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  • Question 1 - The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by: ...

    Correct

    • The best confirmatory test for Turner's syndrome is done by:

      Your Answer: Chromosomal analysis (Karyotyping)

      Explanation:

      Standard karyotyping is the best confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Turner syndrome among patients who have some doubtful clinical presentations. It is done on peripheral blood mononuclear cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What type of drug is clavulanic acid? ...

    Correct

    • What type of drug is clavulanic acid?

      Your Answer: Beta-lactamase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is most often combined with a penicillin to form Augmentin or Co-amoxiclav for greater antibiotic efficacy. The drug works by irreversibly binding to enzymes present in bacteria which posses the Beta-lactamase enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for inactivating Beta-Lactam antibiotics such as penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      138.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 26 year old women presents for her 12 week scan. She has...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old women presents for her 12 week scan. She has been pregnant once before but had a 1st trimester miscarriage. She reports no problems with this pregnancy and has had no vaginal bleeding or spotting. The scan shows no fetal cardiac activity and a small gestational sac. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Missed Miscarriage

      Explanation:

      As there has been no bleeding or expulsion of the products of conception this is a missed miscarriage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12488.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding anti-epileptic use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy, which of the following...

    Correct

    • Regarding anti-epileptic use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy, which of the following is closely associated with the development of congenital malformations?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium Valproate is known to be the most teratogenic when used in the first trimester of pregnancy. This antiepileptic increases the risk of congenital malformations including a 10-20 fold risk of neurodevelopmental defects. Though the use of antiepileptics should generally be avoided during pregnancy, carbamazepine, or newer drugs such as Lamotrigine are thought to carry less of a risk of teratogenicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with...

    Incorrect

    • Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with no sub-nuclear vacuoles. The stroma is oedematous, & a tortuous gland contains secretions. These findings are consistent with which stage of the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-secretory

      Explanation:

      During mid secretory phase, the endometrium cells undergo distension, become more tortuous and are lined by columnar cells.
      In the early proliferative phase, the glandular epithelium is cubo-columnar, while in the late proliferative phase, the glands increase in size, becoming tortuous and there is pseudostratification of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.

      Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
      Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
      FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High Coffee Consumption

      Explanation:

      The risk factors for uterine carcinoma include obesity, diabetes, Nulliparity, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of ovarian or uterine carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture

      Explanation:

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.

      The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.

      The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.

      Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the emergency department for vaginal delivery. Upon spontaneous rupture of the membranes, bradycardia and variable deceleration was noted on the fetal heart rate monitoring.
      Vaginal examination was performed and revealed cord prolapse that is still pulsating.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for emergency caesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Umbilical cord prolapse (UCP) occurs when the umbilical cord exits the cervical opening before the fetal presenting part. It is a rare obstetric emergency that carries a high rate of potential fetal morbidity and mortality. Resultant compression of the cord by the descending foetus during delivery leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia, which can result in fetal death or permanent disability.

      Certain features of pregnancy increase the risk for the development of umbilical cord prolapse by preventing appropriate engagement of the presenting part with the pelvis. These include fetal malpresentation, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, preterm rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm delivery, and fetal and cord abnormalities.

      The occurrence of fetal bradycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes should prompt immediate evaluation for potential cord prolapse.

      In overt prolapse, the cord is palpable as a pulsating structure in the vaginal vault. In occult prolapse, the cord is not visible or palpable ahead of the fetal presenting part. The definitive management of umbilical cord prolapse is expedient delivery; this is usually by caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part.

      The most likely diagnosis at this time is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is not part of the RCOG guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 12 months prior to conception

      Explanation:

      Women with Beta-Thalassaemia require significant extra input during pregnancy. Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 3 months prior to conception in these patients. NOTE Women with thalassaemia who have undergone splenectomy OR have a platelet count >600 should continue or be commenced on Aspirin (75 mg/day)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal anal sphincter

      Explanation:

      The internal anal sphincter is innervated by pelvic splanchnic nerves

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which immunoglobulin is the first to be synthesised by the neonate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which immunoglobulin is the first to be synthesised by the neonate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      Fetal production of immunoglobulin begins early on at about 10 weeks gestation with the production of IgM antibodies. Maternal IgG, which is a key component of fetal immunity is passed on to the foetus through the placenta from 12 weeks of gestation. Secretory IgA is not produced until after birth, through breast milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the typical weight of a non-pregnant premenopausal uterus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical weight of a non-pregnant premenopausal uterus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40g

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood. The uterus is 50–60 g prior to pregnancy and 1000 g by term. The volume increases from 10 ml to 5000ml approx. It is around 40g at menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a fishy-smelling, thin, white homogeneous, and offensive vaginal discharge. Under light microscopy, a sample of the discharge contains clue cells.

      Which of the following assertions about this condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a relapse rate of over 50% in 6 months

      Explanation:

      Reported cure rates for an episode of acute BV vary but have been estimated to be between 70% and 80%. Unfortunately, more than 50% of BV cases will recur at least once within the following 12 months. Because the aetiology of BV is still not entirely understood, identifying the cause of recurrent cases is challenging. Reinfection may play a role in explaining recurrent BV, but
      treatment failure is a more likely contributor. There are several theories that try to explain recurrence and persistent symptoms. The existence of a biofilm in the vagina is one such theory and is the subject of ongoing research. Biofilms occur when microorganisms adhere to surfaces. G vaginalis, one of the primary organisms

      BV is not a sexually transmitted infection. The antibiotic of choice to treat BV is Metronidazole. Reassurance is not acceptable as a means of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.

      Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.

      Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contact tracing

      Explanation:

      The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
      Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
      Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.

      MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.

      As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.

      NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.

      As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anatomical landmark used for gauging the station of the fetal head during labour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischial Spine

      Explanation:

      The ischial spine is the anatomical landmark for assessing the station of the fetal head and also placing pudendal nerve blocks. (the pudendal nerve runs posterior to the ischial spine). The ischial spine can be palpated approximately 8cm into the vagina, at 4 and 8 o’clock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is responsible for the let down mechanism that occurs during breast feeding in which the myothelial cells contract and push the milk into the ductules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 36-year-old lady comes into your office complaining of post-coital bleeding. Each sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old lady comes into your office complaining of post-coital bleeding. Each sexual activity results in 5-6 mL of blood. She had never had a cervical cancer screening. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis is normal.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do a Cervical Screening test as well liquid base cytology

      Explanation:

      Postcoital bleeding refers to spotting or bleeding unrelated to menstruation that occurs during or after sexual intercourse. It can be a sign of serious underlying pathology and is usually alarming for patients. About one-third of patients also have abnormal uterine bleeding that is not associated with coitus and about 15 percent have dyspareunia. The most serious cause of postcoital bleeding is cervical cancer. About 11 percent of women with cervical cancer present with postcoital bleeding. The patient should undergo cervical cancer screening according to local guidelines. Postcoital bleeding is not an indication for cervical cytology if previous screening tests are up-to-date and normal.

      Cervical screening and liquid based cytology are superior to transvaginal ultrasound.

      Coagulation profile can be done if cytology is normal to rule out bleeding diathesis.

      Tranexamic acid can be considered once malignancy is ruled out and cause of bleeding has been established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by sacral nerve roots S2, S3 and S4 almost immediately as they exit the spinal foramina. The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen, travels behind the sacrospinous ligament before re-entering the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is an important nerve to be aware of as it supplies sensation to the genitalia and can also be damaged/compressed at a number of places along its course. Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge that has been bothering her for the previous three months. Atrophic vagina is seen on inspection.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer should always be the first diagnosis to rule out in a 65-year-old lady with brownish vaginal discharge. The inquiry focuses on the most likely source of the symptoms, rather than the most significant diagnosis to explore.
      Blood typically causes the dark hue of vaginal discharge. The uterine cavity or the vagina can both be the source of bleeding. Only 5-10% of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding were found to have endometrial cancer. Around 60% of the women had atrophic vaginitis.

      Urogenital atrophy is caused by oestrogen insufficiency in postmenopausal women. Urogenital atrophy can cause the following symptoms:
      – Dry vaginal skin
      – Vaginal inflammation or burning
      – Vaginal lubrication is reduced during sexual activity.
      – Vulvar or vaginal pain, as well as dyspareunia (at the introitus or within the vagina)
      – Vaginal or vulvar bleeding (e.g. postcoital bleeding. fissures)
      – Vaginal discharge from the cervix (leukorrhea or yellow and malodorous)
      – A vaginal bulge or pelvic pressure
      – Symptoms of the urinary tract (e.g. urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discomfort, haematuria).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is at 39+5 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 to 41+6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 and 36+6 weeks. Only 1% of women who go into PROM have risk of having serious neonatal infections.

      Management of PROM:
      60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
      Induction is appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and more than 24 hours post rupture when labour hasn’t started.
      If < 34 weeks, induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning to conceive and has never been pregnant before. Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no history of diabetes, mental health issues, and is not taking any regular medication.

      Which of the following is considered the best recommendation to give to the patient for the prevention of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 0.4 mg daily for a minimum of one month before conception to first 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      Women who are at high risk of having babies with neural tube defects and who would benefit from higher doses of folic acid include those with certain folate-enzyme genotypes, previous pregnancies with neural tube defects, diabetes, malabsorption disorders, or obesity, or those who take antifolate medications or smoke. Such women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 24 - Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin

      Explanation:

      An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 25 - When a 75-year-old lady laughs, sneezes, coughs, or lifts big weights, she leaks...

    Incorrect

    • When a 75-year-old lady laughs, sneezes, coughs, or lifts big weights, she leaks pee. She also claims that she has the urge to pass pee 10-12 times a day, and that she can't go to the restroom half of the time. She appears to have a harder time with urgency. Infections are not found in a urine test. Except for a residual amount of 125cc, an ultrasound scan of the bladder, ureter, and kidneys is inconclusive.

      Which of the following treatment options is the best fit for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder training

      Explanation:

      This woman has mixed incontinence, which includes signs and symptoms of both stresses and urges incontinence. The urge, on the other hand, irritates her. Bladder training would be the most appropriate management approach to investigate first for women with urge incontinence as the most troublesome symptom. The objectives are:
      – Using a bladder diary to establish a baseline
      – Creating a voiding schedule
      – Over a long period, gradually increase the voiding interval in increments of 2- 5 minutes, to void every 3 hours.
      – Other important strategies to consider are lifestyle changes like reducing fluid intake, losing weight, and avoiding diuretics-producing foods and beverages (e.g., alcoholic beverages, caffeine, etc).

      When urge incontinence does not respond to physical or behavioural therapy, anticholinergics along with ongoing bladder training are an alternative. A 4- to 6-week trial is employed. At six months, risk and benefit are weighed to see if treatment should be continued for those who react. Patients should be informed about anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth and constipation, as well as how to control them.

      Anterior colporrhaphy is a treatment for cystocele that involves repairing the front vaginal wall. It can help people with urine incontinence. If you don’t have a cystocele, bladder neck suspension is the best option.
      Retropubic bladder suspension is a more intrusive surgery for treating stress urinary incontinence in patients who haven’t responded to less invasive treatments like pelvic floor exercise.

      The most essential initial conservative therapy to explore for patients with real stress incontinence and mixed (both stress and urge) urine incontinence when stress incontinence is the more prominent symptom is pelvic floor muscle exercise (e.g. Kegel exercise). For urge incontinence, more difficult training can be applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
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  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive.

      Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion.

      In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give anti-D now

      Explanation:

      As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.

      Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
      eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
      In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.

      All the other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her oral contraceptives for 6 months. She comes to your office for evaluation because her menstrual period is 2 weeks late. Her menses had been regular since discontinuing the oral contraceptives. A urine hCG is negative. Which one of the following is true regarding this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is unlikely that she is pregnant

      Explanation:

      With the high level of sensitivity and specificity of current tests to measure hCG in serum and urine, pregnancy can now be diagnosed before the time of the first missed menstrual period- For current serum hCG assays, the low threshold for detection is 10-25 IU/L, while for urine assays it is 25-50 IU/L, which corresponds to approximately the seventh day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood and urine are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the time- If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant. To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a definitive result.

      Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the chances of future fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - What is the main biochemical buffer in urine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in urine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate and ammonia are the major urinary buffers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      0
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  • Question 29 - At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk...

    Incorrect

    • At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk about the many contraceptive alternatives available to her. She wants to begin using combined oral contraception tablets. She is concerned, however, about the risk of cancer associated with long-term usage of pills.

      Which of the following is the most likely side effect of oral contraceptive pills?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 years or more are more likely to get cervical cancer than women who have never used them. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the higher her chances of developing cervical cancer become. According to one study, using marijuana for less than 5 years increases the risk by 10%, using it for 5–9 years increases the risk by 60%, and using it for 10 years or more increases the risk by double. After women cease using oral contraceptives, their risk of cervical cancer appears to decrease over time. Endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancer risks, on the other hand, are lowered.
      Compared to women who had never used oral contraceptives, women who were taking or had just discontinued using oral combination hormone contraceptives had a slight (approximately 20%) increase in the relative risk of breast cancer. Depending on the type of oral combination hormone contraception used, the risk increased anywhere from 0% to 60%. The longer oral contraceptives were used, the higher the risk of breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following increases during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following increases during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tidal Volume

      Explanation:

      Ventilation begins to increase significantly at around 8 weeks of gestation, most likely in response to progesterone-related sensitization of the respiratory centre to carbon dioxide and the increased metabolic rate. Significant alterations occur in the mechanical aspects of ventilation during pregnancy. Minute ventilation (or the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in 1 minute) is the product of tidal volume and respiratory rate and increases by approximately 30–50 per cent with pregnancy. The increase is primarily a result of tidal volume, which increases by 40 per cent (from 500 to 700 mL), because the respiratory rate remains unchanged. The increase in minute ventilation is perceived by the pregnant woman as shortness of breath, which affects 60–70 per cent of women. This physiological dyspnoea is usually mild and affects 50 per cent of women before 20 weeks gestation, but resolves immediately postpartum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Embryology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Management (3/3) 100%
Passmed