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  • Question 1 - What is the function of the BK channel on the vascular smooth muscle...

    Correct

    • What is the function of the BK channel on the vascular smooth muscle membrane?

      Your Answer: Massive K+ efflux, increasing membrane potential, and shutting off the voltage gated Ca2+ channel

      Explanation:

      BK channels, also known as large-conductance calcium-activated potassium channels, play a critical role in regulating vascular smooth muscle tone. When BK channels open, they allow a large efflux of potassium ions (K+) out of the cell. This efflux of K+ causes the membrane potential to become more negative (hyperpolarization), which in turn leads to the closure of voltage-gated calcium channels. The closure of these calcium channels reduces the influx of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the smooth muscle cells, resulting in decreased intracellular calcium levels and subsequent relaxation of the smooth muscle.

      Thus, BK channels promote smooth muscle relaxation by hyperpolarizing the membrane and reducing the activity of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      106.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Selectins ...

    Correct

    • Selectins

      Your Answer: Interact with carbohydrate ligands or mucin complexes on leucocytes and endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Selectins are involved in constitutive lymphocyte homing, and in chronic and acute inflammation processes, including post-ischemic inflammation. Each selectin has a carbohydrate recognition domain that mediates binding to specific glycans on apposing cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The following play a role in regulation of intestinal iron absorption except: ...

    Correct

    • The following play a role in regulation of intestinal iron absorption except:

      Your Answer: Urinary iron excretion rate

      Explanation:

      The human body’s rate of iron absorption appears to respond to a variety of interdependent factors, including total iron stores, dietary intake, the extent to which the bone marrow is producing new red blood cells, the concentration of haemoglobin in the blood, and the oxygen content of the blood. Classic examples of genetic iron overload includes hereditary hemochromatosis (HH) and the more severe disease juvenile hemochromatosis (JH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is the correct way to calculate the anion gap?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the correct way to calculate the anion gap?

      Your Answer: (Na + K) – (HCO3 + Cl)

      Explanation:

      The anion gap is the difference between the measured cations (positively charged ions) and the measured anions (negatively charged ions) in serum, plasma, or urine. The magnitude of this difference in the serum is often calculated in medicine when attempting to identify the cause of metabolic acidosis. Anion Gap = ([Na+] + [K+]) − ([Cl−] + [HCO−3])

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Where is the majority of Mg2+ absorbed? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the majority of Mg2+ absorbed?

      Your Answer: Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle.

      Explanation:

      Although the majority of the filtered magnesium is reabsorbed within the ascending loop of Henle, it is now recognized that the distal tubule also plays an important role in magnesium conservation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Choose the correct statement regarding trabecular bone: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding trabecular bone:

      Your Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      Trabecular, spongy or cancellous bone. It is located inside the cortical bone and makes up around 20% of all bone in the body. It is made of spicules or plates with a high surface to volume ratio, where many cells sit on the surface of the end plates. It receives its nutrients from the extracellular fluid (ECF), exchanging about 10 mmol of calcium every 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Transportation of proteins from the cell body to axonal terminals is known as:...

    Correct

    • Transportation of proteins from the cell body to axonal terminals is known as:

      Your Answer: Axoplasmic flow

      Explanation:

      Transportation of proteins from the cell body to axonal terminals is known as axoplasmic, axonal flow or Axonal transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Correct

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show:Hb: 130g/lPlatelets: 359*109/lWBC: 10*109/lCRP: 89mg/lWhich of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?

      Your Answer: Zona reticularis

      Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer of the adrenal gland. In it, aldosterone is secreted as a response to an increase in potassium levels, decreased blood flow, or renin. This secretion is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one...

    Correct

    • β-blockers are used in the treatment of angina because they have which one of the following properties?

      Your Answer: Decrease the heart rate and myocardial contractility

      Explanation:

      The cardiovascular effects of β-adrenoceptor block result from reduction of the sympathetic drive which includes reduced heart rate (automaticity) and reduced myocardial contractility (rate of rise of pressure in the ventricle). This will lead to reduced cardiac output and an overall fall in oxygen consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the primary problem of achalasia ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary problem of achalasia

      Your Answer: Chronic inflammation of mucosal cells in the lower oesophageal sphincter

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of myenteric plexus at the lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and aperistalsis, caused primarily by the loss of the inhibitory innervation of the oesophageal myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by: ...

    Correct

    • Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by:

      Your Answer: Inhibiting the breakdown cAMP

      Explanation:

      Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man presents with blistering and hyperpigmentation on his face and hands, after a beach holiday with friends. Tests reveal high levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common of the porphyries. It is characterised by fragility and blistering of exposed skin. Typically, patients who are ultimately diagnosed with PCT first seek treatment following the development photosensitivities in the form of blisters and erosions on commonly exposed areas of the skin. This is usually observed in the face, hands, forearms, and lower legs. It heals slowly and with scarring. Though blisters are the most common skin manifestations of PCT, other skin manifestations like hyperpigmentation (as if they are getting a tan) and hypertrichosis (mainly on top of the cheeks) also occur. Risk factors for the development of PCT include alcohol and sun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take...

    Correct

    • A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride.The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?

      Your Answer: Dihydrotestosterone

      Explanation:

      Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.Finasteride is a 5α-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly. Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto...

    Correct

    • The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:

      Your Answer: Southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An effect of aging on the kidney includes? ...

    Correct

    • An effect of aging on the kidney includes?

      Your Answer: Decreased GFR

      Explanation:

      The normal range of GFR, adjusted for body surface area, is 100 to 130 mL/min/1.73m2 in men and 90 to 120 ml/min/1.73m2 in women younger than the age of 40. After age 40, GFR decreases progressively with age, by about 0.4 mL/min to 1.2 mL/min per year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During strenuous exercise the PO2 of mixed venous blood is: ...

    Correct

    • During strenuous exercise the PO2 of mixed venous blood is:

      Your Answer: 25 mmHg

      Explanation:

      During strenuous exercise the PO2 of mixed venous blood is less than 30 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion?

      Your Answer: Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic polypeptide

      Explanation:

      Number of hormones and neurotransmitters can stimulate and inhibit pancreatic exocrine secretion. Cholecystokinin, secretin, vasoactive intestinal peptide and substance P stimulate pancreatic secretion. Pancreatic polypeptide, somatostatin inhibit pancreatic secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The production of bile is increased by: Stimulation of the ____ nerve and...

    Incorrect

    • The production of bile is increased by: Stimulation of the ____ nerve and the hormone ____.

      Your Answer: Vagus, secretin

      Correct Answer: Vagus, CCK

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin is synthesized and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum, the first segment of the small intestine, and causes the release of digestive enzymes and bile from the pancreas and gallbladder, respectively. It also acts as a hunger suppressant. Release of CCK is stimulated by monitor peptide released by pancreatic acinar cells as well as CCK-releasing protein, a paracrine factor secreted by enterocytes in the gastrointestinal mucosa. In addition, release of acetylcholine by the parasympathetic nerve fibers of the vagus nerve also stimulate its secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:

      Your Answer: Leptospirosis = Rats

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = consuming beef or beef products.Brucellosis = ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals.Leptospirosis is transmitted by both wild and domestic animals. The most common animals that spread the disease are rodents.Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus.Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and spread by the bite of certain types of sandflies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Peristalsis is an example of: ...

    Correct

    • Peristalsis is an example of:

      Your Answer: Enteric nervous system

      Explanation:

      Peristalsis is a type of contraction where radial symmetrical contraction and relaxation of muscles propagates food in a downward wave through the gut. The enteric nervous system is one of the main divisions of the nervous system and consists of a mesh-like system of neurons that controls the function of the gastrointestinal tract. It has an independent reflex activity. The neurons of this system re collected into two types of ganglia: myenteric (or Auerbach’s) and submucosal (or Meissner’s plexuses). Myenteric plexuses are located between the inner and outer layers of the muscularis externa, while submucosal plexuses are located in the submucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary modifications and weight reduction. He needs to be started on an oral hypoglycaemic agent. Which among the following statements regarding oral hypoglycaemic agents is true?

      Your Answer: Acarbose inhibits α-glucosidase

      Explanation:

      Different Oral Hypoglycaemic Agents (OHAs) and their respective mechanism(s) of action include:• Sulfonylureas (such as, glipizide, gliclazide, glimepiride) – bind to ATP sensitive Potassium channels (K – ATP channels) in the 𝝱 cells of the islets of the pancreas. Inhibition of these channels lead to an altered resting membrane potential in these cells causing an influx of calcium which increases insulin secretion.• Meglitinides (like Repaglinide) through a different receptor, they similarly regulate K – ATP channels thereby causing an increase in insulin secretion.• Biguanides (e.g., Metformin) increase the hepatic AMP-activated protein kinase activity leading to reduced gluconeogenesis and lipogenesis and increased insulin-mediated uptake of glucose in muscles. (it doesn’t increase insulin secretion)• Thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone, pioglitazone) bind to PPAR-𝝲 and increase peripheral uptake of glucose and decrease hepatic glucose production.• α-Glucosidase inhibitors (such as acarbose, miglitol, voglibose) competitively inhibit α-glucosidase enzymes in the intestine that digest the dietary starch thus, inhibiting the polysaccharide reabsorption as well as metabolism of sucrose to glucose and fructose.• DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin, saxagliptin, vildagliptin, linagliptin, alogliptin) prolong the action of glucagon-like peptide. This leads to inhibition of glucagon release, increase in insulin secretion and a decrease in gastric emptying leading to a decrease in blood glucose levels.• SGLT2 inhibitors (dapagliflozin and canagliflozin) inhibit glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubules of the renal glomeruli leading to glycosuria which in-turn reduces blood glucose levels.Note: Side effects of pioglitazone are weight gain, pedal oedema, bone loss and precipitation of congestive cardiac failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The primary auditory cortex is: ...

    Correct

    • The primary auditory cortex is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 41

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following stimulates glucagon release? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimulates glucagon release?

      Your Answer: Somatostatin

      Correct Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown a small increase in glucagon levels during stress tests and exercise. This occurs in response to the reduction of blood glucose levels during physical activity; epinephrine levels are also a stimulus for the release of glucagon during exercise, since it suppresses insulin, which accounts for its stimulatory effects on glucagon. The use of stored fats for energy during exercise also stimulates the release of glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The transporter responsible for most glucose absorption in the lumen of the small...

    Correct

    • The transporter responsible for most glucose absorption in the lumen of the small intestine is called?

      Your Answer: SGLT 1

      Explanation:

      GLUT = Glucose transporter. GLUT are a family of proteins of different types. GLUT 1 is mainly expressed in erythrocytes, whereas GLUT 2 is mainly expressed by, liver cells and renal tubular cells. GLUT 5 is a sucrose transporter in enterocytes. SGLT- Sodium-dependent glucose cotransporter or sodium-glucose linked transporter are a family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine and SGLT2 in the proximal tubule of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray of his left thigh revealed a fractured shaft of the left femur. He has a known history of opioid abuse. You are called to the ward to assess him after he becomes unwell. Which of the following clinical features are NOT compatible with a diagnosis of opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, hypothermia is not a symptom of opioid withdrawal.Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include dysphoric mood, yawning, insomnia, muscle aches, lacrimation/rhinorrhoea, papillary dilatation, piloerection, fever, sweating, nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea.If the patient is having an opioid withdrawal reaction, then give 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait about 60 min to determine its effect.COWS (Clinical Opioid Withdrawal Scale) assessment for opioid withdrawal is commonly used to determine the severity of opioid withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The alpha amylases hydrolyse which linkages in the ingested polysaccharides? ...

    Correct

    • The alpha amylases hydrolyse which linkages in the ingested polysaccharides?

      Your Answer: 1:4α linkages

      Explanation:

      Alfa amylase hydrolyses the α (1-4) glyosidic bonds in amylose and amylopectin and leave primarily maltose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What happens first during depolarisation of the membrane potential? ...

    Correct

    • What happens first during depolarisation of the membrane potential?

      Your Answer: Gated Na channels open allowing the influx of Na

      Explanation:

      Generation of an action potential in response to a stimulus is a result of a previously maintained resting membrane potential (RMP). Generation of resting membrane potential is mediated mainly by potassium ions. Several membrane proteins maintain RMP by transport of ions in and out of cell. Na+/K+ ATPase pump maintains a concentration gradient of Na+ and K+ ions. Na+ concentration in extracellular fluid is higher compared to intracellular fluid and K+ ion concentration is higher intracellularly. Generation of an action potential facilitates opening of Na+ ion channels which allow for Na+ to diffuse inside the cell according to the concentration gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site...

    Correct

    • Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole

      Explanation:

      The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?

      Your Answer: A nucleotide is a base joined to a sugar phosphate unit.

      Correct Answer: The two strands of DNA are held together by cysteine bonds.

      Explanation:

      The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds formed between the nucleotide bases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - The triangle with the heart at its centre, using limb leads is called:...

    Correct

    • The triangle with the heart at its centre, using limb leads is called:

      Your Answer: Einthoven

      Explanation:

      The Einthoven triangle is formed by placing the limb leads on both the arms and on the left leg with the heart in the centre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The pressure in the sinusoids is normally: ...

    Correct

    • The pressure in the sinusoids is normally:

      Your Answer: Lower than portal venous pressure

      Explanation:

      The direction of transport of nutrients in the portal vein occurs from the portal vein to the hepatic sinusoids. Thus, he pressure of sinusoids should be lower than the pressure of he portal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What is the most common cardiac defect seen in patients with Down’s syndrome?...

    Correct

    • What is the most common cardiac defect seen in patients with Down’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The rate of congenital heart disease in new-borns with Down syndrome is around 40%. Of those with heart disease, about 80% have an atrioventricular septal defect or ventricular septal defect with the former being more common. Mitral valve problems become common as people age, even in those without heart problems at birth.[3] Other problems that may occur include tetralogy of Fallot and patent ductus arteriosus.[38] People with Down syndrome have a lower risk of hardening of the arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous...

    Incorrect

    • There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous blood flow. This is maintained by:

      Your Answer: Ability of sinusoids to collapse

      Correct Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      There is an inverse relationship between the blood flow of the hepatic artery and portal vein. It is maintained by several factors such as chemicals like adenosine, neurohumoral substances, the morphology of the hepatic portal system (especially the ability of hepatic sinusoids to collapse) and myogenic control which causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      70.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Phosphorylation of glucose once it enters the cell is catalysed by which enzyme?...

    Incorrect

    • Phosphorylation of glucose once it enters the cell is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Phosphorylase

      Correct Answer: Hexokinase

      Explanation:

      Glucose 6-phosphate is produced by phosphorylation of glucose on the sixth carbon. This is catalysed by the enzyme hexokinase in most cells. One molecule of ATP is consumed in this reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - VIP, GIP and somatostatin play an inhibitory role in gastric acid secretion by...

    Incorrect

    • VIP, GIP and somatostatin play an inhibitory role in gastric acid secretion by inactivating?

      Your Answer: Chief cells

      Correct Answer: G cells

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is secreted from the G cells. VIP, GIP and somatostatin all inhibit acid production by inhibiting the G cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following is true for P53: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true for P53:

      Your Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      P53 gene is activated as a result of damaged DNA and if that cannot be repaired then it activates apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Cholinergic nerves from the vagus innervate the SA and AV nodes via which...

    Correct

    • Cholinergic nerves from the vagus innervate the SA and AV nodes via which receptor in the heart?

      Your Answer: M2 receptor

      Explanation:

      M2 receptor is found in the heart. M3 and M4 are associated with smooth muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - The principal enzyme of lipid digestion is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The principal enzyme of lipid digestion is:

      Your Answer: Colipase

      Correct Answer: Lipase

      Explanation:

      Lipase is the principle enzyme that digest lipids. Amylase digest carbohydrates. Colipase is a co-enzyme that optimize the activity of lipase. Trypsin digest proteins and cholesterol esterase digest cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Normally the portal venous pressure is about: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normally the portal venous pressure is about:

      Your Answer: 15mmhg

      Correct Answer: 5mmhg

      Explanation:

      Under normal physiological conditions, the pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver, typically ranges around 5-10 mmHg. Pressures significantly higher than this range can indicate portal hypertension, which can be associated with liver diseases such as cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is most likely to be seen in a patient with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I?

      Your Answer: RET gene

      Correct Answer: Insulinoma

      Explanation:

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1 syndrome) or Wermer’s syndrome is part of a group of disorders, the multiple endocrine neoplasias, that affect the endocrine system through development of neoplastic lesions in the ‘three P’s’:Parathyroid (>90%): hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasiaPituitary (15-42%)Pancreas (60-70%, e.g. insulinoma, gastrinoma)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Glucose is typically removed from the urine by…? ...

    Incorrect

    • Glucose is typically removed from the urine by…?

      Your Answer: Active diffusion

      Correct Answer: Secondary active transport

      Explanation:

      Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate, and some other solutes are resorbed via secondary active transport through co-transporters driven by the sodium gradient out of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute?

      Your Answer: Prophase

      Correct Answer: Telophase

      Explanation:

      In telophase the nuclear envelope along with the nucleolus will reappear. The daughter nuclei will enlarge as the chromosome will decondense again. Along with this, cytokinesis will occur. At the end of cytokinesis the daughter centrioles will move from the poles to the intercellular bridge where they will be disassembled and complete the separation of the daughter cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - The initial rapid depolarization in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells is...

    Correct

    • The initial rapid depolarization in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells is due to:

      Your Answer: Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels

      Explanation:

      The initial depolarization of the action potential in a cardiac muscle cell is due to the sodium current generated by opening of the voltage gated sodium channels leading to an influx of sodium ions into the cell and raising the membrane potential towards threshold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK): ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK):

      Your Answer: It causes gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion.

      Explanation:

      CCK has a primary action of increasing the motility of the gallbladder by contracting the muscles in the mucosa of the gall bladder. Apart from this, it augments the action of secretin, resulting in the production of an alkaline pancreatic juice. It increases the synthesis of enterokinase, inhibits gastric emptying and may also enhance the motility of the small intestine and colon. It is released (secreted) by your small intestine during the digestive process. It’s sometimes called pancreozymin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE

      Your Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      Restriction enzymes always cut at different positions. There are different restriction endonucleases for different nucleotide sequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Regarding cardiac contractility, catecholamines exert their inotropic effect via: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding cardiac contractility, catecholamines exert their inotropic effect via:

      Your Answer: Β1-adrenergic receptors and gs

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines exert their inotropic effect on the heart via the B1 adrenergic receptors and Gs, stimulating adenyl cyclase and increasing the production of cAMP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She was found, lying on the floor having consumed an unidentified quantity of her mother's prescription pills with alcohol. The patient's mother is a known hypertensive under treatment. On examination, the patient was found to be lethargic, hypotensive with a BP of 70/50 mmHg, and bradycardic with a pulse rate of 38 bpm. A finger prick glucose is 3.2 mmol/L. Which TWO among the following are the most appropriate steps for the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Glucagon and isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate steps of initial management include iv glucagon and iv isoprenaline.The most likely diagnosis in the above scenario (decreased conscious level, profound hypertension, and bradycardia) is β-blocker toxicity/overdose. Bronchospasm rarely occurs in an overdose of β-blockers, except where there is a history of asthma.Immediate management is to give iv glucagons (50–150μg/kg) followed by infusion to treat hypotension and isoprenaline or atropine to treat bradycardia. Where patients fail to respond to these measures, temporary pacing may be required. If the patient is seen within the first 4 hours of the overdose, gastric lavage may be of value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Colipase is secreted in an inactive form. Its activation in the intestinal lumen...

    Correct

    • Colipase is secreted in an inactive form. Its activation in the intestinal lumen is by

      Your Answer: Trypsin

      Explanation:

      The enzyme trypsin exists in pancreatic juice in the inactive form trypsinogen, it is activated by the intestinal enterokinase in intestinal juice. Trypsin can then activate other protease enzymes and catalyse the reaction pro-colipase → colipase. Colipase is necessary, along with bile salts, to enable lipase function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with:

      Your Answer: Ectodermal cells

      Correct Answer: Mesothelial cells

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid mater is one of the three meninges that covers the brain and spinal cord. It is interposed between the two other meninges, the more superficial and much thicker dura mater and the deeper pia mater, from which it is separated by the subarachnoid space. The arachnoid mater consists of a subdural mesothelial layer and a compact central layer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of...

    Correct

    • Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of an anticholinesterase?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      Bradycardia and miosis should be anticipated following the administration of anticholinesterases.Anticholinesterase agents include the following medications:- Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium which play a significant role in the diagnosis and the management of myasthenia gravis.- Rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors found to be significantly useful in the management of Alzheimer’s disease.Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects:Inhibition of cholinesterase increases the level and the duration of action of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft. Thus, cholinergic effects such as a reduction in heart rate (bradycardia), miosis (pupillary constriction), increased secretions, increased gastrointestinal motility and reduction in BP may occur with anticholinesterases.Toxins such as organophosphates and carbamates also are primarily anticholinergic and cause the following typical SLUDGE symptoms:- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Diaphoresis- Gastrointestinal upset- Emesis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - The areas of extensive series of sarcoplasmic folds known as intercalated discs always...

    Incorrect

    • The areas of extensive series of sarcoplasmic folds known as intercalated discs always occur at what portion of the muscle fiber?

      Your Answer: M line

      Correct Answer: Z lines

      Explanation:

      The muscle fibers of the heart branch and interdigitate, but one complete unit is surrounded by a cell membrane. The place where one muscle fiber abuts the other, the cell membrane of both the fibers run parallel to each other through a series of extensive folds. These areas always occur on the Z lines and are known as intercalated discs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - The percentage of blood supplied to the liver by the hepatic artery is?...

    Incorrect

    • The percentage of blood supplied to the liver by the hepatic artery is?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow. Oxygen is provided from both sources; approximately half of the liver’s oxygen demand is met by the hepatic portal vein, and half is met by the hepatic arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?

      Your Answer: Linear areas of low density

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?

      Your Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.Parametric tests:Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlationNon-parametric tests:Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired dataWilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single samplechi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentagesSpearman, Kendall rank – correlation.The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann–Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Where do the meningeal veins lie? ...

    Correct

    • Where do the meningeal veins lie?

      Your Answer: Endosteal layer of the dura

      Explanation:

      Meningeal veins lie in the endosteal layer of the dura. The veins lie lateral to the arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity?

      Your Answer: α fiber

      Explanation:

      α nerve fibers are characterized by being highly myelinated, which confers them with fast conduction properties. They innervate extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers, and their conduction velocity is between 80-120 m/s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - What are the three main structures in the portal triad (portal space)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the three main structures in the portal triad (portal space)?

      Your Answer: The sinusoids, branch of hepatic artery, branch of portal vein

      Correct Answer: Branch of hepatic artery, branch of portal vein, bile ductules

      Explanation:

      A portal triad (also known as portal field, portal area, or portal tract) is a distinctive arrangement in the liver. It is a component of the hepatic lobule. It consists of the following five structures:

      • Proper hepatic artery
      • Hepatic portal vein
      • Common bile duct
      • Lymphatic vessels
      • Branch of the vagus nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin?

      Your Answer: Co2 in blood

      Correct Answer: All the options are true

      Explanation:

      The strength with which oxygen binds to haemoglobin is affected by several factors. These factors shift or reshape the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. A rightward shift indicates that the haemoglobin under study has a decreased affinity for oxygen. The causes of shift to right can be remembered using the mnemonic, CADET, face Right! for CO2 and CO, Acid (H+), 2,3-DPG, Exercise and Temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:...

    Correct

    • The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:

      Your Answer: Paracortex

      Explanation:

      Paracortex is found between the cortex and the medulla and it is composed of a non-nodular type of arrangement that is mostly made up of T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction...

    Correct

    • Why is tissue plasminogen activator (tPa) a valuable treatment used in myocardial infarction and stroke?

      Your Answer: It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor

      Explanation:

      tPA is a serine protease involved in the breakdown of blood clots. It functions by converting plasminogen, an inactive precursor, into plasmin, an active enzyme. Plasmin then degrades fibrin, the main protein component of blood clots, leading to clot dissolution. This mechanism is particularly valuable in the treatment of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and ischemic stroke, where timely dissolution of the clot can restore blood flow to affected tissues and reduce damage.

      Therefore, the correct answer is:

      • It forms plasmin from its inactive precursor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Which of the following causes an increase in venous return? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes an increase in venous return?

      Your Answer: An increase in the negative intra-thoracic pressure

      Explanation:

      During inspiration, intrathoracic pressure becomes more negative and intra-abdominal pressure more positive. This increases the venous pressure gradient from abdomen to thorax and promotes filling of the central veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Where is the melanocortin system located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the melanocortin system located?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The melanocortin system is a group of hormones which include hormones from the pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)-expressing neurons, the neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related peptide (AgRP)-co-expressing neurons. This system is located in the hypothalamic arcuate nucleus; it also includes the hypothalamic arcuate nucleus and the melanocortin 4 receptor (MC4R)-expressing neurons located in the hypothalamic paraventricular nucleus. The system regulates energy expenditure and food intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should...

    Correct

    • In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should be made at:

      Your Answer: 200 J

      Explanation:

      Defibrillation is a common treatment for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and ventricular fibrillation. If the patient is in Ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation (VF) on the monitor, immediately apply the pads and shock the patient with 120-200 Joules on a biphasic defibrillator or 360 Joules on a monophasic defibrillator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which membrane bound protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum regulates calcium return from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which membrane bound protein in the sarcoplasmic reticulum regulates calcium return from the cytosol to the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

      Your Answer: Calmodulin

      Correct Answer: Phospholamban

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR), that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - The small opening in the cochlea through which the upper scala vestibuli and...

    Incorrect

    • The small opening in the cochlea through which the upper scala vestibuli and lower scala tympani communicates is called the:

      Your Answer: Oval window

      Correct Answer: Helicotrema

      Explanation:

      The helicotrema is the part of cochlear labyrinth where the scala tympani and the scala vestibuli meet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following diseases have antibodies available for treatment of the condition....

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases have antibodies available for treatment of the condition.

      Your Answer: None of these

      Explanation:

      There is no specific treatment for hepatitis A. Recovery from symptoms following infection may be slow and may take several weeks or months. The hepatitis A vaccine is effective for prevention and appears to be effective for life.Acute hepatitis B infection does not usually require treatment and most adults clear the infection spontaneously. Early antiviral treatment may be required in fewer than 1% of people, whose infection takes a very aggressive course (fulminant hepatitis) or who are immunocompromised. Although none of the available drugs can clear the infection, they can stop the virus from replicating, thus minimizing liver damage.There is no specific treatment for measles. Most people with uncomplicated measles will recover with rest and supportive treatment. In developed countries, children are immunized against measles at 12 months, generally as part of a three-part MMR vaccine (measles, mumps, and rubella). The vaccination is generally not given before this age because such infants respond inadequately to the vaccine due to an immature immune system. Treatment after rabies exposure can prevent the disease if administered promptly, generally within 10 days of infection. The Centres for Disease Control and Prevention recommends people receive one dose of human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) and four doses of rabies vaccine over a 14-day period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of the atrial pressure changes represents the a-wave of the JVP ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the atrial pressure changes represents the a-wave of the JVP

      Your Answer: Rise in atrial pressure before tricuspid valve opens

      Correct Answer: Atrial systole

      Explanation:

      The a-wave created on the venous pulse curve occurs as a result of atrial systole. Due to the pressure build-up in the atria, it causes a back pressure in the vena cava. This pressure is exerted on the valve and this back pressure is what causes a slight increase in the venous pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which of the following supplies the AV node? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following supplies the AV node?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The AV node is supplied by the right coronary artery near the origin of the posterior IV artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state. He tells you that he consumed two bottles of antifreeze. On examination, his pulse is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. An arterial blood gas analysis shows uncompensated metabolic acidosis. He is transferred to the high dependency unit and ethanol is given via a nasogastric tube. How does ethanol help this patient?

      Your Answer: Competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreezeFeatures of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertensionStage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?...

    Correct

    • Which hormone secreting cell of the human anterior pituitary gland secretes growth hormone?

      Your Answer: Somatotroph

      Explanation:

      Somatotroph cells are responsible for the production of growth hormone. Somatotrophs occupy nearly 40% of the total surface area of the anterior pituitary, and they are acidophilic in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located?

      Your Answer: Intermediolateral column

      Correct Answer: Midbrain

      Explanation:

      The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are located in the lateral grey column of the spinal cord and in the motor nuclei of the 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves. These cranial nerves take origin from the midbrain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which...

    Correct

    • The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which end of the guanosine rich region.

      Your Answer: 3rd end

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is a reverse transcriptase that uses the RNA template to synthesize DNA in the 5th-3rd direction resulting in extension of the 3rd end and then translocates it to the newly synthesized end. The GT rich strand is thus elongated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      The following is a list of factors associated with an increased tendency toward torsades de pointes:- Hypokalaemia (low blood potassium)- Hypomagnesemia (low blood magnesium)- Hypocalcaemia (low blood calcium)- Bradycardia (slow heartbeat)- Heart failure- Left ventricular hypertrophy- Hypothermia- Subarachnoid haemorrhage- Hypothyroidism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers… ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers…

      Your Answer: They are thinly myelinated

      Explanation:

      Group C nerve fibers are unmyelinated and have a small diameter, which means they conduct impulses at a low velocity. They carry sensory information and nociception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management in this case?

      Your Answer: N saline should be started iv

      Explanation:
      1. Normal saline (N saline) should be started IV: Intravenous normal saline is recommended to enhance renal excretion of lithium. Adequate hydration is crucial because lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and maintaining good urine output can help reduce lithium levels.
      2. Dialysis: This is considered the most effective treatment for severe lithium toxicity, especially when serum levels are significantly elevated (typically >2.5 mmol/L) and the patient presents with severe symptoms such as seizures, altered mental status, or renal impairment. Given the patient’s lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L and her critical condition, dialysis is necessary to rapidly reduce lithium levels.

      The other options are less appropriate or ineffective in this context:

      • Gastric lavage should be considered: This is not typically recommended for lithium poisoning because lithium is rapidly absorbed and lavage is unlikely to be effective several hours post-ingestion.
      • Activated charcoal is likely to be effective: Activated charcoal does not effectively bind lithium and is not recommended for lithium poisoning.
      • 5% dextrose should be started IV: While maintaining hydration is important, normal saline is preferred over dextrose solutions in this context to promote renal excretion of lithium.
      • Dialysis is not normally required unless levels are above 5 mmol/L: This statement is incorrect. Dialysis is often required at lower levels, particularly in cases of severe toxicity or if the patient is symptomatic, as seen in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Physiological effects of T3 on the heart include all the following except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Physiological effects of T3 on the heart include all the following except:

      Your Answer: Increased expression of serca pump gene

      Correct Answer: Increased expression of β-myosin heavy chain gene

      Explanation:

      Tri-iodothyronine, also known as T3, is a hormone which can affect almost every system in the human body. In the heart, it increases the number of β1-adrenergic receptors, enhances the response to circulating catecholamines, increases the proportion of α-myosin heavy chains in the atria, and increases the expression of serca pump gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - The predominant site in the lymph node where B lymphocytes are found is:...

    Incorrect

    • The predominant site in the lymph node where B lymphocytes are found is:

      Your Answer: Paracortex

      Correct Answer: Cortex

      Explanation:

      The cortex of the lymph node consists of the lymphoid nodules and sinusoids and posses a germinal centre from which B cells proliferate. The cortex of the lymph node predominately consists of B cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Tumour necrosis factor is a cytokine. What is its major function? ...

    Correct

    • Tumour necrosis factor is a cytokine. What is its major function?

      Your Answer: Promotion of inflammation

      Explanation:

      Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that has a wide variety of functions. It can cause cytolysis of certain tumour cell lines; it is involved in the induction of cachexia; it is a potent pyrogen, causing fever by direct action or by stimulation of interleukin-1 secretion; it can stimulate cell proliferation and induce cell differentiation under certain conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Blood flow to the subendocardial portions of the left ventricular muscle occurs mainly...

    Correct

    • Blood flow to the subendocardial portions of the left ventricular muscle occurs mainly during:

      Your Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      The sub endocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure from contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Isovolumetric ventricular contraction lasts for? ...

    Correct

    • Isovolumetric ventricular contraction lasts for?

      Your Answer: 0,05 s

      Explanation:

      Isovolumetric contraction lasts for about 0.05 seconds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which cells produce the immunoglobulin proteins involved in mediating humoral immunity? ...

    Correct

    • Which cells produce the immunoglobulin proteins involved in mediating humoral immunity?

      Your Answer: Differentiated forms of B lymphocytes known as plasma cells

      Explanation:

      After the B cells have been activated by a certain antigens, they transform into plasma cells. These plasma cells are responsible for the generation of antibodies (or immunoglobulins Ig) which are also known as regulators of humoral immunity. There are fives classes of Ig: IgA, IgG, IgM, IgE and IgD

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline...

    Correct

    • A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at 290 U/L (normal range 35-120). Plain radiographs reveal sclerotic lesions of the bone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bony metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma. The other cancers listed in the options are osteolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an effect of a positive inotropic agent on the heart?

      Your Answer: It increases the initial velocity of muscle shortening at all loads

      Correct Answer: It decreases the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole

      Explanation:

      Inotropic agents increase the contractility of the heart as well as the rate of rise in ventricular blood pressure during systole, generating a greater pressure and increasing the stroke volume e.g. like catecholamines do.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 18-year-old girl is brought to A&E having ingested at least 16 tablets...

    Correct

    • A 18-year-old girl is brought to A&E having ingested at least 16 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. What should her immediate management consist of?

      Your Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion.The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except:

      Your Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation

      Explanation:

      In knockout mouse models, a gene is not turned on but rather turned off or “knocked out” through targeted mutation. This involves disrupting or deleting the gene to study the effects of its loss of function. Knockout models are crucial for understanding the roles of specific genes, particularly those with unknown functions.

      The other statements are true:

      • Knockout models are important in studying the roles of sequenced genes with unknown function.
      • RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms) can be subcategorized as SLP (single locus probe) and MLP (multi locus probe).
      • RFLP analysis is slow and cumbersome and is now largely obsolete, having been replaced by more efficient techniques.
      • Sequence changes involved in RFLP can be analyzed more quickly by PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - An 87-year-old woman had to double up her dosage of morphine 60mg into...

    Incorrect

    • An 87-year-old woman had to double up her dosage of morphine 60mg into 120mg twice a day, in addition to another 10mg oral Morphine 6 times a day. What is the best method of management?

      Your Answer: 90mg MR morphine plus 30mg every 4 hours

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous morphine infusion

      Explanation:

      Stable dose of Morphine is essential for chronic cases of pain that are non-malignant in origin. Using the SC route avoids having to intravenously cannulate a patient and allows for a continuous infusion of drugs over a calculated period of time providing constant dosing A significant advantage is that plasma levels of a drug are much more stable, and appropriate symptom control can be achieved without the toxic effects of the peaks and troughs resulting from episodic drug administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - What is the function of basic electrical rhythm ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of basic electrical rhythm

      Your Answer: Segmentation and mixing

      Correct Answer: To coordinate peristalsis and other motor activity

      Explanation:

      The basal or basic electrical rhythm (BER) or electrical control activity (ECA) determines the frequency of the contractions in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, thus acting to coordinate peristalsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the...

    Correct

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of dietary glucose from the gut?

      Your Answer: SGLT1

      Explanation:

      SGLT 1 is responsible for the uptake of glucose via secondary active transport from the small intestine and the renal tubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which of the following normally has a slow depolarizing “prepotential”? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following normally has a slow depolarizing “prepotential”?

      Your Answer: Sinoatrial node

      Explanation:

      There are 2 main types of action potentials (AP) in the heart, the slow response and the fast response:The slow response is initiated by the slow calcium-sodium channels, found in the SA node (which is the natural pacemaker of the heart) and the conduction fibers of the AV node.The fast response occurs in the atrial and ventricles muscle cells and the purkinje fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - The heart rate can be accelerated by: ...

    Correct

    • The heart rate can be accelerated by:

      Your Answer: Exercise and thyroid hormones

      Explanation:

      The firing of the SA node will increase due to exercises and as the thyroid hormone has a chronotropic effect on the heart, it too will result in an increase in the heart rate via stimulation of the adrenergic receptors of the heart. As during exercise the sympathetic nervous system is activated, it will directly have an positive chronotropic effect on the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Activation of nitric oxide synthesis by endothelial cells is triggered by: ...

    Correct

    • Activation of nitric oxide synthesis by endothelial cells is triggered by:

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine, histamine, bradykinin, vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) and shear stress on the endothelial cells causing the release of NO. NO is formed from arginine and causes vasodilatation of the blood vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the following is true with regard to the acini? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true with regard to the acini?

      Your Answer: Peripheral zone is least oxygenated

      Correct Answer: The central zone (Zone III) is the least oxygenated

      Explanation:

      The acini are divided into zone I (periportal), zone II (transition zone), and zone III (pericentral). Cells located close to the portal triad or peripheral zone which consist of an arteriole from the hepatic artery are the most oxygenated cells. Cells in the central zone (III) are least oxygenated and mainly receive blood supply from the central vein which is a branch of hepatic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is:

      Your Answer: Glycine

      Correct Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers: the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer. Purkinje cells play a fundamental role in controlling motor movement. They release a neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions thereby reducing transmission of impulses. These inhibitory functions enable purkinje cells to regulate and coordinate motor movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - With regard to cell membrane proteins: ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to cell membrane proteins:

      Your Answer: All tend to traverse the whole membrane

      Correct Answer: Carriers are involved in facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Pumps use a source of free energy such as ATP to transport ions against a gradient and is an example of active transport. Unlike channel proteins which only transport substances through membranes passively, carrier proteins can transport ions and molecules either passively through facilitated diffusion, or via secondary active transport. Channels are either in open state or closed state. When a channel is opened, it is open to both extracellular and intracellular. Pores are continuously open to both environments, because they do not undergo conformational changes. They are always open and active.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - What percentage of blood to the liver is supplied by hepatic artery? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of blood to the liver is supplied by hepatic artery?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme that is involved in the formation of citrulline?

      Your Answer: Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

      Correct Answer: Ornithine transcarbamoylase

      Explanation:

      Carbamoyl phosphate is converted to citrulline by ornithine transcarbamoylase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which of the following has the shortest duration: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the shortest duration:

      Your Answer: PR interval

      Correct Answer: Atrial systole

      Explanation:

      Atrial systole: 0.1s

      Atrial diastole: around 0.4s

      Ventricular diastole: 0.4-0.53s

      Ventricular systole: 0.27s

      PR interval: 0.12-0.2 s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Cell membrane proteins may act as: ...

    Correct

    • Cell membrane proteins may act as:

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      Membrane proteins perform a variety of functions including:Membrane receptor proteins relay or carry signals between the cell’s internal and external environments.Transport proteins move molecules and ions (ionic channels) across the membrane. Membrane enzymes may have many activities, such as oxidoreductase, transferase or hydrolase andCell adhesion molecules

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Which statement regarding fever is correct: ...

    Correct

    • Which statement regarding fever is correct:

      Your Answer: Body temperature is regulated is by a centre in the floor of the third ventricle

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus is located on the floor of the third ventricle and is the centre of regulation of body temperature. It uses a set point to regulate other body systems as well. Diurnal variation of temperature is not seen in humans. the principal mediator of fever is interleukin I, although interferon alfa also plays a role. Fever can cause rhabdomyolysis or muscle breakdown

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - In a normal heart rate at rest, the left ventricular end-diastolic volume is...

    Incorrect

    • In a normal heart rate at rest, the left ventricular end-diastolic volume is ….

      Your Answer: 70-100 ml

      Correct Answer: 100-130 ml

      Explanation:

      In cardiovascular physiology, end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in the right and/or left ventricle at end load or filling in (diastole) or the amount of blood in the ventricles just before systole. Because greater EDVs cause greater distention of the ventricle, EDV is often used synonymously with preload, which refers to the length of the sarcomeres in cardiac muscle prior to contraction (systole). End-diastolic volume: Right = 144 mL(± 23mL) & Left = 142 mL (± 21 mL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Number of cases that are infected at a specific point in time ...

    Incorrect

    • Number of cases that are infected at a specific point in time

      Your Answer: Sero-Prevalence

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Prevalence in epidemiology is the proportion of a population found to have a condition (typically a disease or a risk factor such as smoking or seat-belt use). It is arrived at by comparing the number of people found to have the condition with the total number of people studied, and is usually expressed as a fraction, as a percentage or as the number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people. Point prevalence is the proportion of a population that has the condition at a specific point in time. Period prevalence is the proportion of a population that has the condition at some time during a given period (e.g., 12 month prevalence), and includes people who already have the condition at the start of the study period as well as those who acquire it during that period. Lifetime prevalence (LTP) is the proportion of a population that at some point in their life (up to the time of assessment) have experienced the condition

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to environmental temperature, for each degree Celsius of elevation, the metabolic rate rises?

      Your Answer: 0.12

      Correct Answer: 0.14

      Explanation:

      An increase in body temperature is associated with a higher metabolic rate. Evidence suggests that an increase of 1°C in your body temperature increases your metabolism by 10 to 14%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - In Argyll Robertson pupils… ...

    Incorrect

    • In Argyll Robertson pupils…

      Your Answer: It may occur in CNS syphilis

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson pupils are bilaterally small pupils that accommodate or reduce in size near an object but do not react to light. They do not constrict when exposed to bright light. They are a highly specific sign of neurosyphilis but may be seen in diabetic neuropathy as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting? ...

    Correct

    • Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting?

      Your Answer: Moxonidine

      Explanation:

      Moxonidine and alpha-methyl dopa are centrally acting antihypertensives and modify blood pressure through modifying sympathetic activity.Other options:Verapamil is a calcium antagonist.Minoxidil and hydralazine are both vasodilators.Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-blocker.Adverse effects:Dry mouth and somnolence were the most frequently reported adverse events, followed by headache, dizziness, nausea and allergic skin reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle...

    Incorrect

    • In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle contraction at high degrees of stretch is due to:

      Your Answer: A relative deficiency of ATP molecules to supply all the actin and myosin cross bridges formed

      Correct Answer: Disruption of myocardial fibers

      Explanation:

      Starling law states that the force of contraction is directly proportional to the preload. When the heart muscle is stretched beyond its limit the tension that is developed decreases, this is not due to loss of formation of effective myosin and actin cross bridges. The heart muscles despite being fully stretched is never stretched to this point. The reason for this decreased tension is physical disruption of the myocardial fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - The end product of trehalase action on oligosaccharides is ...

    Correct

    • The end product of trehalase action on oligosaccharides is

      Your Answer: Two glucose molecules

      Explanation:

      Disaccharides are glycoside hydrolases, enzymes that break down certain types of sugars called disaccharides into simpler sugars called monosaccharides.Examples of disaccharides:Lactase (breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose)Maltase (breaks down maltose into 2 glucoses)Sucrase (breaks down sucrose into glucose and fructose)Trehalase (breaks down trehalose into 2 glucoses)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?

      Your Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Accentuated lumbar lordosis

      Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease. The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - What is the effect of catecholamines (i.e. increased heart rate) on the pressure...

    Correct

    • What is the effect of catecholamines (i.e. increased heart rate) on the pressure volume loop?

      Your Answer: Shifts the diastolic pressure curve upward and leftward

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines have a positive ionotropic and chronotropic effect on the heart. The ventricles develop greater tension during systole resulting in an increase in the stroke volume. The increase in stroke volume results in a decrease in the end diastolic volume. This pushes the loop towards the left and upwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - Which is NOT a prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is NOT a prognostic factor for patients with malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer: Microsatellite metastasis

      Correct Answer: Diameter of melanoma > 6 mm

      Explanation:

      Features that affect prognosis are tumour thickness in millimetres (Breslow’s depth – the deeper the Breslow thickness the poorer the prognosis.), depth related to skin structures (Clark level – the level of invasion through the dermis), type of melanoma, presence of ulceration, presence of lymphatic/perineural invasion, presence of tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes (if present, prognosis is better), location of lesion, presence of satellite lesions, and presence of regional or distant metastasis. Malignant melanoma tends to grow radially before entering a vertical growth phase. The diameter it reaches has not been found to be a prognostic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Which of the following acute phase reactants increases the most dramatically in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following acute phase reactants increases the most dramatically in the first hour following injury?

      Your Answer: Fibrinogen

      Correct Answer: C-reactive protein

      Explanation:

      Measurement of acute-phase proteins, especially C-reactive protein, is a useful marker of inflammation. It correlates with the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), however not always directly. This is due to the ESR being largely dependent on elevation of fibrinogen, an acute phase reactant with a half-life of approximately one week. This protein will therefore remain higher for longer despite removal of the inflammatory stimuli. In contrast, C-reactive protein (with a half-life of 6-8 hours) rises rapidly and can quickly return to within the normal range if treatment is employed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - What is the effect of vasopressin on the kidney? ...

    Correct

    • What is the effect of vasopressin on the kidney?

      Your Answer: Increase collecting duct permeability to water

      Explanation:

      Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone or ADH, which increases water reabsorption in the kidney’s collecting ducts. It works by increasing water permeability in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubules. It induces the exocytosis of AQP-CD-laden vesicles, transferring water channels from intracellular vesicles to the apical plasma membrane, therefore allowing more water to be reabsorbed from the urine in the collecting ducts to the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged....

    Correct

    • A 82-year-old woman admitted following a fractured neck of femur has been discharged. On review, she is making good progress but consideration is given to secondary prevention of further fractures. What is the most appropriate step in the prevention of further fractures?

      Your Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      In such a clinical scenario, NICE guidelines support initiating treatment with bisphosphonates without waiting for a DEXA scan.Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.Management:Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D repleteAlendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling for the past two weeks. Which of the following will be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer: Pain on flexion of the fingers against resistance

      Correct Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles and thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which will result in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - Compact/cortical bone makes up ...

    Correct

    • Compact/cortical bone makes up

      Your Answer: The outer layer of most bones and accounts for 80% of bone in the body

      Explanation:

      Cortical, lamellar, or compact bone, is more dense than spongy bone and it forms the rigid, outer layer of bones, also called cortex. It consists of packed osteons, with a central osteonic canal surrounded by concentric rings. Spaces called lacunae are filled with osteocytes, and channels called canaliculi go from the lacunae to the osteonic canal. The strength of cortical bone allows it to support the body and protect organs. It also stores different elements, such as calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Which of the following structures lie in close proximity to the thyroid? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures lie in close proximity to the thyroid?

      Your Answer: All of the options

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland receives its blood supply from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries. The recurrent laryngeal nerves emerges from the superior thoracic outlet bounded in part by the thyroid lobe. Two pairs of parathyroid glands lie near the thyroid. The common carotid artery splits into its external and internal branches at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage; these branches are separated by the gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - The major factor in controlling coronary artery blood flow is considered to be?...

    Correct

    • The major factor in controlling coronary artery blood flow is considered to be?

      Your Answer: Metabolites of oxygen consumption

      Explanation:

      There is a strong relationship between myocardial blood flow and oxygen consumption. This indicates that products of metabolism may cause vasodilation of the coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following enzymes are involved in Phase I drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - The a-wave is created by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The a-wave is created by:

      Your Answer: Bulging of the tricuspid valve into the atria during isovolumetric ventricular contraction

      Correct Answer: Regurgitation of some blood to the great veins when the atria contracts in atrial systole

      Explanation:

      The a-wave created on the venous pulse curve occurs as a result of atrial systole. Due to the pressure build-up in the atria, it causes a back pressure in the vena cava. This pressure is exerted on the valve and this back pressure is what causes a slight increase in the venous pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - The isoforms of nitric oxide synthase which are found in the nervous system...

    Correct

    • The isoforms of nitric oxide synthase which are found in the nervous system (NOS1) and endothelial cells (NOS3) are activated by agents that increase which of the following intracellular electrolytes?

      Your Answer: Ca

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of nitric oxide is stimulated by activation of the NMDA receptors by certain agents. This leads to opening of the Calcium channels and an influx of calcium into the cell. This will activate the nitric oxide synthase. Nitric oxide is produced on demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - A 55 year old female presents with progressive dyspnoea, dry cough and fever....

    Correct

    • A 55 year old female presents with progressive dyspnoea, dry cough and fever. She started methotrexate therapy six weeks ago. The current regimen includes methotrexate 15 mg/ week, folic acid 5 mg/day and aspirin 75 mg/day. There is no history of any other chronic illness. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 37.8C, pulse: 100 beats/min, BP: 110/80mmHg and SaO2: 90% on air. Examination reveals synovitis in both wrists, and metacarpophalangeal joints. On auscultation, there are scattered crepitations. Blood test reports are given below:Haemoglobin: 13.1g/dl (13.0 – 18.0 g/dL)WBC: 8.2 x109/l (4 – 11 x 109/l)Neutrophils: 5.1×109/l (1.5 – 7 x 109/l)Platelets: 280 x109/l (150 – 400 x 109/L)ESR: 48 mm/hr (0 – 30 mm/1st hr)Urea, electrolytes and creatinine: normalCXR: patchy airspace shadows bilaterallyWhat is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Pneumonitis is a serious and unpredictable side-effect of treatment with methotrexate (MTX) that may become life-threatening. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxaemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Chest radiography reveals a diffuse interstitial or mixed interstitial and alveolar infiltrate, with a predilection for the lower lung fields. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive pattern with diminished diffusion capacity. Lung biopsy reveals cellular interstitial infiltrates, granulomas or a diffuse alveolar damage pattern accompanied by perivascular inflammation. Most patients present in the first few months of starting methotrexate. It is important that all patients receiving methotrexate be educated concerning this potential adverse reaction and instructed to contact their physicians should significant new pulmonary symptoms develop while undergoing therapy. If methotrexate pneumonitis is suspected, methotrexate should be discontinued, supportive measures instituted and careful examination for different causes of respiratory distress conducted. This may be treated with corticosteroids once underlying infection has been excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine...

    Incorrect

    • A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a rapid urine screening test developed to detect Chlamydia. The total number of people involved in the study were 200. The study compared the new test to the already existing NAAT techniques. The new test was positive in 20 patients that were Chlamydia positive and in 3 patients that were Chlamydia negative. For 5 patients that were Chlamydia positive and 172 patients that were Chlamydia negative the test turned out to be negative. Choose the correct value regarding the negative predictive value of the new test:

      Your Answer: 172/175

      Correct Answer: 172/177

      Explanation:

      The definition of negative predictive value is the probability that the individuals with truly negative screening test don’t have Chlamydia. The equation is the following: Negative predictive value = Truly negative/(truly negative + false negative) = 172 / (172 + 5) = 172 / 177

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Α1

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors cause uterine contraction during pregnancy. They are linked to Gq-proteins that activate smooth muscle contraction through the IP3 signal transduction pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia?

      Your Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:

      • When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) there is increased risk of psychosis.
      • Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      • Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen) enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      • Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.
      • Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection. On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion. Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: Concurrent use with theophylline may increase relaxation

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use

      Explanation:

      The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma. The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - Select the CORRECT statement regarding bile salts… ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the CORRECT statement regarding bile salts…

      Your Answer: Contain enzymes required for the digestion of fat.

      Correct Answer: Are necessary for any bile acid secretion by hepatocytes.

      Explanation:

      Bile salts stimulate bile secretion by the liver. Bile salts do not have an enzymatic action on digestion of fat but rather emulsify fat for the action of enzymes secreted mainly by the pancreas. Bile salts are polar cholesterol derivatives and are not derived from amino acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of the cool receptor (CMR-1), causes:

      Your Answer: Activation of the Na-K-ATPase pump

      Correct Answer: Influx of Ca++ & Na+

      Explanation:

      Cold and Menthol receptor 1 (CMR1) is a protein that in humans is encoded by TRPM8 gene. It is an ion channel which upon activation causes the influx of Na+ and Ca++ ions into the cell that leads to the depolarization and generation of an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA...

    Incorrect

    • In a knockout mouse model the process used to combine the new DNA sequence and the stem cells is known as:

      Your Answer: Recombination

      Correct Answer: Insertion

      Explanation:

      Chimerisation is also known as the formation of recombinant DNA. When a foreign DNA sequence is inserted into a plasmid or other DNA sequence, this process is known as insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - In the blood supply of the heart, ‘dominance’ refers to the coronary artery...

    Incorrect

    • In the blood supply of the heart, ‘dominance’ refers to the coronary artery which supplies the?

      Your Answer: Sinoatrial node

      Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular artery

      Explanation:

      Dominance of the coronary artery system is defined by the artery that gives rise to the posterior interventricular artery. Dominance of the right coronary artery is more common (68%). It gives rise to the large posterior interventricular branch which goes down to the apex of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - Which of the following conditions is associated with eosinophilia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is associated with eosinophilia?

      Your Answer: Ascaris

      Explanation:

      Eosinophilia can be idiopathic (primary) or, more commonly, secondary to another disease. In the Western World, allergic or atopic diseases are the most common causes, especially those of the respiratory or integumentary systems. In the developing world, parasites are the most common cause e.g. Ascaris

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance? ...

    Correct

    • Consanguinity shows a strong association with which pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Consanguinity involves being from the same kinship as another person. It is a common feature of an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - Which of the following is a product of D cells ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a product of D cells

      Your Answer: Gastrin releasing peptide (grp)

      Correct Answer: Somatostatin

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is secreted by D cells, HCL and intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells. Trefoil peptides are secreted by mucus secreting goblet cells and gastrin releasing peptide (grp) by post-ganglionic fibers of the vagus nerve (which innervate the G cells of the stomach).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones would stimulate secretion of TSH?

      Your Answer: TRH

      Explanation:

      Thyrotropin-releasing hormone, also known as TRH, thyrotropin-releasing factor, TRF is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus. It functions as a releasing hormone, promoting the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone or thyrotropin and prolactin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - What causes increased insulin sensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What causes increased insulin sensitivity?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone treatment

      Correct Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Physical activity, through its effect on insulin sensitivity, is one of the main modifiable risk factors for type 2 diabetes. It is estimated that by each weekly 500 kcal increment in exercise related energy consumption, the lifetime risk of suffering from type 2 diabetes is reduced by 9%. Up to two hours after exercise, glucose uptake is elevated due to insulin independent mechanisms; however, insulin sensitivity remains increased for at least 16 hours after exercising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - What is the average life span of basophils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average life span of basophils?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 70 hours

      Explanation:

      Once mature, basophils have an estimated life span of 60–70 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Where is the lower border of the liver usually found? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the lower border of the liver usually found?

      Your Answer: 6th rib midclavicular line on right

      Correct Answer: 10th rib anterior axillary line on right

      Explanation:

      Assessment of liver margins is important clinically to determine the size of the liver and is done via percussion during the physical examination. The liver typically extends from the fifth intercostal space or 6th rib to the right costal margin in the midclavicular line and the 10th rib on anterior axillary line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed...

    Incorrect

    • The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed for ATP production. These proteins are also essential for:

      Your Answer: Oxidative phosphorylation

      Correct Answer: Apoptotic cell death

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway or the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis is activated due to the loss of BCL-2 and other antiapoptotic proteins. This loss results in the increased membrane permeability and release of cytochrome C which activates caspases downstream resulting in apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - Telomerase is active in the following cells except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomerase is active in the following cells except:

      Your Answer: Germ cells

      Correct Answer: Certain osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Some cells have the ability to reverse telomere shortening by expressing telomerase, an enzyme that extends the telomeres of chromosomes. Telomerase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, meaning an enzyme that can make DNA using RNA as a template.

      Telomerase is not usually active in most somatic cells (cells of the body), but it’s active in germ cells (the cells that make sperm and eggs) and some adult stem cells. These are cell types that need to undergo many divisions, or, in the case of germ cells, give rise to a new organism with its telomeric “clock” reset.
      Interestingly, many cancer cells have shortened telomeres, and telomerase is active in these cells. If telomerase could be inhibited by drugs as part of cancer therapy, their excess division (and thus, the growth of the cancerous tumor) could potentially be stopped.
       A subset of liver cells with high levels of telomerase renews the organ during normal cell turnover and after injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - Closure of the tricuspid valve is marked by which of the following features...

    Incorrect

    • Closure of the tricuspid valve is marked by which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform?

      Your Answer: x descent

      Correct Answer: c wave

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP) classically has three upward deflections and two downward deflections. The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling. The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - An 82 year old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is...

    Correct

    • An 82 year old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is also finding it difficult to find the right words to explain his thoughts. Doctors have examined him, and everything else appears to be normal. They have also found that his comprehension is good. From the list of options, choose the anatomical site which in this instance, is most likely affected.

      Your Answer: Broca’s Area

      Explanation:

      The combination of good comprehension but poor speech quality in this patient is consistent with damage to the Broca’s area. The Wernicke’s area is responsible for the understanding of speech, and so is not consistent with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except:

      Your Answer: Anterior spinal artery

      Correct Answer: Lateral spinal artery

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord (SC) is supplied by the single anterior spinal artery which supplies the anterior two thirds of the SC and paired posterior spinal arteries supplying the posterior one third. Anastomoses between the spinal arteries supply the lateral column. These arteries originate near the cervico-occipital junction and therefore have a smaller calibre and often discontinue. Thus, they require reinforcement by segmental/radicular arteries which are branches of the ascending cervical artery, deep cervical artery, intercostal arteries, lumbar arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - During exercise, a man consumes 2L O2/min, his arterial 02 content is 190...

    Correct

    • During exercise, a man consumes 2L O2/min, his arterial 02 content is 190 ml/l and the 02 content of his mixed venous blood is 130ml/l. His cardiac output is approximately:

      Your Answer: 33l/min

      Explanation:

      In Fick’s original method, the following variables are measured:VO2, oxygen consumption in ml of pure gaseous oxygen per minute. This may be measured using a spirometer within a closed rebreathing circuit incorporating a CO2 absorberCa, the oxygen concentration of blood taken from the pulmonary vein (representing oxygenated blood)Cv, the oxygen concentration of blood from an intravenous cannula (representing deoxygenated blood)From these values, we know that:VO2 = (CO x Ca) – (CO x Cv)where CO = Cardiac Output, Ca = Oxygen concentration of arterial blood and Cv = Oxygen concentration of mixed venous blood.This allows us to sayCO = VO2/{Ca – Cv}and hence calculate cardiac output.Therefore CO = 2/(0.190-0.130) = 33l/minNote that (Ca – Cv) is also known as the arteriovenous oxygen difference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres. ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres.

      Your Answer: Parietal lobe : primary somatosensory cortex

      Explanation:

      Parietal lobe: The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. It is responsible for processing sensory information from the body.

      Frontal lobe: The primary motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. The frontal lobe also contains the premotor cortex, which is involved in planning movements. The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, not the frontal lobe.

      Temporal lobe: The primary auditory cortex is located in the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe. The primary motor and premotor cortices are located in the frontal lobe, not the temporal lobe.

      Occipital lobe: The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe. The primary auditory cortex is located in the temporal lobe, not the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - Microtubule subunits include: ...

    Correct

    • Microtubule subunits include:

      Your Answer: Alpha and beta tubulin

      Explanation:

      Microtubules are long, hollow cylinders made up of polymerised α- and β-tubulin dimers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - Which is the most common site for primary cardiac tumours to occur in...

    Correct

    • Which is the most common site for primary cardiac tumours to occur in adults?

      Your Answer: Left atrium

      Explanation:

      Myxomas are the most common type of primary heart tumour. The tumour is derived from multipotential mesenchymal cells and may cause a ball valve-type obstruction. About 75% of myxomas occur in the left atrium of the heart, usually beginning in the wall that divides the two upper chambers of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - Heart rate can be slowed by: ...

    Correct

    • Heart rate can be slowed by:

      Your Answer: Grief

      Explanation:

      Grief stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system, resulting in a decrease in the heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - The nucleus tractus solitaries is medullary nucleus that processes the following inputs except:...

    Incorrect

    • The nucleus tractus solitaries is medullary nucleus that processes the following inputs except:

      Your Answer: Visceral sensation from the gut and thoracic organs

      Correct Answer: Sensory input from the semi-circular canal (CN VIII)

      Explanation:

      Located in the brain stem is a series of purely sensory nuclei known as tractus solitaries. Inputs of the nucleus tractus solitaries include:Taste information from the facial nerve (anterior 2/3 of the tongue), glossopharyngeal nerve (posterior 1/3) and vagus nerve (small area on the epiglottis).Sensory information from the ear (auricular branch of the vagus nerve).Chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) in the carotid body via glossopharyngeal nerve, aortic bodies, and the sinoatrial node, via the vagus nerve.Chemically and mechanically sensitive neurons of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) with endings located in the heart, lungs, airways, gastrointestinal system, pharynx, and liver via the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - Which of the following best describes the cardiac muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the cardiac muscle?

      Your Answer: Striated and voluntary

      Correct Answer: Striated and involuntary

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle (heart muscle) is an involuntary, striated muscle that is found in the walls and histological foundation of the heart, specifically the myocardium. Cardiac muscle is one of three major types of muscle, the others being skeletal and smooth muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - A 68 year old male, previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis presents to your clinic...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male, previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis presents to your clinic with acute on chronic pain in his big toe. Past history is significant for hypertension for which he takes Bendroflumethiazide 5mg daily. Examination reveals an erythematous, red hot metatarsophalangeal joint that has a knobbly appearance. X-ray shows punched out bony cysts. Which of the following would be the most appropriate long term management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop Bendroflumethiazide and substitute a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is chronic tophaceous gout, which is classically associated with chronic renal impairment or long term diuretic therapy. There is tophus formation due to urate crystal deposition in and around the joint. These tophi can also form in the bones and soft tissues. Renal manifestations with uric acid include nephrolithiasis and uric acid nephropathy. Whenever there is an acute on chronic attack of gout, the inciting cause must be established and in case of diuretic use, they should be immediately replaced with another medication. Allopurinol is never started during an acute episode. it is first allowed to settle before administration of allopurinol. Although dietary restriction must be observed in people with a propensity of gout, this scenario clearly presents diuretics as the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of: ...

    Correct

    • Depolarization spreads rapidly through cardiac muscle fibers because of the presence of:

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in between the cells. They allow for the formation of low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Correct Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria directly whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics slow their growth or reproduction. Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. Erythromycin which is a macrolide is mainly a bacteriostatic antibiotic but can show bactericidal action depending on the dose. Sulphonamides are mainly bacteriostatic. Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis therefore it is considered as bactericidal. Chloramphenicol is primarily a bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis and can exhibit bactericidal action in high concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - Which part of the ECG represents ventricular repolarisation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the ECG represents ventricular repolarisation?

      Your Answer: QT interval

      Correct Answer: T wave

      Explanation:

      Ventricular repolarisation is denoted by the T wave.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which...

    Correct

    • A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which of the following?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP) is found in the nerves innervating the GIT. It markedly stimulates the secretion of intestinal electrolytes and also with them water. This results in secretary diarrhoea. Along with that it also relaxes intestinal smooth muscle including the sphincters, it also results in dilation of the peripheral blood vessels and along with this its also inhibits gastric acid secretions. A VIPoma will exaggerate all this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct?

      Your Answer: Influenza is a RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The Orthomyxoviruses are a family of RNA viruses that includes six genera: Influenza virus A, Influenza virus B, Influenza virus C, Isavirus, Thogotovirus and Quaranjavirus.The mechanism of the evolutionary force of antigenic shift allows influenza viruses to exchange genes with strains that infect different species. Under this mechanism, a human influenza virus could exchange genes with an avian strain, and that is how pandemic strains arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain? ...

    Incorrect

    • The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain?

      Your Answer: Thalamic nuclei

      Correct Answer: Medulla and midbrain

      Explanation:

      The reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei that are located along the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as...

    Correct

    • Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis on its own does not lead to left ventricular dilatation and hence a displaced apex beat. Thus a displaced apex beat is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other options occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - Humoral immunity is a major defence against: ...

    Incorrect

    • Humoral immunity is a major defence against:

      Your Answer: Bacterial infections

      Correct Answer: Viral infections

      Explanation:

      Humoral immunity is provided by the neutralizing and non-neutralizing antibodies that are formed from the B lymphocytes. This form of immunity is most important in viral infection. Non-neutralizing antibodies increases phagocytosis of the infected cell and inhibit the ability of the virus to replicate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - Nucleic acids are split into nucleotides in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Nucleic acids are split into nucleotides in the:

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Intestine

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is the major source for all the digestive enzymes including nucleases which split nucleic acids into nucleotides primarily in the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - The rate of depolarization of the SA node membrane potential is modulated by...

    Correct

    • The rate of depolarization of the SA node membrane potential is modulated by the following:

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Rate of depolarization of the SA node is modulated by all of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with recurrent fever and arthralgia which is accompanied by a rash on face and upper chest. These attacks have been refractory to treatment and have occurred recurrently requiring adrenaline on several occasions. Lab results reveal persistently reduced C4 levels. Which of the following is most likely causing his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Angioedema secondary to C1 inhibitor deficiency has been rarely reported to be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. A genetic defect of C1 inhibitor produces hereditary angioedema, which is usually presented with cutaneous painless oedema, but oedema of the genital area, gastrointestinal and laryngeal tracts have also been reported. In lupus patients, angioedema may be the result of an acquired type of C1 inhibitor deficiency, most probably due to antibody formation directed against the C1 inhibitor molecule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of ...

    Correct

    • The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of

      Your Answer: The circular muscle layer

      Explanation:

      The pyloric sphincter, or valve, is a strong ring of smooth muscle (circular muscle layer) at the end of the pyloric canal which lets food pass from the stomach to the duodenum. It controls the outflow of gastric contents into the duodenum. It receives sympathetic innervation from the celiac ganglion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by?

      Your Answer: Microglial cells

      Correct Answer: Oligodendrocytes

      Explanation:

      CNS myelin is produced by special cells called oligodendrocytes. PNS myelin is produced by Schwann cells. The two types of myelin are chemically different, but they both perform the same function — to promote efficient transmission of a nerve impulse along the axon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action...

    Incorrect

    • Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action potential produced by which of the following.

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: Calcium flux

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the SA and AV nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - What is the mode of action of amiodarone? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of action of amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Potassium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic drug. Class III antiarrhythmics are potassium channel blockers, they prolong duration of action potential with resulting prolongation of effective refractory period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is...

    Incorrect

    • The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is what type of sensory neuron?

      Your Answer: IIa

      Correct Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      Muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is gamma motor neurone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - Cells mediating innate immunity include: ...

    Correct

    • Cells mediating innate immunity include:

      Your Answer: Natural killer cells

      Explanation:

      Natural killer cells have features of both innate and adaptive immunity. They play an important part in defence against tumours and viruses. They are non specific and do not generate immunological memory

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?

      Your Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a macrophage?

      Your Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Microglia act as the macrophages of the central nervous system, and they contribute to innate and adaptive immune responses. Studies have shown that microglial cells recognize monocyte antigens, and there are similarities between them that demonstrate that they originate from these monocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - Where is the carotid sinus located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the carotid sinus located?

      Your Answer: Before the bifurcation of the carotid artery

      Correct Answer: After the bifurcation of the carotid artery, on the internal carotid

      Explanation:

      The carotid sinus is a small dilation in the internal carotid artery just above its bifurcation into the external and internal carotid branch. Baroreceptors are present at this dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - Concerning the functional unit of the liver, which segment is most susceptible to...

    Correct

    • Concerning the functional unit of the liver, which segment is most susceptible to hypoxic damage?

      Your Answer: Zone 3

      Explanation:

      From a metabolic perspective, the functional unit is the hepatic acinus (terminal acinus), each of which is centred on the line connecting two portal triads and extends outwards to the two adjacent central veins. The periportal zone I is nearest to the entering vascular supply and receives the most oxygenated blood, making it least sensitive to ischemic injury while making it very susceptible to viral hepatitis. Conversely, the centrilobular zone III has the poorest oxygenation, and will be most affected during a time of ischemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - Efferent innervation of the muscle spindle is supplied by which type of motor...

    Incorrect

    • Efferent innervation of the muscle spindle is supplied by which type of motor neuron?

      Your Answer: Alfa – motor neuron

      Correct Answer: Gama – motor neuron

      Explanation:

      The muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is via Type Ia fibers whereas the motor supply is via gamma motor neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical...

    Incorrect

    • Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical attack in the city. The patients are extremely unwell, with symptoms of excessive salivation, lacrimation, diarrhoea, and emesis. Sarin gas was suspected as the most likely agent used in the attack. What is the mechanism of action of this chemical agent?

      Your Answer: Anti-cholinergic

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Sarin acts by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.Sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesteraseSarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. This results in high levels of acetylcholine (ACh).The effects of excessive ACh can be remembered by the mnemonic DUMBELLS:DiarrhoeaUrinationMiosis/muscle weaknessBronchorrhea/BradycardiaEmesisLacrimationSalivation/sweatingOrganophosphate insecticide poisoning:One of the effects of organophosphate poisoning is inhibition of acetylcholinesteraseFeatures can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD)SalivationLacrimationUrinationDefecation/diarrhoeacardiovascular: hypotension, bradycardiamiosis, muscle fasciculation.Organophosphate poisoning is treated with the anti-muscarinic atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by: ...

    Correct

    • The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:

      Your Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1

      Explanation:

      Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - What is the function of the macula densa, located in the wall of...

    Correct

    • What is the function of the macula densa, located in the wall of the thick ascending limb?

      Your Answer: Tubuloglomerular feedback.

      Explanation:

      Macula densa cells sense changes in sodium chloride level, and will trigger an autoregulatory response to increase or decrease reabsorption of ions and water to the blood (as needed) in order to alter blood volume and return blood pressure to normal. Tubuloglomerular feedback is one of several mechanisms the kidney uses to regulate glomerular filtration rate (GFR). It involves the concept of purinergic signalling, in which an increased distal tubular sodium chloride concentration causes a basolateral release of adenosine from the macula densa cells. This initiates a cascade of events that ultimately brings GFR to an appropriate level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-blockers are the mainstay of treatment in long QT syndrome. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillators are the most effective treatment in genotypes with a high risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true: ...

    Correct

    • With regard to X-linked disorders which of the following are true:

      Your Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      X linked disorders are more common in males as they only need one mutated copy of the X chromosome to manifest the disease with full severity while the females need two X chromosomes to manifest the disease, even with one defected X chromosome the severity is less than that seen in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension and angina. He continues to smoke about 20 cigarettes per day despite being advised about lifestyle modifications.Blood investigations obtained in the emergency department show:Na+: 133 mmol/lK+: 3.3 mmol/lUrea: 4.5 mmol/lCreatinine: 90 μmol/lWhich among the following is the most likely explanation for the abnormalities seen in the above investigations?

      Your Answer: Enalapril therapy

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy

      Explanation:

      The blood investigations in this patient reveal hyponatremia as well as hypokalaemia. Among the options provided, Bendroflumethiazide therapy can cause the above presentation with the electrolyte disturbances. Note:- Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is associated with hyperkalaemia.- Enalapril therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, hypotension, cough, and rarely a rash.- Felodipine therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, headache, cough, and palpitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Correct

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - Which of the following prevents auto-digestion of the stomach by gastric secretions: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following prevents auto-digestion of the stomach by gastric secretions:

      Your Answer: Bombesin

      Correct Answer: Trefoil peptides and mucus- bicarbonate layer.

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin, a protein digesting enzyme. Bombesin is a peptide which stimulates gastrin secreting cells in the stomach increasing production of gastric acid. Ecl or enterochromaffin cells are neuroendocrine cells that aid in the production of gastric acid via the release of histamine. Oxyntic cells are also known as parietal cells and are the main cells secreting gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl). Gastric acid and pepsin are harmful agents for the gastric mucosa and can result in autodigestion. It is therefore protected by several agents including bicarbonate which neutralizes the acidity of gastric acid while Trefoil peptides are a component of gastric mucosa that form a gel like layer in the gastric epithelium protecting it from harmful agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - What is the most important determinant of ECF volume? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important determinant of ECF volume?

      Your Answer: The amount of sodium in the distal tubules

      Correct Answer: The amount of sodium in the ECF

      Explanation:

      The volume of the ECF is determined primarily by the total amount of osmotically active solute in the ECF. The composition of the ECF is discussed in Chapter 1. Because Na+ and Cl− are by far the most abundant osmotically active solutes in ECF, and because changes in Cl− are to a great extent secondary to changes in Na+, the amount of Na+ in the ECF is the most important determinant of ECF volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the most compelling indication for starting HRT?

      Your Answer: Control of vasomotor symptoms such as flushing

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to help alleviate menopausal symptoms. The main indication is the control of vasomotor symptoms. The other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy and prevention of osteoporosis, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones?

      Your Answer: They are released in response to hypervolemia

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic hormones are vasodilators released in response to hypervolemia.

      Natriuretic hormones (NH) include three groups of compounds: the natriuretic peptides NPs (ANP, BNP and CNP), the gastrointestinal peptides (guanylin and uroguanylin), and endogenous cardiac steroids. These substances induce the kidney to excrete sodium and therefore participate in the regulation of sodium and water homeostasis, blood volume, and blood pressure (BP). In addition to their peripheral functions, these hormones act as neurotransmitters or neuromodulators in the brain.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) plays a crucial role in blood pressure regulation by inducing natriuresis and diuresis in the kidney, inhibiting renin secretion, aldosterone production, and promoting vasorelaxation.  Two paracrine factors derived from endothelial cells play important roles in modulating ANP secretion. Endothelin, a potent vasoconstrictor, stimulates ANP secretion and augments stretch induced ANP secretion. The dramatic increase in ANP release produced by cardiac ischemia appears to be mediated in part by endothelin. Nitric oxide (NO), an important vasodilator, is also produced by endothelial cells and inhibits ANP secretion.

      Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) shares ANP’s receptor but is primarily associated with antifibrotic effects in ventricular remodeling, serving as a biomarker for heart failure and myocardial infarction.

      C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP) acts locally in an autocrine/paracrine manner, exerting potent cardiovascular effects, including vasorelaxation and vascular remodeling post-injury. NPs also demonstrate diverse effects beyond cardiovascular and renal systems, such as bronchodilation, anti-inflammatory actions, and metabolic effects on adipose tissue and long bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - The predominant receptors in the hearts conduction system are? ...

    Incorrect

    • The predominant receptors in the hearts conduction system are?

      Your Answer: Both β1 and β2

      Correct Answer: Β1

      Explanation:

      All of the components of the intrinsic conduction system contain autorhythmic cells that spontaneously depolarize. In the absence of extrinsic neural or hormonal influences, the SA node pacing rate would be about 100 beats per minute (bpm). The heart rate and cardiac output, however, must vary in response to the needs of the body’s cells for oxygen and nutrients under varying conditions. In order to respond rapidly to changing requirements of the body’s tissues, the heart rate and contractility are regulated by the autonomic nervous system (ANS), hormones, and other factors. The ANS has two interacting systems: the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

      Sympathetic receptors: There are two types of adrenergic receptors: β and α. In the cardiovascular system there are β1, β2, α1, and α2 adrenergic receptors. β1 adrenergic receptors are expressed in the heart conduction system (in the SA node, AV node, and on atrial and ventricular cardiomyocytes). The activation of β1 receptors increases heart rate (via the SA node), and contractility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?

      Your Answer: Lateral hemispheric portions

      Correct Answer: Vestibulocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The vestibulocerebellum develops at the same time as the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear. Its regulates balance between agonist and antagonist muscle contractions of the spine, hips, and shoulders during rapid movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - Which of the following drugs have the best gram positive cover? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs have the best gram positive cover?

      Your Answer: Glycopeptides

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporin has a mixed coverage of gram positive and negative organisms. Aminoglycosides are active against gram negative aerobic bacteria. Quinolones mainly cover gram negative bacteria. Monobactams primarily cover infections caused by gram negative bacteria. Glycopeptides are antibiotics effective primarily against gram positive cocci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. ...

    Incorrect

    • Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.

      Your Answer: Oxytocin and prolactin

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin and vasopressin

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary gland secretes oxytocin and vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone). These hormones are stored in Herring bodies before being secreted into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - Arterioles stemming from the coronary artery can also empty into the heart directly...

    Correct

    • Arterioles stemming from the coronary artery can also empty into the heart directly via the:

      Your Answer: Arteriosinusoidal vessels

      Explanation:

      Most of the venous blood returns to the heart via the coronary sinus and the anterior cardiac veins. Apart from these there are other vessels that drain directly into the heart chambers. They include arteriosinusoidal vessels, which connect the arterioles to the heart chambers. The thebesian veins drain the capillaries into the chambers and the arterioluminal vessels drain small arteries directly into the chambers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes most obvious or prominent? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes most obvious or prominent?

      Your Answer: G1 phase

      Correct Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an intentional paracetamol overdose. He had taken 20x 500mg tablets, all at once. He denies any alcohol intake. Blood investigations 4 hours after ingestion showed:Paracetamol: 14 mg/lINR: 1Liver enzymes: No abnormality detectedBilirubin: Mild elevationHe was seen by the mental health team and discharged. The blood investigations were repeated:Bilirubin: Within normal limitsUrea: 21 mmol/lCreatinine: 300 µmol/lWhat is the likely cause of these results?

      Your Answer: Delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for these results is delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity.The blood investigations of this patient are highly suggestive of acute kidney injury. Paracetamol overdose is well known to cause hepatotoxicity, but not for its delayed nephrotoxicity, especially in significant overdose. Appropriate monitoring of a patient’s blood tests is important.Management:NAC (N-Acetyl cysteine) has a clear role in preventing acetaminophen-induced liver necrosis. Although NAC has not been proven to be harmful to the kidney, its role in patients without hepatoxicity and only isolated renal dysfunction is uncertain.Other options:-There are no features in the history that are suggestive of dehydration and pre-renal AKI presenting in this manner in a 25-year-old would be very unusual.- Minimal change nephropathy typically presents with a nephrotic picture of kidney injury.- Berger’s more commonly presents with isolated haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?

      Your Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced...

    Correct

    • H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced with the help of which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Carbonic anhydrase ii

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyses the rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water to bicarbonate and protons (or vice versa). This is a reversible reaction that takes place in the gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of the bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Hemopoietic stem cells - basophils

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) or hemocytoblasts are the stem cells that give rise to all the other blood cells through the process of haematopoiesis. They give rise to both the myeloid and lymphoid lineages of blood cells. (Myeloid cells include monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, erythrocytes, dendritic cells, and megakaryocytes or platelets. Lymphoid cells include T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - Iron absorption occurs primarily in which part of the GIT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Iron absorption occurs primarily in which part of the GIT?

      Your Answer: Jejunum

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Like most mineral nutrients, the majority of the iron absorbed from digested food or supplements is absorbed in the duodenum by enterocytes of the duodenal lining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (30/45) 67%
Medicine (118/200) 59%
Cell Biology (3/5) 60%
Haematology (5/8) 63%
Renal (4/6) 67%
Endocrinology (7/13) 54%
Neurology (9/22) 41%
Connective Tissue (7/9) 78%
Pharmacology (20/24) 83%
Gastrointestinal (13/23) 57%
Dermatology (0/3) 0%
Genetics (8/14) 57%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/6) 17%
Infectious Diseases (5/7) 71%
Metabolism (0/3) 0%
Research Skills (0/2) 0%
Immunology (4/7) 57%
Geriatrics (1/2) 50%
Passmed