do is to preserve the vital signs and resuscitate with IV fluids. As sepsis is suspected, you should also start on triple antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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