The sacral hiatus is shaped by incomplete midline fusion of the posterior elements of the distal portion of S4 and S5. This inverted U shaped space is covered by the posterior aspect of the sacrococcygeal membrane and is an important landmark in caudal anaesthetic block. Distal most portion of the dural sac and the sacral hiatus usually terminate between levels S1 and S3. The dural sac ends at the level of S2 in adults and S3 in children.

An equilateral triangle is formed between the apex of the sacral hiatus and the posterior superior iliac spines. This triangle is used to determine the location of the sacral hiatus during caudal anaesthetic block.

A preplanned preinduction strategy includes the consideration of various interventions designed to facilitate intubation should a difficult airway occur. Non-invasive interventions intended to manage a difficult airway include, but are not limited to: (1) awake intubation, (2) video-assisted laryngoscopy, (3) intubating stylets or tube-changers, (4) SGA for ventilation (e.g., LMA, laryngeal tube), (5) SGA for intubation (e.g., ILMA), (6) rigid laryngoscopic blades of varying design and size, (7) fibreoptic-guided intubation, and (8) lighted stylets or light wands.

Most supraglottic airway devices (SADs) are designed for use during routine anaesthesia, but there are other roles such as airway rescue after failed tracheal intubation, use as a conduit to facilitate tracheal intubation and use by primary responders at cardiac arrest or other out-of-hospital emergencies. Supraglottic airway devices are intrinsically more invasive than use of a facemask for anaesthesia, but less invasive than tracheal intubation. Supraglottic airway devices can usefully be classified as first and second generation SADs and also according to whether they are specifically designed to facilitate tracheal intubation. First generation devices are simply ‘airway tubes’, whereas second generation devices incorporate specific design features to improve safety by protecting against regurgitation and aspiration.

Number needed to treat (NNT) is a time specific epidemiological measure that indicates how many patients would be require for an intervention to prevent one additional bad outcome. A perfect NNT would be 1, where everyone improves with treatment, thus the higher the NNT, the less effective the treatment.

Thus if you treat 1000 patients then you will expect to have 50 fewer strokes.

The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.

The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.

The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.

The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.

The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.

Dorsal column (ascending tract) – Proprioception, vibration, discriminative

Spinocerebellar (ascending tract) – Subconscious muscle position and tone

Corticospinal (descending tract) – Voluntary muscle

Rubrospinal (descending tract) – Flexor muscle tone

Vestibulospinal (descending tract) – Reflexes and muscle tone

Reticulospinal(descending tract) – Voluntary movements, head position.-

Autonomic – Descending tract.

Loop diuretics act by causing inhibition of Na+ K+ 2Cl– symporter present at the luminal membrane of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid, furosemide, piretanide, tripamide, and mersalyl are the important members of this group

The main use of loop diuretics is to remove the oedema fluid in renal, hepatic, or cardiac diseases. Thus they are useful in the treatment of acute heart failure. These can be administered i.v. for prompt relief of acute pulmonary oedema (due to vasodilatory action).

Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, alkalosis, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricemia, and dyslipidaemia are seen with both thiazides as well as loop diuretics

ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

So,

ARR= (10/400)-(20/400)

ARR= 0.025-0.05

ARR= 0.025 (Numerical Value)

The fall in plasma concentration of a drug with time decreases exponentially in a single compartment pharmacokinetic model (wash-out curve).

A straight line is produced when the logarithm (ln) of a drug’s plasma concentration is plotted against time because a constant proportion of the drug is removed from the plasma per unit time. The line’s gradient or slope can be expressed mathematically as k. (the rate constant). The gradient is related to the half life (T1/2) because it can be used to predict a drug’s plasma concentration at any time.

According to the following formula, clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), and elimination rate constant (k) are mathematically related.

CL = Vd x k

For drug A, CL = 1 x 0.1 = 0.1units per minute

For drug B, Cl = 2 x 0.2 = 0.4 units per minute

Hence, it is proved that Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B.

The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is the fourth and smallest cranial nerve. It’s role is to provide somatic motor innervation of the superior oblique muscle which is responsible for oculomotion.

Injury to the trochlear nerve will result in vertical diplopia, which worsens when looking downwards or inwards. This diplopia presents as an upward deviation of the eye with a head tilt away from the site of the lesion.

The abducens nerve (CN VI) provides somatic motor innervation for the lateral rectus muscle which functions to abduct the eye. Injury to this nerve will cause diplopia and an inability to abduct the eye, causing the patient to have to rotate their head to look sideways.

The facial nerve (CN VII) provides sensory, motor and parasympathetic innervations. It’s motor aspect controls the muscles of facial expression. Damage will cause paralysis of facial expression.

The oculomotor nerve (CN III) provides motor and parasympathetic innervations. Its motor component controls most of the other extraocular muscles. Damage to it will result in ptosis, dilatation of the pupil and a down and out eye position.

The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (CN VI) is responsible for sensory innervation of skin, mucous membranes and sinuses of the upper face and scalp.

The first rib is an atypical rib. It is short, wide, and flattened and lies in an oblique plane.

It has a small scalene tubercle on its medial border which marks the point of attachment of scalenus anterior. The lower surface lies on the pleura and is smooth.

The tubercle on the upper surface separates an anterior groove for the subclavian vein and a posterior groove for the subclavian artery and lower trunk of the brachial plexus.

Scalenus medius is attached to a roughened area posterior to the groove for the subclavian artery.

The upper surface gives attachment anteriorly to the subclavius muscle and costoclavicular ligament.

The Purkinje system, as well as the action potentials of ventricular and atrial myocytes, have the same ionic changes. It lasts about 200 milliseconds and has a resting membrane potential, as well as fast depolarisation and plateau phases.

There are five stages to the process:

Increased Na+ and decreased K+ conductance in Phase 0 (rapid depolarisation).
1st phase (initial repolarisation) : Na+ conductance decreased, while K+ conductance increased.
Phase two (plateau phase) : Ca2+ conductance increased
Phase three (repolarisation phase) : Lower Ca2+ conductance and higher K+ conductance
4th Phase (resting membrane potential) : K+ conductance increased, Na+ conductance decreased, and Ca2+ conductance decreased.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) has been used in outcome models as a measure of physiological derangement and as a tool for assessing head trauma.

Eye opening (E):

4 Spontaneously
3 Responds to voice
2 Responds to painful stimulus
1 No response.

Best verbal response (V):

5 Orientated, converses normally
4 Confused, disoriented conversation, but able to answer basic questions
3 Inappropriate responses, words discernible
2 Incomprehensible speech
1 Makes no sounds.

Best motor response (M):

6 Obeys commands for movement
5 Purposeful movement to painful stimulus
4 Withdraws from pain
3 Abnormal (spastic) flexor response to painful stimuli, decorticate posture
2 Extensor response to painful stimuli, decerebrate posture
1 No response.

In this case, GCS = 2+3+5 = 10.

A significant early feature of the metabolic response to trauma and surgery is hyperglycaemia. It is due to an increased glucose production and decreased glucose utilisation bought on by neuroendocrine stimulation. Catecholamines, Growth hormone, ACTH and cortisol, and Glucagon are all increased.

There is also a decreased insulin sensitivity peripherally and an inhibition of insulin production from the beta cells of the pancreas. These changes lead to hyperglycaemia.

The stress response to endoscopic surgery will only be prevented with use of high dose opioids or central neuraxial block at anaesthesia.
To reduce the risk of inducing hyperchloremic acidosis, Ringer’s lactate/acetate or Hartmann’s solution is preferred to 0.9% sodium chloride as routine maintenance fluids.

Though it has been suggested that administration of Hartmann’s solution to patients with type 2 diabetes leads to hyperglycaemia, one Litre of Hartmann’s solution would yield a maximum of 14.5 mmol of glucose. A rapid infusion of this volume would increase the plasma glucose by no more than 1 mmol/L..

Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, produces hyperglycaemia by stimulating gluconeogenesis . Glucocorticoids are agonists of intracellular glucocorticoid receptors. Their effects are mainly mediated via altered protein synthesis via gene transcription and so the onset of action is slow. The onset of action of dexamethasone is about one to four hours and therefore would NOT contribute to the hyperglycaemia in this patient in the time given.

0.9% Normal saline with or without adrenaline is the usual irrigation fluid. With this type of surgery, systemic absorption is unlikely to occur.

Fentanyl is not likely the primary cause of hyperglycaemia in this patient. In high doses (50 mcg/Kg) it has been shown to reduce the hyperglycaemic responses to surgery.

According to the Safe Anaesthesia Liaison Group, the most important factor to consider the cannula access, and if the patient is properly receiving the total intravenous anaesthesia. The cannula access must be regularly checked for kinks, leaks and disconnections.

Below are the safety precautions and policies to be followed for total intravenous anaesthesia among children and adults:

When administering TIVA, a non-return valve must be used on any intravenous fluid line;
When using equipment, it is essential that clinical staff know its limitations and uses;
Sites of intravenous infusions should be visible so they may be monitored for disconnection, leaks or perivenous infusion into the subcutaneous tissues; and,
Organisations must give preference to clearly labelled intravenous connectors and valves.

Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

Monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes are responsible for the catalyses of monoamine oxidative deamination. It assists the degradation of serotonin, norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine.

They are found in the mitochondria of most central and peripheral nerve tissues.

There are 2 different types:

Type A: Whose main function it to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, norepinephrine and 5-hydroxytryptamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain gastrointestinal tract, pulmonary endothelium and placenta
Type B: Whose main function is to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, tryptamine and phenylethylamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain (especially in the basal ganglia) and blood platelets.

Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.

There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.

In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.

In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.

Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.

The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.

It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).

It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).

Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.

Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.

E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases.

The posterior tibial nerve lies on the posterior surface of the tibialis posterior and, lower down the leg, on the posterior surface of the tibia. The nerve accompanies the posterior tibial artery and lies at first on its medial side, then crosses posterior to it, and finally lies on its lateral side. The nerve, with the artery, passes behind the medial malleolus, between the tendons of the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus.

It gives off muscular branches to the soleus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior. A medial calcaneal branches off to supply the skin over the medial surface of the heel, and an articular nerve to supply the ankle joint. Finally, it terminates to become the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve that gives off branches that supply the skin on the posteromedial surface of the leg.

The sural nerve is a branch of the tibial nerve that supplies the skin on the lower part of the posterolateral surface of the leg.

The superficial peroneal nerve is one of the terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. It arises in the substance of the peroneus longus muscle on the lateral side of the neck of the fibular. It ascends between the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, and in the lower part of the leg it becomes cutaneous. Muscular branches of the superficial peroneal nerve supply the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, while medial and lateral cutaneous branches are distributed to the skin on the lower part of the leg and dorsum of the foot. In addition, the cutaneous branches supply the dorsal surfaces of the skin of all the toes, except the adjacent sides of the first and second toes and the lateral side of the little toe.

The superficial peroneal, sural and saphenous nerves cannot be used to assess neuromuscular blocks since they are sensory nerves.

The deep peroneal nerve enters the dorsum of the foot by passing deep to the extensor retinacula on the lateral side of the dorsalis pedis artery. It divides into terminal, medial, and lateral branches. The medial branch supplies the skin of the adjacent sides of the big and second toes. The lateral branch supplies the extensor digitorum brevis muscle. Both terminal branches give articular branches to the joints of the foot. This nerve is too deep to use for neuromuscular blockade assessment

The lesser omentum will need to be divided. This forms one of the nodal stations that will need to be taken during a radical gastrectomy.

The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
1. Left gastric
2. Common hepatic
3. Splenic arteries

Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.

Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.

Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.

In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.

The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C

The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.

The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.

There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.

The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:

Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.

Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.

Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.

Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.

The drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis is adrenaline. It has an intravenous route of administration. Since the patient already has intravenous access, the intramuscular route is not appropriate.

Second-line pharmacological intervention includes the use of chlorpheniramine 10mg intravenous, Hydrocortisone 200mg.

The volume expired in the first second of maximal expiration after a maximal inspiration is known as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and it indicates how quickly full lungs can be emptied. It is the most commonly measured parameter for bronchoconstriction assessment.

The maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximal inspiration is known as the ‘slow’ vital capacity (VC). VC is normally equal to FVC after a forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (VC) manoeuvre, unless there is an airflow obstruction, in which case VC is usually higher than FVC.

The FEV1/FVC (Tiffeneau index) is a clinically useful index of airflow restriction that can be used to distinguish between restrictive and obstructive respiratory disorders.

The average expired flow over the middle half (25-75 percent) of the FVC manoeuvre is the forced expiratory volume (FEF25-75). The airflow from the resistance bronchioles corresponds to this. It’s a more sensitive indicator of mild small airway narrowing than FEV1, but it’s difficult to tell if the VC (or FVC) is decreasing or increasing.

The maximum expiratory flow rate achieved is called the peak expiratory flow (PEF), which is usually 8-14 L/second.

A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.

FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.

Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.

Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

pH is the negative log to the base 10 of hydrogen ion concentration:

So, what power produces the answer?

pH = – log10 [H+]

Making [H+] the subject:

[H+] = 10-pH

Substituting, [H+] = 10-7

One nanomole = 1 x 10-9 or 0.000000001

10-7 = 1x 0.0000001 or 10 x 0.00000001 or 100 x 0.000000001

100 nanomole

A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.

Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.

Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.

Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.

This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.

It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.

Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.

The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.

The external laryngeal nerve arises from the superior laryngeal nerve and provides innervation to the cricothyroid muscle.

The other muscles mentioned receive their innervations from the recurrent laryngeal nerve.