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  • Question 1 - Depression of the normal coagulation system and excessive bleeding after surgery can occur...

    Correct

    • Depression of the normal coagulation system and excessive bleeding after surgery can occur in which of the following medical conditions?

      Your Answer: Liver disease

      Explanation:

      As most of the coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver, liver diseases like hepatitis or cirrhosis will depress the coagulation system. Vitamin K deficiency can also decrease the production of vitamin K dependent coagulation factors VII, XI, X and prothrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A medical student is asked to calculate the net pressure difference in a...

    Correct

    • A medical student is asked to calculate the net pressure difference in a capillary wall, considering: Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = –3 mmHg, Plasma colloid osmotic pressure = 28 mmHg, Capillary hydrostatic pressure = 17 mmHg, Interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure = 8 mmHg, and Filtration coefficient = 1. Which is the correct answer?

      Your Answer: 0 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The rate of filtration at any point along a capillary depends on a balance of forces sometimes called Starling’s forces after the physiologist who first described their operation in detail. The Starling principle of fluid exchange is key to understanding how plasma fluid (solvent) within the bloodstream (intravascular fluid) moves to the space outside the bloodstream (extravascular space). Fluid movement = k[(pc– pi)–(Πc– Πi)] where k = capillary filtration coefficient, pc = capillary hydrostatic pressure, pi= interstitial hydrostatic pressure, Πc = capillary colloid osmotic pressure, Πi = interstitial colloid osmotic pressure. Therefore: 1 × [capillary hydrostatic pressure (17) – interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (–3)] – [plasma colloid osmotic pressure (28) – interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (8)] = 0 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman is in a comatose state following a traumatic head injury,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is in a comatose state following a traumatic head injury, and is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics and IV fluids containing saline and 5% dextrose. A serum biochemistry analysis is performed five days later which shows a low serum potassium level. This is most likely to be due to:

      Your Answer: Nothing per oral regimen

      Explanation:

      In this patient the cause for hypokalaemia is insufficient consumption of potassium as she is nil-per mouth with no intravenous supplementation. Parenteral nutrition has been used for comatose patients, although enteral feeding is usually preferable, and less prone to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      75
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic...

    Correct

    • Arterial blood gas analysis of a man admitted with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) showed the following: pH = 7.28, p(CO2) = 65.5 mmHg, p(O2)= 60 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 30.5 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis with high p(CO2) and normal standard bicarbonate indicates respiratory acidosis, commonly seen in acute worsening of COPD patients. Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with a low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves:

      Your Answer: Direct lysis of the clot

      Correct Answer: Direct conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

      Explanation:

      Streptokinase is an enzyme that is produced by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus and is an effective and cost efficient method for the dissolution of a clot used in cases of MI and pulmonary embolism. It works by directly converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down the blood components in the clot and fibrin, dissolving the clot. Streptokinase is a bacterial product and thus the body will develop immunity against it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer: High serum concentration of glucose

      Correct Answer: Low serum concentration of glucose

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia whereas hyperglycaemia is a stimulus for insulin release. Glucagon secretion also occurs in response to high levels of amino acids. Somatostatin inhibits glucagon secretion. Parasympathetic stimulation increases pancreatic acinar secretion, but not of α-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which is a feature of the action of insulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is a feature of the action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits potassium entry into cells

      Correct Answer: Promotes protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by the beta-cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Its actions include:

      – promoting uptake of glucose into cells

      – glycogen synthesis (glycogenesis)

      – protein synthesis

      – stimulation of lipogenesis (fat formation).

      – driving potassium into cells – used to treat hyperkaelamia.

      Parathyroid hormone and activated vitamin D are the principal hormones involved in calcium/phosphate metabolism, rather than insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease, is undergoing haemodialysis. She has normocytic...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with end-stage renal disease, is undergoing haemodialysis. She has normocytic normochromic anaemia. What is the best treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      E erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone that is released by the kidney. It is responsible for the regulation of red blood cell production in the body. It can be made using recombinant technology and is used in the treatment of anaemia of chronic renal failure and in patients under going chemotherapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The anatomical dead space in a patient with low oxygen saturation, is 125...

    Incorrect

    • The anatomical dead space in a patient with low oxygen saturation, is 125 ml, with a tidal volume of 500 ml and pa(CO2) of 40 mm Hg. The dead space was determined by Fowler's method. If we assume that the patient's lungs are healthy, what will his mixed expired CO2 tension [pE(CO2)] be?

      Your Answer: 10 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 30 mmHg

      Explanation:

      According to Bohr’s equation, VD/VT = (pA(CO2) − pE(CO2))/pA(CO2), where pE(CO2) is mixed expired CO2 and pA(CO2) is alveolar CO2pressure. Normally, the pa(CO2) is virtually identical to pA(CO2). Thus, VD/VT = (pa(CO2)) − pE(CO2)/pa(CO2). By Fowler’s method, VD/VT= 0.25. In the given problem, (pa(CO2) − pE(CO2)/pa(CO2) = (40 − pE(CO2)/40 = 0.25. Thus, pE(CO2) = 30 mmHg. If there is a great perfusion/ventilation inequality, pE(CO2) could be significantly lower than 30 mm Hg, and the patient’s physiological dead space would exceed the anatomical dead space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the site of action of the drug omeprazole?

      Your Answer: H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      H+/K+-ATPase or ‘proton pump’ located in the canalicular membrane plays a major role in acid secretion. The ATPase here is magnesium-dependent. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor and blocks H+/K+- ATPase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - QT interval in the electrocardiogram of a healthy individual is normally: ...

    Incorrect

    • QT interval in the electrocardiogram of a healthy individual is normally:

      Your Answer: 0.10 s

      Correct Answer: 0.40 s

      Explanation:

      QT interval extends from beginning of the QRS complex till the end of he T-wave and normally lasts for 0.40 s. It is important in the diagnosis of long-QT and short-QT syndrome. The QT interval varies on the basis of heart rate and may need to be corrected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose? ...

    Correct

    • Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      In relation to the morphology of the kidney as a whole, the convoluted segments of the proximal tubules are confined entirely to the renal cortex. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate and some other solutes are reabsorbed via secondary active transport in the proximal renal tubule through co-transport channels driven by the sodium gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In a hypertensive patient with secondary hyperaldosteronism, aldosterone is released mainly in response...

    Correct

    • In a hypertensive patient with secondary hyperaldosteronism, aldosterone is released mainly in response to:

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Secondary hyperaldosteronism in hypertension is either due to primary renin overproduction by the kidneys or renin overproduction secondary to decreased renal blood flow. The main stimulus for aldosterone release are adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), angiotensin II and high plasma K+ levels. Low plasma Na+ might also stimulate the adrenal cortex. Fluid overload will reduce aldosterone secretion. Atrial natriuretic peptide is secreted under conditions of expanded extracellular volume and will not lead to aldosterone secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following variables are needed to calculate inspiratory reserve volume of a patient?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume

      Explanation:

      Vital capacity = inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume. Thus, inspiratory reserve volume can be calculated if tidal volume, vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume are known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count =...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 90 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 41 g/dl. Further examination of blood sample revealed increased osmotic fragility of the erythrocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s findings?

      Your Answer: Iron-deficiency anaemia

      Correct Answer: Spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Spherocytes are small rounded RBCs. It is due to an inherited defect of the RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins. Membrane blebs form that are lost over time and cells become round instead of biconcave. As it is a normochromic anaemia, the MCV is normal. it is diagnosed by osmotic fragility test which reveals increased fragility in a hypotonic solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      164.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This...

    Incorrect

    • A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Vasovagal reflex

      Correct Answer: Gastrocolic reflex

      Explanation:

      The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that involves increase in colonic motility in response to stretch in the stomach and by-products of digestion in the small intestine. It is shown to be uneven in its distribution throughout the colon, with the sigmoid colon affected more than the right side of the colon in terms of a phasic response. Various neuropeptides have been proposed as mediators of this reflex, such as serotonin, neurotensin, cholecystokinin and gastrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?...

    Correct

    • The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?

      Your Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

      Explanation:

      One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      113.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the coagulation cascade, Factor VII:

      Your Answer: Is activated by von Willebrand factor

      Correct Answer: Is a serine protease

      Explanation:

      Factor VII (FVII) is a zymogen for a vitamin K-dependent serine protease essential for the initiation of blood coagulation. It is synthesized primarily in the liver and circulates in plasma. Within the liver, hepatocytes are involved in the synthesis of most blood coagulation factors, such as fibrinogen, prothrombin, factor V, VII, IX, X, XI, XII, as well as protein C and S, and antithrombin, whereas liver sinusoidal endothelial cells produce factor VIII and von Willebrand factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the normal amount of oxygen that is carried in the blood?...

    Correct

    • What is the normal amount of oxygen that is carried in the blood?

      Your Answer: 20 ml oxygen/100 ml blood

      Explanation:

      Normally, 100 ml of blood contains 15g haemoglobin and a single gram of haemoglobin can bind to 1.34 ml oxygen when 100% saturated. Thus, 15 × 1.34 = 20 ml O2/100 ml blood. The haemoglobin in venous blood that is leaving the tissues is about 75% saturated with oxygen, and hence it carries about 15 ml O2/100 ml venous blood. This implies that for each 10 ml of blood, 5 ml oxygen is transported to the tissues. With a p(O2) > 100 mm Hg, only 3 ml of oxygen is dissolved in every one litre of plasma. By increasing the pA(O2) by breathing 100% oxygen, one can add an extra amount of oxygen in the plasma, but the amount of oxygen carried by haemoglobin will not increase significantly as it is already > 95% saturated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation,...

    Incorrect

    • The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation, the buffering capacity of the system is at maximum when the number of free anions compared with undissociated acid is:

      Your Answer: Two times more

      Correct Answer: Equal

      Explanation:

      In 1908, Lawrence Joseph Henderson wrote an equation describing the use of carbonic acid as a buffer solution. Later, Karl Albert Hasselbalch re-expressed that formula in logarithmic terms, resulting in the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. The equation is also useful for estimating the pH of a buffer solution and finding the equilibrium pH in acid–base reactions. Two equivalent forms of the equation are: pH = pKa + log10 [A–]/[HA] or pH = pKa + log10 [base]/[acid]. Here, pKa is − log10(Ka) where Ka is the acid dissociation constant, that is: pKa = –log10(Ka) = –log10 ([H3 O+][A–]/[HA]) for the reaction: HA + H2 O ≈ A– + H3 O+ In these equations, A– denotes the ionic form of the relevant acid. Bracketed quantities such as [base] and [acid] denote the molar concentration of the quantity enclosed. Maximum buffering capacity is found when pH = pKa or when the number of free anions to undissociated acid is equal and buffer range is considered to be at a pH = pKa ± 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      58.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following cytokines produced by the T cell induce MHC-II proteins?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cytokines produced by the T cell induce MHC-II proteins?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-1

      Correct Answer: γ-Interferon

      Explanation:

      Interferons elicit a non-specific antiviral activity by inducing specific RNA synthesis and expression of proteins in neighbouring cells. Common interferon inducers are viruses, double-stranded RNA and micro-organisms. INF-γ is produced mainly by CD4+, CD8+ T cells and less commonly by B cells and natural killer cells. INF-γ has antiviral and antiparasitic activity but its main biological activity appears to be immunomodulatory. Among its many functions are activation of macrophages and enhanced expression of MHC-II proteins or macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be...

    Correct

    • Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be seen in:

      Your Answer: Cerebellar disease

      Explanation:

      The given symptoms are seen in diseases affecting the cerebellum. A cerebellar tremor is a slow tremor that occurs at the end of a purposeful movement. It is seen in cerebellar disease, such as multiple sclerosis or some inherited degenerative disorders and chronic alcoholism. Classically, tremors are produced in the same side of the body as a one-sided lesion. Cerebellar disease can also result in a wing-beating’ type of tremor called rubral or Holmes’ tremor – a combination of rest, action and postural tremors. Other signs of cerebellar disease include dysarthria (speech problems), nystagmus (rapid, involuntary rolling of the eyes), gait problems and postural tremor of the trunk and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis?

      Your Answer: Reticulocytes

      Correct Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Plasma cell are memory cells. After the antigen Is engulfed by the B cells it is presented to the CD4+ helper cells via the MCH II receptor and this leads to their activation which in turn stimulates the B cells to form antibodies against that specific antigen. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells also called memory cells that get activated after subsequent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood...

    Incorrect

    • There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood to interstitial fluid of the muscle cells. Which of the following mechanisms best describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Active transport through endothelial cell membranes

      Correct Answer: Diffusion through channels between endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Capillaries are the smallest of the body’s blood vessels, measuring 5–10 μm and they help to enable the exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and many other nutrients and waste substances between the blood and the tissues surrounding them. The walls of capillaries are composed of only a single layer of cells, the endothelium. Ion channels are pore-forming proteins that help to establish and control the small voltage gradient that exists across the plasma membrane of all living cells by allowing the flow of ions down their electrochemical gradient. An ion channel is an integral membrane protein or more typically an assembly of several proteins. The archetypal channel pore is just one or two atoms wide at its narrowest point. It conducts a specific ion such as sodium or potassium and conveys them through the membrane in single file.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin?

      Your Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Making up 4-5% of total body weight, the skin receives approximately 2% of cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Calculate the stroke volume in an adult male with the following parameters:

    Heart...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the stroke volume in an adult male with the following parameters:

      Heart rate 70 beats/min

      Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min

      Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi

      Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min

      Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg

      Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg

      Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.

      Your Answer: 75 ml

      Correct Answer: 90 ml

      Explanation:

      Fick’s principle states that, VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. Cardiac output is also given by product of stroke volume and heart rate. Thus, stroke volume = cardiac output / heart rate = 6.25/70 × 1000 stroke volume = 90 ml approximately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves...

    Correct

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer: First heart sound

      Explanation:

      In the cardiac cycle, the closing of the atrioventricular (AV) valves coincides with the onset of ventricular systole. This event marks the beginning of the isovolumetric contraction phase, where the ventricles begin to contract, but the volume of blood in the ventricles remains the same because both the AV valves and the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary valves) are closed. The closing of the AV valves produces the first heart sound, known as “S1” or “lub.”

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Correct

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse....

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse. Her ECG showed absent P-waves with irregular RR interval. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common cardiac arrhythmias. It is often asymptomatic but may present with symptoms of palpitations, fainting, chest pain and heart failure. Characteristic findings are: absence of P-waves, unorganised electrical activity in their place, irregularity of RR interval due to irregular conduction of impulses to the ventricles and if paroxysmal AF is suspected, episodes may be documented with the use of Holter monitoring

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during a 24-h period:

      Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min

      Urine inulin: 0.5 mg/ml

      Plasma inulin: 0.02 mg/ml

      Urine urea: 220 mmol/l

      Plasma urea: 5 mmol/l.

      What is the urea clearance?

      Your Answer: 320 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 88 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Urea is reabsorbed in the inner medullary collecting ducts of the nephrons. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. So, glomerular filtration rate = (0.220 × 2. 0)/0.005 = 88 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following diuretics promotes diuresis by opposing the action of aldosterone?

      Your Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretic

      Explanation:

      The term potassium-sparing refers to an effect rather than a mechanism or location. Potassium-sparing diuretics act by either antagonising the action of aldosterone (spironolactone) or inhibiting Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubules (amiloride). This group of drugs is often used as adjunctive therapy, in combination with other drugs, for the management of chronic heart failure. Spironolactone, the first member of the class, is also used in the management of hyperaldosteronism (including Conn’s syndrome) and female hirsutism (due to additional antiandrogen actions).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following can occur even in the absence of brainstem co-ordination?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can occur even in the absence of brainstem co-ordination?

      Your Answer: Swallowing

      Correct Answer: Gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Although gastric emptying is under both neural and hormonal control, it does not require brainstem co-ordination. Increased motility of the orad stomach (decreased distensibility) or of the distal stomach (increased peristalsis), decreased pyloric tone, decreased duodenal motility or a combination of these, all increase the rate of gastric emptying. The major control mechanism for gastric emptying is through duodenal gastric feedback. The duodenum has receptors for the presence of acid, carbohydrate, fat and protein digestion products, osmolarity different from that of plasma, and distension. Activating these receptors decreases the rate of gastric emptying. Neural mechanisms involve both enteric and vagal pathways and a vagotomy impairs the gastric emptying regulation. CCK (cholecystokinin) slows gastric emptying at physiological levels of the hormone. Gastrin, secretin and glucose-1-phosphate also slow gastric emptying, but require higher doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - In the glomerulus of the kidney, the mesangium is a structure associated with the capillaries. It has extraglomerular mesangial...

    Incorrect

    • In the glomerulus of the kidney, the mesangium is a structure associated with the capillaries. It has extraglomerular mesangial cells that:

      Your Answer: Phagocytose immunoglobulins

      Correct Answer: Form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in combination with the macula densa and juxtaglomerular cells

      Explanation:

      The mesangium is an inner layer of the glomerulus, within the basement membrane surrounding the glomerular capillaries. The mesangial cells are phagocytic and secrete the amorphous basement membrane-like material known as the mesangial matrix. They are typically separated from the lumen of the capillaries by endothelial cells. The other type of cells in the mesangium are the extraglomerular mesangial cells which form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in combination with two other types of cells: the macula densa of the distal convoluted tubule and juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole. This apparatus controls blood pressure through the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      71.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 79-year-old has been bedridden for 2 months after suffering from a stroke....

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old has been bedridden for 2 months after suffering from a stroke. She suddenly developed shortness of breath and chest pain, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following is most likely to increase in this case?

      Your Answer: Ventilation/perfusion ratio

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a blockage of an artery in the lungs by an embolus that has travelled from elsewhere in the body through the bloodstream. The change in cardiopulmonary function is proportional to the extent of the obstruction, which varies with the size and number of emboli obstructing the pulmonary arteries. The resulting physiological changes may include pulmonary hypertension with right ventricular failure and shock, dyspnoea with tachypnoea and hyperventilation, arterial hypoxaemia and pulmonary infarction. Consequent alveolar hyperventilation is manifested by a lowered pa(CO2). After occlusion of the pulmonary artery, areas of the lung are ventilated but not perfused, resulting in wasted ventilation with an increased ventilation/perfusion ratio – the physiological hallmark of PE – contributing to a further hyperventilatory state. The risk of blood clots is increased by cancer, prolonged bed rest, smoking, stroke, certain genetic conditions, oestrogen-based medication, pregnancy, obesity, and post surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the...

    Incorrect

    • After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the peripheral blood will become an activated macrophage in this granuloma?

      Your Answer: Lymphocyte

      Correct Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are leukocytes that protect the body against infections and move to the site of infection within 8-12 hours to deal with it. They are produced in the bone marrow and shortly after being produced are released into the blood stream where they circulate until an infection is detected. When called upon they leave the circulation and transform into macrophages within the tissue fluid and thus gain the capability to phagocytose the offending substance. Monocyte count is part of a complete blood picture. Monocytosis is the state of excess monocytes in the peripheral blood and may be indicative of various disease states. Examples of processes that can increase a monocyte count include: • chronic inflammation • stress response • hyperadrenocorticism • immune-mediated disease • pyogranulomatous disease • necrosis • red cell regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following measurements: oxygen uptake 200 ml/min, oxygen concentration in the peripheral vein 7 vol%, oxygen concentration in the pulmonary artery 10 vol% and oxygen concentration in the aorta 15 vol%.

      Your Answer: 3500 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 4000 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The Fick’s principle states that the uptake of a substance by an organ equals the arteriovenous difference of the substance multiplied by the blood flowing through the organ. We can thus calculate the pulmonary blood flow with pulmonary arterial (i.e., mixed venous) oxygen content, aortic oxygen content and oxygen uptake. The pulmonary blood flow, systemic blood flow and cardiac output can be considered the same assuming there are no intracardiac shunts. Thus, we can calculate the cardiac output. Cardiac output = oxygen uptake/(aortic − mixed venous oxygen content) = 200 ml/min/(15 ml O2/100 ml − 10 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/(5 ml O2/100 ml) = 200 ml/min/0.05 = 4000 ml/min.

      It is crucial to remember to use pulmonary arterial oxygen content and not peripheral vein oxygen content, when calculating the cardiac output by Fick’s method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Production of pain is most likely associated with: ...

    Correct

    • Production of pain is most likely associated with:

      Your Answer: Substance P

      Explanation:

      Substance P is a short-chain polypeptide that functions as a neurotransmitter and as a neuromodulator, and is thus, a neuropeptide. It has been linked with pain regulation, mood disorders, stress, reinforcement, neurogenesis, respiratory rhythm, neurotoxicity, nausea and emesis. It is also a potent vasodilator as it brings about release of nitric oxide from the endothelium. Its release can also cause hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism in fighting infection?

      Your Answer: First line of defence → lymphocytes

      Correct Answer: Specific cellular mechanism → cytotoxic T cells

      Explanation:

      The immune system has certain levels of defence against pathogens. First line includes simple barriers such as skin, mucosa and stomach acid that prevent the pathogen from entering into the body. If this barrier is breached then the innate immune system is activated which includes leukocytes (macrophages, neutrophils, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils, natural killer cells). If the pathogens invade the second layer of defence then the third layer, adaptive immunity is activated, which includes B and T lymphocytes. B cells provide a humoral response whereas cytotoxic T cells have specific cellular mechanisms. They maintain a memory of past infections and are activated faster following a recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops acute renal failure. Which of the following physiological abnormalities of acute renal failure will be most life threatening for this patient?

      Your Answer: Sepsis

      Correct Answer: Acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acute renal failure (ARF) is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys, resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine) and non-nitrogenous waste products that are normally excreted by the kidney. This accumulation may be accompanied by metabolic disturbances, such as metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia, changes in body fluid balance and effects on many other organ systems. Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia are the two most serious biochemical manifestations of acute renal failure and may require medical treatment with sodium bicarbonate administration and antihyperkalaemic measures. If not appropriately treated these can be life-threatening. ARF is diagnosed on the basis of characteristic laboratory findings, such as elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, or inability of the kidneys to produce sufficient amounts of urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 31-year-old woman is diagnosed with adrenal hyperplasia, and laboratory samples are taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman is diagnosed with adrenal hyperplasia, and laboratory samples are taken to measure serum aldosterone and another substance. Which is most likely to be the other test that was prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Plasma adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)

      Correct Answer: Plasma renin

      Explanation:

      The evaluation of a patient in whom hyperaldosteronism is first to determine that hyperaldosteronism is present (serum aldosterone) and, if it is present, to differentiate primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism. The aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR) is the most sensitive means of differentiating primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism as it is abnormally increased in primary hyperaldosteronism, and decreased or normal but with high renin levels in secondary hyperaldosteronism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of choice for parenteral nutrition is:

      Your Answer: Darrow’s solution

      Correct Answer: Crystalline amino acids

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition (TPN), is the practice of feeding a person intravenously, circumventing the gut. It is normally used in the following situations: surgery, when feeding by mouth is not possible, when a person’s digestive system cannot absorb nutrients due to chronic disease or if a person’s nutrient requirement cannot be met by enteral feeding and supplementation. A sterile bag of nutrient solution, between 500 ml and 4L, is provided. The pump infuses a small amount (0.1–10 ml/h) continuously to keep the vein open. The nutrient solution consists of water, glucose, salts, amino acids, vitamins and sometimes emulsified fats. Ideally each patient is assessed individually before commencing on parenteral nutrition, and a team consisting of doctors, nurses, clinical pharmacists and dietitians evaluate the patient’s individual data and decide what formula to use and at what rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:...

    Incorrect

    • Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:

      Your Answer: Reduced absorption of water

      Correct Answer: Reduced active transport of sodium

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henlé leads from the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule. Its primary function uses a counter current multiplier mechanism in the medulla to reabsorb water and ions from the urine. It can be divided into four parts:

      1. Descending limb of loop of Henlé – low permeability to ions and urea, while being highly permeable to water

      2. Thin ascending limb of loop of Henlé – not permeable to water, but it is permeable to ions

      3. Medullary thick ascending limb of loop of Henlé – sodium (Na+), potassium (K+) and chloride (Cl–) ions are reabsorbed by active transport. K+ is passively transported along its concentration gradient through a K+ channel in the basolateral aspect of the cells, back into the lumen of the ascending limb.

      4. The cortical thick ascending limb – the site of action where loop diuretics such as furosemide block the K+/Na+/2Cl− co-transporters = reduced active transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice?

      Your Answer: Common bile duct obstruction if the serum amino transferases are elevated and alkaline phosphatase is low

      Correct Answer: Hepatic disease if plasma albumin is low and serum aminotransferase elevations > 500 units

      Explanation:

      Jaundice can occur due to any of the possible causes and treatment depends upon diagnosing the correct condition. Mild hyperbilirubinemia with normal levels of aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase is often unconjugated (e.g., due to haemolysis or Gilbert’s syndrome rather than hepatobiliary disease). Moderate or severe hyperbilirubinemia along with increased urinary bilirubin (bilirubinuria), high alkaline phosphatase or aminotransferase levels suggest hepatobiliary disease. Hyperbilirubinemia produced by any hepatobiliary disease is largely conjugated. In this case, other blood tests include hepatitis serology for suspected hepatitis, prothrombin time (PT) or international normalised ratio (INR), albumin and globulin levels, and antimitochondrial antibody levels (suspected primary biliary cirrhosis). Low albumin and high globulin levels suggest chronic rather than acute liver disease. In cases where there is only a an elevation of alkaline phosphatase, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) levels should be checked – the levels of which will be found high in hepatobiliary disease, but not in bone disorder which can also lead to elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. In diseases of hepatobiliary origin, aminotransferase elevations > 500 units suggest a hepatocellular cause, whereas disproportionate increases of alkaline phosphatase (e.g., alkaline phosphatase > 3 times normal and aminotransferase < 200 units) suggest cholestasis. Because hepatobiliary disease alone rarely causes bilirubin levels > 30 mg/dl, higher levels are suggestive of a combination of severe hepatobiliary disease and haemolysis or renal dysfunction. Imaging is best for diagnosing infiltrative and cholestatic causes of jaundice. Liver biopsy is rarely needed, but can be of use in intrahepatic cholestasis and in some types of hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is: ...

    Correct

    • One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is:

      Your Answer: Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase

      Explanation:

      Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) may be the only laboratory abnormality in patients who are dependent on alcohol. Heavy drinkers may also have an increased MCV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Physiology
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the...

    Incorrect

    • Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the skeletal neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine:

      Your Answer: Suppresses noradrenaline secretion

      Correct Answer: Causes postsynaptic depolarisation

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic membrane into the cleft where it binds to the ion gated channels on the post synaptic membrane, causing them to open. This results in sodium entering into the fibre and further depolarizing it, creating an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:

      Your Answer: Loss of vision

      Correct Answer: Loss of satiety

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer: Motor aphasia

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Multiple cells were labelled using a fluorescent dye that doesn’t cross the cell...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple cells were labelled using a fluorescent dye that doesn’t cross the cell membrane. One cell in the middle was bleached with a light that destroys the dye, but the cell soon recovers its stain. The presence of which structures best explains this?

      Your Answer: Desmosomes

      Correct Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      Gap junctions are attachments between cells that permit intercellular communication e.g. they permit current flow and electrical coupling between myocardial cells. They allow direct electrical transmission among cells and also permit certain substance to pass through as well. They are either homotypic, formed by two identical hemichannels or heterotypic, formed by different hemichannels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was...

    Incorrect

    • After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was a known case of diabetic nephropathy had persistent metabolic acidosis. The patient appeared well perfused, with normal vital signs and normal fluid balance. Investigations revealed:

      Sodium = 132 mmol/l

      Potassium = 6.6 mmol/l

      Creatinine = 185 μmol/l (2.16 mg/dl)

      Chloride = 109 μmol/l

      8am cortisol = 500 nmol/l (18 μg/dl)

      pH = 7.29, p(CO2) = 27 mmHg

      p(O2) = 107 mmHg

      standard bicarbonate = 12 mmol/l.

      What is the likely causes of his acidosis?

      Your Answer: Bowel perforation

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis here is due to low bicarbonate. The low p(CO2) is seen in compensation. The anion gap is normal, ruling out intra-abdominal ischaemia (which leads to metabolic acidosis). If it was a gastrointestinal aetiology, low potassium would be seen. The history of diabetic nephropathy predisposes to renal tubular acidosis. Type 4 (hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism) is associated with high potassium and is found in diabetic and hypertensive renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of complex foodstuffs?

      Your Answer: Oxidation

      Correct Answer: Hydrolysis

      Explanation:

      Breakdown of complex food into simpler compounds is achieved by hydrolysis, with the help of different enzymes specific for different compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A blood sample of a 58 year old male patient, who underwent an...

    Incorrect

    • A blood sample of a 58 year old male patient, who underwent an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, was sent to the laboratory. The laboratory technician said that the patient’s blood agglutinates with antisera anti-A and anti-D, while the patient’s serum agglutinates cells of blood group B. What is the blood group of this patient?

      Your Answer: O negative

      Correct Answer: A positive

      Explanation:

      Group A – has only the A antigen on red cells (and B antibody in the plasma)

      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)

      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a so-called Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. In this scenario the person has blood group A+ as he has A antigen, anti B antibody and Rh antigen

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Post-total gastrectomy, there will be a decreased production of which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Post-total gastrectomy, there will be a decreased production of which of the following enzymes?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Correct Answer: Pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsin is a protease that is released from the gastric chief cells and acts to degrade proteins into peptides. Released as pepsinogen, it is activated by hydrochloric acid and into pepsin itself. Gastrin and the vagus nerve trigger the release of pepsinogen and HCl when a meal is ingested. Pepsin functions optimally in an acidic environment, especially at a pH of 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following substances will enhance the activity of antithrombin III? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following substances will enhance the activity of antithrombin III?

      Your Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Antithrombin III is a glycoprotein that inactivates multiple enzymes involved in the coagulation system. It inactivates factor X, factor IX, factor II, factor VII, factor XI and factor XII. Its activity is greatly increased by the action of heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer: Contains more amino acids

      Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      54.8
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all...

    Incorrect

    • Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all his life and is suspected to have pulmonary fibrosis reveals the following: FEV1 of 75% (normal > 65%), arterial oxygen saturation 92%, alveolar ventilation 6000 ml/min at a tidal volume of 600 ml and a breathing rate of 12 breaths/min. There are also pathological changes in lung compliance and residual volume. Calculate his anatomical dead space.

      Your Answer: 150 ml

      Correct Answer: 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Dead space refers to inhaled air that does not take part in gas exchange. Because of this dead space, taking deep breaths slowly is more effective for gas exchange than taking quick, shallow breaths where a large proportion is dead space. Use of a snorkel by a diver increases the dead space marginally. Anatomical dead space refers to the gas in conducting areas such as mouth and trachea, and is roughly 150 ml (2.2 ml/kg body weight). This corresponds to a third of the tidal volume (400-500 ml). It can be measured by Fowler’s method, a nitrogen wash-out technique. It is posture-dependent and increases with increase in tidal volume. Physiological dead space is equal to the anatomical dead space plus the alveolar dead space, where alveolar dead space is the area in the alveoli where no effective exchange takes place due to poor blood flow in capillaries. This physiological dead space is very small normally (< 5 ml) but can increase in lung diseases. Physiological dead space can be measured by Bohr’s method. Total ventilation per minute (minute ventilation) is given by the product of tidal volume and the breathing rate. Here, the total ventilation is 600 ml times 12 breaths/min = 7200 ml/min. The problem mentions alveolar ventilation to be 6000 ml/min. Thus, the difference between the alveolar ventilation and total ventilation is 7200 – 6000 ml/min = 1200 ml/min, or 100 ml per breath at 12 breaths per min. This 100 ml is the dead space volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure?

      Your Answer: Unchanged

      Correct Answer: +10 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      To determine compliance of the respiratory system, changes in transmural pressures (in and out) immediately across the lung or chest cage (or both) are measured simultaneously with changes in lung or thoracic cavity volume. Changes in lung or thoracic cage volume are determined using a spirometer with transmural pressures measured by pressure transducers. For the lung alone, transmural pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar (pA; inside) and intrapleural (ppl; outside) pressure. To calculate chest cage compliance, transmural pressure is ppl (inside) minus atmospheric pressure (pB; outside). For the combined lung–chest cage, transmural pressure or transpulmonary pressure is computed as pA – pB. pA pressure is determined by having the subject deeply inhale a measured volume of air from a spirometer. Under physiological conditions the transpulmonary or recoil pressure is always positive; intrapleural pressure is always negative and relatively large, while alveolar pressure moves from slightly negative to slightly positive as a person breathes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Where is factor VIII predominantly synthesised? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is factor VIII predominantly synthesised?

      Your Answer: Hepatocytes

      Correct Answer: Vascular endothelium

      Explanation:

      Factor VIII is an important part of the coagulation cascade. Deficiency causes haemophilia A. It is synthesised predominantly by the vascular endothelium and is not affected by liver disease. In the circulation it is bound to von Willebrand factor and it forms a stable complex with it. It is activated by thrombin or factor Xa and acts as a co factor to factor IXa to activate factor X which is a co factor to factor Va. Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen in fibrin and forms a meshwork to trap RBC and platelets to form a clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline is produced by the zona reticularis

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone is producd by the zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The secretions of the adrenal glands by zone are:

      Zona glomerulosa – aldosterone

      Zona fasciculata – cortisol and testosterone

      Zona reticularis – oestradiol and progesterone

      Adrenal medulia – adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following can lead to haemolytic anaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can lead to haemolytic anaemia?

      Your Answer: Living at high altitude

      Correct Answer: Presence of haemoglobin S

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin S is an abnormal type of haemoglobin seen in sickle cell anaemia. This allows for the haemoglobin to crystalize within the RBC upon exposure to low partial pressures of oxygen. This results in rupture of the RBCs as they pass through microcirculation, especially in the spleen. This can cause blockage of the vessel down stream and ischaemic death of tissues, accompanied by severe pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Which of the following physiological changes will you see in a young man...

    Correct

    • Which of the following physiological changes will you see in a young man who has been trekking in the Himalayas for 3 years?

      Your Answer: Increased renal excretion of HCO3 –

      Explanation:

      The atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes as compared with sea level. This leads to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen. Once 2100 m (7000 feet) of altitude is reached, there is a drop in saturation of oxyhaemoglobin. The oxygen saturation of haemoglobin determines the oxygen content in the blood. The body physiological tries to adapt to high altitude by acclimatization. Immediate effects include hyperventilation, fluid loss (due to a decreased thirst drive), increase in heart rate and slightly lowered stroke volume. Long term effects include lower lactate production, compensatory alkali loss in urine, decrease in plasma volume, increased erythropoietin release and red cell mass, increased haematocrit, higher concentration of capillaries in striated muscle tissue, increase in myoglobin, increase in mitochondria, increase in aerobic enzyme concentration such as 2,3-DPG and pulmonary vasoconstriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where? ...

    Correct

    • Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where?

      Your Answer: In the ileum

      Explanation:

      90 – 95% of the bile salts are absorbed from the small intestine (mostly terminal ileum and then excreted again from the liver. This is known as the enterohepatic circulation. The entire pool recycles twice per meal and approximately 6 to 8 times per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 65-year old patient with altered bowl movement experienced the worsening of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old patient with altered bowl movement experienced the worsening of shortness of breath and exertional chest pains over the course of 8 weeks. Examination shows pallor and jugular venous distension. Furthermore, a test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show:

      Haemoglobin 7.4 g/dl

      Mean corpuscular volume 70 fl Leukocyte count 5400/mm3

      Platelet count 580 000/mm3 Erythrocyte sedimentation 33 mm/h

      A blood smear shows hypochromic, microcytic RBCs with moderate poikilocytosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Folate deficiency anaemia

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is the most common type of anaemia. It can occur due to deficiency of iron due to decreased intake or due to faulty absorption. An MCV less than 80 will indicated iron deficiency anaemia. On the smear the RBC will be microcytic hypochromic and will also show piokilocytosis. iron profiles tests are important to make a diagnosis. Clinically the patient will be pale and lethargic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a potential cause of a positive D-dimer assay?

      Your Answer: Deep venous thrombosis

      Explanation:

      A D-dimer test is performed to detect and diagnose thrombotic conditions and thrombosis. A negative result would rule out thrombosis and a positive result although not diagnostic, is highly suspicious of thrombotic conditions like a deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism as well as DIC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a healthy individual?

      Your Answer: 0.50 0 0.55 s

      Correct Answer: 0.12–0.20 s

      Explanation:

      PR interval extends from the beginning of the P-wave until the beginning of the QRS complex. The normal duration of the PR interval is 0.12-0.20 s. It can be prolonged in first degree heart block, and reduced in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form? ...

    Correct

    • Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in various forms:

      – Bicarbonate (80–90%)

      – Carbamino compounds (5–10%)

      – Physically dissolved in solution (5%).

      Carbon dioxide is carried on the haemoglobin molecule as carbamino-haemoglobin; carboxyhaemoglobin is the combination of haemoglobin with carbon monoxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory; Cardiovascular
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Work of breathing (WOB) is the energy expended to inhale and exhale a breathing gas. Normally, maximal amount of work...

    Correct

    • Work of breathing (WOB) is the energy expended to inhale and exhale a breathing gas. Normally, maximal amount of work of breathing is required to overcome:

      Your Answer: Elastic lung compliance

      Explanation:

      The forces of elastance (compliance), frictional resistance and inertia have been identified as the forces that oppose lung inflation and deflation. The normal relaxed state of the lung and chest is partially empty. Further exhalation requires muscular work. Inhalation is an active process requiring work. About 60–66% of the total work performed by the respiratory muscles is used to overcome the elastic or compliance characteristics of the lung–chest cage, 30–35% is used to overcome frictional resistance and only 2–5% of the work is used for inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following will be a likely sequelae of complete ileal resection?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will be a likely sequelae of complete ileal resection?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      The ileum is a part of the small intestine and has a pH of around 7-8 (neutral or slightly alkaline). Its main function is absorption of products of digestion. The ileal wall has multiple villi, which in turn have numerous microvilli. This increases the surface area available for absorption significantly. The cells lining the ileum contain multiple enzymes such as protease and carbohydrase, which aid in the final stages of digestion. Villi contain lacteals which absorb the products of fat digestion, fatty acids and glycerol. Thus, ileal resection will lead to their decreased absorption and increased fat content in the stool. The ileum is also responsible for absorption of vitamin B12.

      Maximum water absorption occurs in the colon followed by the jejunum. Hence, ileal resection is less likely to lead to fluid volume deficiency. Also, most minerals (like calcium, iron etc.) are absorbed in the duodenum, and thus will not be affected by ileal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen...

    Incorrect

    • When the pitch of a sound increases, what is the physiological response seen in the listener?

      Your Answer: A greater number of hair cells become activated

      Correct Answer: The location of maximal basilar membrane displacement moves toward the base of the cochlea

      Explanation:

      An increase in the frequency of sound waves results in a change in the position of maximal displacement of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. Low pitch sound produces maximal displacement towards the cochlear apex and greatest activation of hair cells there. With an increasing pitch, the site of greatest displacement moves towards the cochlear base. However, increased amplitude of displacement, increase in the number of activated hair cells, increased frequency of discharge of units in the auditory nerve and increase in the range of frequencies to which such units respond, are all seen in increases in the intensity or a sound stimulus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 80–100 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 31–37 g/dl. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s erythrocytes:

      Your Answer: Normal MCV

      Explanation:

      MCV is the mean corpuscular volume and it is calculated from the haematocrit and the RBC count. It is normally 90 fl. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) [g/dl] = haemoglobin [g/dl]/haematocrit = 11/0.27 = 41 g/dl and is higher than normal range (32 to 36 g/dL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - For calculation of cardiac output by Fick's principle, which of the following vessels...

    Incorrect

    • For calculation of cardiac output by Fick's principle, which of the following vessels is the best source of venous blood to determine the arterial-to-venous oxygen tension difference?

      Your Answer: Saphenous vein

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Fick’s principle states that the total uptake (or release) of a substance by peripheral tissues is equal to the product of the blood flow to the peripheral tissues and the arterial– venous concentration difference (gradient) of the substance. It is used to measure the cardiac output, and the formula is Cardiac output = oxygen consumption divided by arteriovenous oxygen difference. Assuming there are no shunts across the pulmonary system, the pulmonary blood flow equals the systemic blood flow. The arterial and venous blood oxygen content is measured by sampling from the pulmonary artery (low oxygen content) and pulmonary vein (high oxygen content). Peripheral arterial blood is used as a surrogate for the pulmonary vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:

      Your Answer: Vitamin B6

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B3

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.

      Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.

      Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.

      Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Physiology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A patient admitted for esophagectomy showed low levels of the lightest plasma protein...

    Incorrect

    • A patient admitted for esophagectomy showed low levels of the lightest plasma protein in terms of weight. Which of the following is the lightest plasma protein:

      Your Answer: Ceruloplasmin

      Correct Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      Albumin is the most abundant and the lightest of all the plasma proteins. It maintains osmotic pressure, transports unconjugated bilirubin, thyroid hormones, fatty acids, drugs and acts as a buffer for pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - What is the result of maltase deficiency in the brush border of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the result of maltase deficiency in the brush border of the small intestine?

      Your Answer: Results in lack of absorption of lactose

      Correct Answer: Results in increased passage of maltose in stool

      Explanation:

      Maltase is an enzyme produced from the surface cells of the villi, lining the small intestine and aids in hydrolysing the disaccharide maltose, which splits into two molecules of α-glucose. It is done by breaking the glycosidic bond between the ‘first’ carbon of one glucose and the ‘fourth’ carbon of the other (a 1–4 bond). Hence, a deficiency of enzyme maltase will result in the increased passage of maltose in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic factor

      Explanation:

      Absorption of vitamin B12 is by an active transport process and occurs in the ileum. Most cobalamins are bound to proteins and are released in the stomach due to low pH and pepsin. The cobalamins then bind to R proteins, i.e. haptocorrin (HC) secreted from salivary glands and gastric juice. Another cobalamin binding protein is Intrinsic factor (IF) secreted from the gastric parietal cells. The cobalamin-HC complex is digested by pancreatic proteases in the intestinal lumen, and the free cobalamin then binds to IF. The complex then reaches a transmembrane receptor in the ileum and undergoes endocytosis. Cobalamin is then released intracellularly and binds to transcobalamin II (TC II). The newly formed complex then exits the ileal cell and enters the blood circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is: ...

    Correct

    • The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:

      Your Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.

      Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: Proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé

      Explanation:

      Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - What is the role of factor VII in coagulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the role of factor VII in coagulation?

      Your Answer: Is produced by platelets

      Correct Answer: Initiates the process of coagulation in conjunction with tissue factor

      Explanation:

      The main role of factor VII is to initiate the process of coagulation along with tissue factor (TF). TF is found in the blood vessels and is not normally exposed to the bloodstream. When a vessel is injured tissue factor is exposed to blood and circulating factor VII. Factor VII is converted to VIIa by TF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      414.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - An experiment was conducted in which the skeletal muscle protein (not smooth muscle)...

    Incorrect

    • An experiment was conducted in which the skeletal muscle protein (not smooth muscle) involved in contraction was selectively inhibited. Which protein was inhibited?

      Your Answer: ATPase

      Correct Answer: Troponin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of contraction of smooth muscles is different from that of skeletal muscles in which the contractile protein is troponin whilst in smooth muscle contraction is a protein called calmodulin. Calmodulin reacts with calcium ions and stimulates the formation of myosin crossbridges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Whilst snorkelling, a 30-year old gentleman has the respiratory rate of 10/min, tidal...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst snorkelling, a 30-year old gentleman has the respiratory rate of 10/min, tidal volume of 550 ml and an effective anatomical dead space of 250 ml. Which of the following will bring about a maximum increase in his alveolar ventilation?

      Your Answer: A 2x increase in tidal volume

      Correct Answer: A 2x increase in tidal volume and a shorter snorkel

      Explanation:

      Alveolar ventilation = respiratory rate × (tidal volume − anatomical dead space volume). Increase in respiratory rate simply causes movement of air in the anatomical dead space, with no contribution to the alveolar ventilation. By use of a shorter snorkel, the effective anatomical dead space will decrease and will cause a maximum rise in alveolar ventilation along with doubling of tidal volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the...

    Incorrect

    • If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the greatest decrease due to which of the following interventions?

      Your Answer: Exercise

      Correct Answer: Tissue cooling

      Explanation:

      With a constant blood flow to a given tissue bed, there will be an increase in oxygen extraction by the tissue with the following; an increase in tissue metabolism and oxygen requirements: warming (or fever), exercise, catecholamines and thyroxine. With cooling, the demand for oxygen decreases, leading to decreased oxygen extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      2.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General (6/22) 27%
Physiology (31/82) 38%
Fluids & Electrolytes (3/8) 38%
Respiratory (6/11) 55%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (4/10) 40%
Cardiovascular (3/9) 33%
Renal (1/8) 13%
Neurology (5/8) 63%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Respiratory; Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Passmed