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  • Question 1 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Correct

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the right ovary drain into?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease.

      Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy.

      Explanation:

      This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.

      The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with loss of weight, abdominal pain and frequent episodes of vomiting. Her vital signs are normal. She has been given a cyclizine injection but without any significant improvement. The next step would be?

      Your Answer: IV fluids

      Correct Answer: IV steroids

      Explanation:

      In hyperemesis gravidarum, IV corticosteroids can be given to reduce vomiting, if the patient is not responding to standard anti emetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient is seen in clinic 6 weeks postpartum. The pregnancy was complicated...

    Correct

    • A patient is seen in clinic 6 weeks postpartum. The pregnancy was complicated by intrapartum haemorrhage requiring fluid resuscitation and a 2 unit blood transfusion. Mum reports feeling very tired, struggling to lose baby weight and needing to bottle feed due to very low volume lactation. What is the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sheehan's Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sheehan syndrome is the pregnancy related infarction of the pituitary gland. During pregnancy the gland doubles in size but the blood supply does not increase significantly and during delivery due to the loss of blood it principates infarction. This results in fatigue, poor lactation and loss of pubic hair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The ureter is lined by what type of epithelium? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ureter is lined by what type of epithelium?

      Your Answer: Pseudostratified

      Correct Answer: Transitional

      Explanation:

      Ureters are muscular tubes that run from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. It is lined by transitional epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 31 year old patient undergoes an elective c-section delivery. You estimate blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old patient undergoes an elective c-section delivery. You estimate blood loss has reached 1000ml and you suspect uterine atony is the likely cause. Following bimanual uterine compression what pharmacological intervention is advised?

      Your Answer: Ergometrine 0.5mg by intramuscular injection

      Correct Answer: Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection

      Explanation:

      Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection is the first line pharmacological measurement in this scenario

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?

      Your Answer: Cephalic, breech

      Correct Answer: Cephalic, cephalic

      Explanation:

      The commonest foetal presentation in twin pregnancy is cephalic-cephalic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She is not sexually active and her periods last between 32 and 35 days. Her most recent regular menstrual period began three weeks ago. A pelvic ultrasound was performed which shows a normal uterus, left ovary, and a thin unilocular cyst in the right ovary around 4 cm in size. The most likely cause of this ultrasound finding is?

      Your Answer: A follicular cyst.

      Explanation:

      If one believes that this cycle will last 35 days, the cyst in the left ovary was discovered at mid-cycle.
      It’s too huge to be a ruptured pre-ovulatory follicle, and it doesn’t exhibit the characteristics of a corpus luteum, a benign cystic teratoma, or an endometrioma.

      As a result, a follicular cyst is the most likely diagnosis.

      A benign cyst is almost always seen on ultrasound as a unilocular, thin-walled cystic formation.

      The presence of solid materials in a multiloculated cystic structure strongly suggests the presence of a malignant mass.
      In a 25-year-old woman, this would be unusual, but not unheard of.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of infants will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the anterior or posterior fetal shoulder impacts on the maternal symphysis or sacrum and may require additional manevours to release the shoulders after gentle downward traction has failed. The most common injury that can occur, is to the brachial plexus due to lateral flexion of the head during traction. This may cause a neurological disability, Erb’s Palsy ( injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus) in which there is a less than 10% chance that this injury would be permanent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with a urinary dipstick result positive for leukocyte and nitrite. She is otherwise asymptomatic so you send her urine for culture and sensitivity test.

      From the options below mentioned, which is the next best management for her?

      Your Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      There is an association between 20 to 30% increase in the risk for developing pyelonephritis during later pregnancy and untreated cases of bacteriuria in pregnancy. This is due to the physiological changes occurring to urinary tract during pregnancy, it is also found that untreated bacteriuria can be associated with even preterm birth and low birth weight. Risk of symptomatic urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy can be reduced by antibiotic treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria

      The most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria is Escherichia coli, which accounts to more than 80% of isolates and the second most frequently cultured uropathogen is Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Other Gram-positive cocci, like group B streptococci, are less common. Gram-negative bacteria such as Klebsiella, Proteus or other Enterobacteriaceae are the other organisms involved in asymptomatic bacteriuria.

      Although the context patient is asymptomatic, her urine dipstick shows positive nitrite and leukocyte, suggestive of urinary tract infection, so oral antibiotics like cephalexin or nitrofurantoin are advisable. Normally a five day course of oral antibiotic will be sufficient for the treatment of uncomplicated UTI or asymptomatic bacteraemia in pregnant women. As the patient is currently at her 38 weeks of gestation nitrofurantoin is contraindicated so it is best to prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin. This is because nitrofurantoin is associated with an increased risk of neonatal jaundice and haemolytic anaemia, so should not be used close to delivery, that is after 37 weeks of gestation or sooner if early delivery is planned.

      Acute pyelonephritis should be treated with Intravenous antibiotic treatment, guided by urine culture and sensitivity reports as soon a available. A course of minimum of 10-14 days with IV + oral antibiotics is recommended as treatment for pyelonephritis, along with an increased fluid intake as intravenous fluids in clinically dehydrated patients. Even though urinary alkalisers are safe in pregnancy, prescription of urinary alkalisers alone is not recommended due to its low effectiveness compared to antibiotics, also as it can result in a loss of treatment efficacy urinary alkalisers should never be used in combination with nitrofurantoin.

      At any stage of pregnancy, if Streptococcus agalactiae, a group B streptococcus [GBS], is detected in urine the intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS is usually indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?

      Your Answer: Appropriate 1st line test of tubal potency in patients with past history of pelvic inflammatory disease

      Correct Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33 weeks of gestation for an antepartum haemorrhage of 300mL. The bleeding has now stopped. She had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done five years ago which was normal. Vital signs are as follows:

      Pulse: 76 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature: 36.8°C
      Fetal heart rate: 144/min

      On physical exam, the uterus is lax and nontender. The fundal height is 34 cm above the pubic symphysis and the presenting part is high and mobile.

      Other than fetal monitoring with a cardiotocograph (CTG), which one of the following should be the immediate next step?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound examination of the uterus.

      Explanation:

      This is a case of a pregnant patient having vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s presentation, the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage is placenta praevia. The haemorrhage is unlikely to be due to a vasa praevia because a loss of 300mL would usually cause fetal distress or death, neither of which has occurred. Cervical malignancy is also unlikely as it typically would not have bleeding of this magnitude. A possible diagnosis would be a small placental abruption as it would fit with the lack of uterine tenderness and normal uterine size.

      For the immediate management of this patient, induction of labour is contraindicated before the placental site has been confirmed. Also, induction should not be performed when the gestation is only at 33 weeks, especially after an episode of a small antepartum haemorrhage. An ultrasound examination of the uterus is appropriate as it would define whether a placenta praevia is present and its grade. It would also show whether there is any evidence of an intrauterine clot associated with placental abruption from a normally situated placenta.

      If a placenta praevia is diagnosed by ultrasound, a pelvic examination under anaesthesia may be a part of the subsequent care, if it is felt that vaginal delivery might be possible. Usually it would be possible if the placenta praevia is grade 1 or grade 2 anterior in type. However, pelvic exam at this stage is certainly not the next step in care, and is rarely used in current clinical care.

      A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear will be necessary at some time in the near future, but would not be helpful in the care of this patient currently.

      Immediate Caesarean section is not needed as the bleeding has stopped, the foetus is not in distress, and the gestation is only 33 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Amongst women with a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea, what percentage will develop pelvic inflammatory...

    Incorrect

    • Amongst women with a diagnosis of Gonorrhoea, what percentage will develop pelvic inflammatory disease?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted diplococcus bacteria known to infect the female genital tract, which can cause an ascending infection in the uterus and fallopian tubes. About 15 percent of women with this infection may develop pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which poses risks of long term consequences: ectopic pregnancy, infertility and chronic pelvic pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is true about the origin of the ovarian artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the origin of the ovarian artery?

      Your Answer: It arises from the Renal artery

      Correct Answer: It arises from the Abdominal Aorta

      Explanation:

      The ovarian arteries are considered the main blood supply for the ovaries. The ovarian arteries usually arise from the lateral aspect of the abdominal artery, though in some instances they may arise from the renal or iliac arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11...

    Incorrect

    • A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found:

      Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL)
      Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million)
      Motility 15% (>40%)
      Abnormal forms 95% (<60%)

      A second specimen three months later confirms the above results.

      Which would be the most suitable next step in management?

      Your Answer: Carry out intrauterine insemination of the wife with his semen,

      Correct Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).

      Explanation:

      Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where...

    Correct

    • The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?

      Your Answer: Ilium

      Explanation:

      The arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium just inferior to the iliac fossa. It forms the boundary of the pelvic inlet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A newborn male infant, born to a 30-year-old gravida 3 para 0 aborta...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn male infant, born to a 30-year-old gravida 3 para 0 aborta 2 woman, who did not receive any prenatal care, is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit for growth restriction. The mother who presented for labor at approximately 38 weeks of gestation, had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery due to fetal heart rate abnormalities. 

      The newborn's Apgar scores were 6 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively and his weight was 2.5 kg.  Physical examination shows microcephaly, a wide anterior fontanelle, cleft palate and hypoplasia of the distal phalanges.

      A history of which of the following will be obtained on further evaluation of the mother?

      Your Answer: Untreated syphilis

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin use

      Explanation:

      This infant will most likely be diagnosed as having fetal hydantoin syndrome, which occurs due to an in utero exposure to antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproate etc. 

      Multiple antiepileptics, due to their ability to cross placenta, have teratogenic effects which will result in low folate and high oxidative metabolite levels in the fetus. This likely combined effect results deformities like cleft lip and palate, wide anterior fontanelle, distal phalangeal hypoplasia and cardiac anomalies like pulmonary stenosis, aortic stenosis etc in the fetus. There will be developmental delay and poor cognitive outcomes as a result of neural tube defects and microcephaly associated with this. Therefore, prior to conception, those patients who require antiepileptics for seizure control during pregnancy should titrate it to the lowest dose and must started on high-dose (4 mg) folic acid supplementation to minimize the risk of such congenital malformations.

      Fetal alcohol syndrome commonly presents with microcephaly and midfacial hypoplasia, but is not association with cleft lip or palate.

      Cocaine use during pregnancy can be associated with preterm delivery, abruptio placentae and fetal growth restriction; but there is no evidence to prove its association with congenital defects.

      Fetal renal failure with associated oligohydramnios that results in pulmonary hypoplasia, growth restriction, and limb defects are the complications associated with the use of lisinopril and other angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors during pregnancy; but it does not cause cleft lip or palate.

      Most infants with congenital syphilis are asymptomatic at birth and those with symptoms typically have rhinitis or “snuffles, hepatomegaly and a maculopapular rash none of which are seen in this patient.

      Fetal hydantoin syndrome results from the in-utero exposure to antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine etc and is usually presented with microcephaly, a wide anterior fontanelle, cleft lip and palate, and distal phalangeal hypoplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - When consenting a patient for abdominal hysterectomy what would you advise regarding the...

    Incorrect

    • When consenting a patient for abdominal hysterectomy what would you advise regarding the risk?

      Your Answer: Injury to Bowel 1%

      Correct Answer: Injury to ureter or bladder is approximately 1%

      Explanation:

      Abdominal hysterectomy is performed through a Pfannenstiel incision. There are certain complications associated with hysterectomy including haemorrhage, injury to the ureter(1%) and less commonly bladder and bowel (0.04%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A woman visited the OPD with complaints of severe abdominal pain and light-headedness....

    Incorrect

    • A woman visited the OPD with complaints of severe abdominal pain and light-headedness. There is history of fainting three days prior to consultation. She also has vaginal bleeding. In this case, which of the following investigations should be ordered to reach the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Testing for beta hCG should be the first test in this case. It will rule out any pregnancy that is strongly suspected based on the patient’s history and physical examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 39 years old female patient comes to your office seeking contraceptive advice....

    Correct

    • A 39 years old female patient comes to your office seeking contraceptive advice. She is a cigarette smoker. W

      hat would you advice her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only pills

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to OCs include breast cancer, history of deep venous thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, active liver disease, use of rifampicin, familial hyperlipidaemia, previous arterial thrombosis, and pregnancy, while relative contraindications include smoking, age over 35, hypertension, breastfeeding, and irregular spontaneous menstruation.

      Progestin only pills are the safest and most effective contraceptive methods than the rest of the options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 26 year old patient currently 9 weeks pregnant. This is her 1st...

    Correct

    • An 26 year old patient currently 9 weeks pregnant. This is her 1st pregnancy. She has been suffering with nausea and vomiting that has failed to respond to conservative measures including ginger, dietary changes and acupuncture. She wants to start medical therapy. Which of the following is 1st line drug treatment according to NICE guidance?

      Your Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      Promethazine or Cyclizine are 1st choice options for management of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy according to NICE. Prochlorperazine is also appropriate 1st line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain?

      Your Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The basic components of the mammary gland are the alveoli. These are lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells surrounded by myoepithelial cells. The alveoli join to form groups known as lobules. The lobules form lobes. Each lobe has a lactiferous duct that drains into openings in the nipple. Each breast typically contains 15-20 lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 29 year old patient who is 15 weeks pregnant comes to see...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old patient who is 15 weeks pregnant comes to see you. She currently has chickenpox. She is concerned her baby may get congenital fetal varicella syndrome (FVS). What would you advise her the risk of this is?

      Your Answer: 5.00%

      Correct Answer: 2.00%

      Explanation:

      FVS has been reported to complicate maternal chickenpox that occurs as early as 3 weeks and up to 28 weeks of gestation. The risk appears to be lower in the first trimester (0.55 per cent). No case of FVS has been reported when maternal infection has occurred after 28 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The inguinal canal is reinforced posteriorly by which structure?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      The Conjoint tendon AKA Inguinal falx reinforces the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. The inguinal and lacunar ligaments are part of the floor The aponeurosis of external oblique is the major component of the anterior wall with fibres of internal oblique reinforcing the lateral part

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding anti-epileptic use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy, which of the following...

    Correct

    • Regarding anti-epileptic use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy, which of the following is closely associated with the development of congenital malformations?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium Valproate is known to be the most teratogenic when used in the first trimester of pregnancy. This antiepileptic increases the risk of congenital malformations including a 10-20 fold risk of neurodevelopmental defects. Though the use of antiepileptics should generally be avoided during pregnancy, carbamazepine, or newer drugs such as Lamotrigine are thought to carry less of a risk of teratogenicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your clinic for advice. She is on combined OCPs.

      What would you advice her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Explanation:

      Women with medical conditions associated with increased risk for thrombosis generally should not use oestrogen-containing contraceptives.

      The majority of evidence identified does not suggest an increase in odds for venous or arterial events with use of most POCs. Limited evidence suggested increased odds of VTE with use of injectables (three studies) and use of POCs for therapeutic indications (two studies, one with POCs unspecified and the other with POPs).

      Discontinuing anticoagulants increases her risk of recurrent DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit. Upon history-taking, it was noted that this was her first pregnancy and based on her last menstrual period, she is pregnant for 11 weeks already. There was also no mention of a history of medical problems.

      Upon further observation, the uterus was palpable midway between her pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. There was also no audible fetal heart tones using the Doppler stethoscope.

      Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step given the case above?

      Your Answer: Reassure her that fetal heart tones are not yet audible with the Doppler stethoscope at this gestational age.

      Correct Answer: Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the foetus.

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, the uterus increases in size to accommodate the developing foetus. At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus must be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis but the patient’s uterus was already palpable at just 11 weeks.

      If less than seven weeks pregnant, it’s unlikely to find a heartbeat by ultrasound. Using transvaginal ultrasound, a developing baby’s heartbeat should be clearly visible by the time a woman is seven weeks pregnant. Abdominal ultrasound is considerably less sensitive, so it can take longer for the heartbeat to become visible. If past seven weeks pregnant, seeing no heartbeat may be a sign of miscarriage.

      Fetal viability is confirmed by the presence of an embryo that has cardiac activity. Cardiac activity is often present when the embryo itself measures 2 mm or greater during the 6th week of gestation. If cardiac activity is not evident, other sonographic features of early pregnancy can predict viability.

      It is recommended that all pregnant women undergo a routine ultrasound at 10 to 13 weeks of gestation to determine an accurate gestational age. Getting an accurate gestational age is highly important and pertinent for the optimal assessment of fetal growth later in pregnancy. Ultrasound is the most reliable method for establishing a true gestational age by measurement of crown-rump length, which can be measured either transabdominally or transvaginally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman presents to OBGYN clinic with a complaint of irregular bleeding per vagina for the last 3 months. Her past medical history is not significant and she went through menopause around a decade ago.
      A cervical screening test is performed and comes back normal. PCR for chlamydia is also negative. Endometrial thickness of around 8mm is seen on transvaginal ultrasound.
      What would be the next step of management?

      Your Answer: Referral to the gynaecologist for endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      This patient had postmenopausal vaginal haemorrhage and an 8mm endometrial thickness. Endometrial thickness of 4mm or more in a postmenopausal woman with vaginal bleeding necessitates an endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer, and this patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for this procedure.
      All of the other choices are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform her that while Pap smears are no longer performed, Cervical Screening tests are done five times a year.

      She has a cervical screening test, which reveals that she has non-16/18 HPV and low-grade cytology alterations.

      What's would you do next?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Correct Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      Referral to an oncologist is not necessary since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy. All other options are unacceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old lady appears with a 7-month history of secondary amenorrhea. She has a BMI of 24. Her FSH level is 55 U/L (2-8 U/L in luteal phase; >25 U/L in menopause), LH is 54 U/L, and oestradiol is low, according to laboratory tests. The level of serum prolactin is likewise normal. Her urine pregnancy test came out negative.

      Each ovary had 3-4 cysts on ultrasonography. She hopes to get pregnant in the near future.

      Which of the following would be the best treatment option for her condition?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)

      Correct Answer: Menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

      Explanation:

      Ovarian insufficiency is a failure of the ovary to function adequately in a woman younger than 40 years, in its role either as an endocrine organ or as a reproductive organ. In women aged 40 years or older, the expected physiologic decline of ovarian function that takes place with aging is termed perimenopause or the menopausal transition.
      Medical treatment of patients with primary ovarian insufficiency should address the following aspects:

      Ovarian hormone replacement
      Restoration of fertility
      Psychological well-being of the patient

      It is not appropriate to give this patient contraceptive pills since she desires pregnancy.

      There is no evidence that Danazol or Metformin would improve ovarian follicle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - What is the primary form of haemoglobin in a 6 week old foetus?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary form of haemoglobin in a 6 week old foetus?

      Your Answer: HbF

      Correct Answer: Hb Gower 1

      Explanation:

      HB gower 1 is the predominant embryonic haemoglobin when the foetus is 6 weeks old and is replaced by adult haemoglobin by the age of 5 months post natally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic, phenytoin more so than topiramate are inducers of cytochrome P450. They should not be given with COCPs. The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs that induce cytochrome P450 leading to a loss of contraceptive effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE?

      Your Answer: It arises from the Uterine artery

      Correct Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The Vaginal artery, like the Uterine artery is typically a branch of the Internal Iliac artery. It can sometimes arise as a branch of the Uterine artery so it is important to read the question (if the stem stated it CAN arise from the Uterine artery then that would be true)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Hypoplasia & yellow discoloration of the primary teeth has occurred in infants whose...

    Correct

    • Hypoplasia & yellow discoloration of the primary teeth has occurred in infants whose pregnant mothers were treated with which drug:

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that crosses placental barrier. Tetracycline was the first line of therapy in treating infections caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, chlamydia, rickettsia, and some spirochaetes. It has a wide range of adverse effects and is known for a unique property of being incorporated into skeletal and dental tissues at sites of active mineralization and staining of these tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help...

    Correct

    • Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help to protect neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Maternal exposure to dietary factors during pregnancy can influence embryonic development and may modulate the phenotype of offspring through epigenetic programming. Folate is critical for nucleotide synthesis, and preconceptional intake of dietary folic acid (FA) is credited with reduced incidences of neural tube defects in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria.
      Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate induction of labour

      Correct Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein

      Explanation:

      This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.

      → Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
      → It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
      → Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first visit to antenatal clinic. She is 9 weeks pregnant and bloods have shown her to be non-immune to Rubella. She is concerned about congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). What is the most appropriate advice to give?

      Your Answer: Advise vaccination after birth regardless of breast feeding status

      Explanation:

      Congenital rubella infection that occurs after 16 weeks gestation does not typically cause fetal abnormalities. This however plays no part in vaccination advice. Rubella vaccine is live and should not be given during pregnancy. The mother should be offered vaccination after giving birth. It is safe for the vaccine (typically given as combined MMR) to be administered if the mother is breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as ...

    Correct

    • WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as

      Your Answer: The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births

      Explanation:

      WHO defines perinatal death as the number of still births and death in the first week of life per 1000 births.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes. Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin. 

      Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy.  On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg. 

      The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place. She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse.  Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head.  Fetal monitoring is category I.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction.  The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes. 

      Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Fetal malposition

      Explanation:

      Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.

      The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.

      When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.

      Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
      Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
      Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.

      Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.

      Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture.  In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.

      When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You are called to a delivery as the midwife is concerned about CTG...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to a delivery as the midwife is concerned about CTG changes. She suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). You inspect the cervix. At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?

      Your Answer: Less than 4cm

      Correct Answer: Less than 3cm

      Explanation:

      Indications for FBS:
      1. Pathological CTG in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
      2. Suspected acidosis in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
      Contraindications to FBS:
      – Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
      – Known fetal coagulopathy
      – Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
      – Acute fetal compromise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - What is the male infertility rate in CF patients? ...

    Correct

    • What is the male infertility rate in CF patients?

      Your Answer: 98%

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is the most common fetal genetic disease in Caucasians and has an autosomal recessive inheritance. It is caused by an abnormal chloride channel due to a defect in the CFTR gene. Complications range from haemoptysis, respiratory failure, biliary cirrhosis, diabetes and male infertility. Men with CF are infertile in 98% of the cases due to failure of development of the vas deference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Estriol

      Explanation:

      The 3 main oestrogens are Estrone (E1) Oestradiol (E2) and Estriol (E3). Oestradiol is the predominant oestrogen during female reproductive years except during the early follicular phase when Estrone predominates. During pregnancy Estriol levels rise significantly and this becomes the dominant oestrogen during pregnancy. Ethinylestradiol and Mestranol are oestrogen found in COCP’s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman had just delivered a stillborn vaginally, following a major placental abruption. Choose the single most likely predisposing factor for developing PPH in this woman?

      Your Answer: Uterine infection

      Correct Answer: DIC

      Explanation:

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in pregnancy is the most common cause of an abnormal haemorrhage tendency during pregnancy and the puerperium. Although pregnancy itself can cause DIC, its presence is invariably evidence of an underlying obstetric disorder such as abruptio placentae, eclampsia, retention of a dead foetus, amniotic fluid embolism, placental retention or bacterial sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of...

    Correct

    • To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 13-year-old girl, whose first period began three weeks ago, presents with very...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl, whose first period began three weeks ago, presents with very heavy bleeding that requires her to use twelve sanitary pads per day, and the bleeding does not appear to be decreasing. Which of the following investigations is most likely to identify the root cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Bleeding
      oagulation profile.

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      It is usual to experience heavy, continuous bleeding around the time of menarche.
      Haemoglobin and ferritin levels are used to determine the severity of bleeding and its impact on the haemoglobin level.
      These analyses do not pinpoint the source of the problem, but they do pinpoint its consequences.
      A haematologic reason, such as thrombocytopenia, acute leukaemia, or a coagulation/bleeding issue, affects about one-third of girls with pubertal menorrhagia (e.g. von Willebrand disease).
      A complete blood examination and a bleeding
      lotting profile are required to rule out these illnesses.
      The results of a haemoglobin estimation or a ferritin level evaluation are insufficient, and the results of dilatation and curettage (D&C) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will rarely reveal the reason for the bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of the pelvis?

      Your Answer: Shape of the pubic arch

      Explanation:

      During pelvimetry, the shape of the pubic arch is usually examined. It helps in determining the outcome of the type of fetal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Regarding fertilization & implantation: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fertilization & implantation:

      Your Answer: The trophoblast invades the endometrium & differentiate into an outer cytotrophoblast & an inner cyncytiotrophoblast

      Correct Answer: The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata & zona pellucida while the tail remains outside

      Explanation:

      During fertilization, a sperm must first fuse with the plasma membrane and then penetrate the female egg cell to fertilize it. Fusing to the egg cell usually causes little problem, whereas penetrating through the egg’s hard shell or extracellular matrix can be more difficult. Therefore, sperm cells go through a process known as the acrosome reaction, which is the reaction that occurs in the acrosome of the sperm as it approaches the egg. The acrosome is a cap-like structure over the anterior half of the sperm’s head. Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote. To prevent polyspermy and minimize the possibility of producing a triploid zygote, several changes to the egg’s cell membranes render them impenetrable shortly after the first sperm enters the egg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of...

    Correct

    • A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of malaise. She has a normal body temperature but clinical examination shows RUQ tenderness. Blood tests revealed a mild anaemia, high liver enzyme values, low platelets and haemolysis. What is the most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      HELLP syndrome stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels and is a very severe condition that can happen during pregnancy. Management of this condition requires immediate delivery of the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Unless she has had a new sexual partner recently, this problem could not have been acquired sexually.

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
      It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
      All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
      Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
      Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
      Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
      Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
      Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
      Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
      This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - You see a 23 year old women in clinic complaining of vaginal discharge....

    Correct

    • You see a 23 year old women in clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. The lab phone to tell you microscopy and staining shows a gram negative diplococcus. Which organism is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      The most common gram negative diplococci include Neisseria, haemophilus and Moraxella.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 35 year old primigravida was in labour for 24 hours and delivered...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old primigravida was in labour for 24 hours and delivered after an induction. She developed postpartum haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most likely cause for PPH?

      Your Answer: Rupture uterus

      Correct Answer: Atonic uterus

      Explanation:

      Uterine atony and failure of contraction and retraction of myometrial muscle fibres can lead to rapid and severe haemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. Poor myometrial contraction can result from fatigue due to prolonged labour or rapid forceful labour, especially if stimulated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the emergency department for vaginal delivery. Upon spontaneous rupture of the membranes, bradycardia and variable deceleration was noted on the fetal heart rate monitoring.
      Vaginal examination was performed and revealed cord prolapse that is still pulsating.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient?

      Your Answer: Insert foley's catheter to release the urine from the bladder

      Correct Answer: Arrange for emergency caesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Umbilical cord prolapse (UCP) occurs when the umbilical cord exits the cervical opening before the fetal presenting part. It is a rare obstetric emergency that carries a high rate of potential fetal morbidity and mortality. Resultant compression of the cord by the descending foetus during delivery leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia, which can result in fetal death or permanent disability.

      Certain features of pregnancy increase the risk for the development of umbilical cord prolapse by preventing appropriate engagement of the presenting part with the pelvis. These include fetal malpresentation, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, preterm rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm delivery, and fetal and cord abnormalities.

      The occurrence of fetal bradycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes should prompt immediate evaluation for potential cord prolapse.

      In overt prolapse, the cord is palpable as a pulsating structure in the vaginal vault. In occult prolapse, the cord is not visible or palpable ahead of the fetal presenting part. The definitive management of umbilical cord prolapse is expedient delivery; this is usually by caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which of the following uterotonic drugs is most strongly associated with a transient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following uterotonic drugs is most strongly associated with a transient pyrexia occurring within 45 minutes of administration?

      Your Answer: Carboprost

      Correct Answer: Dinoprostone

      Explanation:

      Induction of Labour is produced by the infusion of PGF-2 alpha or PGE2. Dinoprostone is a PGE2 and is associated with transient pyrexia that resolved within 4-5 hours of stopping the use of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.

      All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination

      Explanation:

      The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.

      A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.

      Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.

      On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.

      Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened abortion

      Explanation:

      Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.

      Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.

      In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.

      In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.

      An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.

      In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - At the time of delivery, if there is a laceration of perineal body...

    Correct

    • At the time of delivery, if there is a laceration of perineal body but not the anal sphincter, this type of laceration is classified as?

      Your Answer: Second degree

      Explanation:

      Perineal tears are common at the time of child birth. First degree perineal laceration means that the wound is so small that it doesn’t require any stitches and usually heals on its own. 2nd degree means that skin and smooth muscles are both torn. 3rd degree tear means that the tear is beyond the perineal muscles and the muscles surrounding the anal canal, while in 4th degree, the perineal tear goes through the anal sphincter up to the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on...

    Incorrect

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 5 weeks

      Correct Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The gestational sac can be visualized from as early as 4–5 weeks of gestation and the yolk sac at about 5 weeks (Figure 6.3). The embryo can be observed and measured at 5–6 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - What is the average anteroposterior distance of the female pelvic outlet? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average anteroposterior distance of the female pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer: 9 cm

      Correct Answer: 13 cm

      Explanation:

      The pelvic outlet is bounded in front by the lower margin of the symphysis pubis, on each side by the descending ramus of the pubic bone, the ischial tuberosity and the sacrotuberous ligament, and posteriorly by the last piece of the sacrum. The AP diameter of the pelvic outlet is 13.5 cm and the transverse diameter is 11 cm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for isolated spontaneous abortions?

      Your Answer: High doses of caffeine

      Correct Answer: Retroverted uterus

      Explanation:

      Most common risk factors for spontaneous abortion are considered to be:
      – Age above 35 years.
      – Smoking.
      – High intake of caffeine.
      – Uterine abnormalities like leiomyoma, adhesions.
      – Viral infections.
      – Thrombophilia.
      – Chromosomal abnormalities.
      Conditions like subclinical thyroid disorder, subclinical diabetes mellitus and retroverted uterus are not found to cause spontaneous abortions.
      The term retroverted uterus is used to denote a uterus that is tilted backwards instead of forwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus?

      Your Answer: Herpes Simplex type 2

      Correct Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      RNA viruses are almost always single stranded whilst DNA viruses are almost always double stranded. The exceptions are rotavirus and Parvovirus B19 respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia?

      Your Answer: Old meconium at the time of induction of labour

      Correct Answer: Type II (late) decelerations with tachycardia

      Explanation:

      A type II deceleration is due to placental insufficiency which can result in fetal distress and asphyxia. The fetal heart rate is lowest at the start of the contraction and returns to normal after the contraction is complete.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac node

      Correct Answer: Inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The lower vagina drains to the inguinal nodes where as the upper vagina drains to the internal and external iliacs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining of left breast pain six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She reported having noticed the pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. From her unaffected breast, she continued to breastfeed her infant.

      Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no chronic medical conditions and for medication, she only takes a daily multivitamin. Her temperature was taken and the result was 38.3 deg C (101 deg F).

      Further observation was done and the presence of an erythematous area surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast was noted. There was also the presence of axillary lymphadenopathy.

      Which of the following is the next step to best manage the condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Warm compresses and massage

      Correct Answer: Needle aspiration and antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Breast infections can be associated with superficial skin or an underlying lesion. Breast abscesses are more common in lactating women but do occur in nonlactating women as well.

      The breast contains breast lobules, each of which drains to a lactiferous duct, which in turn empties to the surface of the nipple. There are lactiferous sinuses which are reservoirs for milk during lactation. The lactiferous ducts undergo epidermalization where keratin production may cause the duct to become obstructed, and in turn, can result in abscess formation. Abscesses associated with lactation usually begin with abrasion or tissue at the nipple, providing an entry point for bacteria. The infection often presents in the second postpartum week and is often precipitated in the presence of milk stasis. The most common organism known to cause a breast abscess is S. aureus, but in some cases, Streptococci, and Staphylococcus epidermidis may also be involved.

      The patient will usually provide a history of breast pain, erythema, warmth, and possibly oedema. Patients may provide lactation history. It is important to ask about any history of prior breast infections and the previous treatment. Patients may also complain of fever, nausea, vomiting, purulent drainage from the nipple, or the site of erythema. It is also important to ask about the patient’s medical history, including diabetes. The majority of postpartum mastitis are seen within 6 weeks of while breast-feeding

      The patient will have erythema, induration, warmth, and tenderness to palpation at the site in question on the exam. It may feel like there is a palpable mass or area of fluctuance. There may be purulent discharge at the nipple or site of fluctuance. The patient may also have reactive axillary adenopathy. The patient may have a fever or tachycardia on the exam, although these are less common.

      Incision and drainage are the standard of care for breast abscesses. If the patient is seen in a primary care setting by a provider that is not comfortable in performing these procedures, the patient may be started on antibiotics and referred to a general surgeon for definitive treatment. Needle aspiration may be attempted for abscesses smaller than 3 cm or in lactational abscesses. A course of antibiotics may be given before or following drainage of breast abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - In fetal circulation: ...

    Correct

    • In fetal circulation:

      Your Answer: Most of the blood entering the right atrium flows into the left atrium

      Explanation:

      Circulation in the foetus: 1. Deoxygenated fetal blood is conducted to the placenta via the two umbilical arteries. The umbilical arteries arise from the internal iliac arteries.
      2. Gas exchange occurs in placenta.
      3. Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes through the single umbilical vein and enters the inferior vena cava (IVC).
      4. About 50% of the blood in the IVC passes through the liver and the rest bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus. The IVC also drains blood returning from the lower trunk and extremities.
      5. On reaching the heart, blood is effectively divided into two streams by the edge of the interatrial septum (crista dividens) (1) a larger stream is shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale (lying between IVC and left atrium) (2) the other stream passes into right atrium where it is joined by blood from SVC which is blood returning from the myocardium and upper parts of body. This stream therefore has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.
      6. Because of the large pulmonary vascular resistance and the presence of the ductus arteriosus most of the right ventricular output passes into the aorta at a point distal to the origin of the arteries to the head and upper extremities. The diameter of the ductus arteriosus is similar to the descending aorta. The patency of the ductus arteriosus is maintained by the low oxygen tension and the vasodilating effects of prostaglandin E2;
      7. Blood flowing through the foramen ovale and into left atrium passes into the left ventricle where it is ejected into the ascending aorta. This relatively oxygen rich blood passes predominantly to the head and upper extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced fetal movements?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Reduced fetal movements can be the first indication of possible fetal abnormalities. Movements are first perceived by the mother from about 18-20 weeks gestation, increase in size and frequency until 32 weeks gestation when they plateau at about 31 movements per hour. Investigations for reduced fetal heart rate include auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a handheld doppler device, and a cardiotocograph or ultrasound if the foetus is above 28 weeks gestation. About 70% of women who experience one episode of reduced fetal movement have uncomplicated pregnancies. They are advised to report to a maternal unit if another episode occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You...

    Correct

    • While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?

      Your Answer: Urinary

      Explanation:

      Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does DNA replication occur?

      Your Answer: G0

      Correct Answer: Interphase

      Explanation:

      DNA replication occurs during S phase but that isn’t one of the options. Remember Interphase comprises G1,S and G2 phases!

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic due to complaints of nausea and vomiting over the past week and has been occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are known to be a common symptom in early pregnancy.

      Which of the following is considered an indicator of a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      In severe cases of hyperemesis, complications include vitamin deficiency, dehydration, and malnutrition, if not treated appropriately. Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by vitamin-B1 deficiency, can lead to death and permanent disability if left untreated. Additionally, there have been case reports of injuries secondary to forceful and frequent vomiting, including oesophageal rupture and pneumothorax.

      Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypokalaemia can also cause significant morbidity and mortality. Additionally, patients with hyperemesis may have higher rates of depression and anxiety during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      91.6
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Ductus Arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast causing the milk production. It also helps augment contractions in labour and cause uterine involution after childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 10 day old infant present with signs of disseminated Herpes Simplex Virus...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 day old infant present with signs of disseminated Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection. Her mother had her first episode of HSV three weeks prior to delivery. The infant was treated with antivirals upon clinical suspicion. What is the case fatality rate of infants who develop disseminated HSV despite treatment?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Congenital Herpes Simplex Virus infection may cause high levels of morbidity and mortality in neonates. Risk of infection with HSV 1 and 2 is highest within 6 weeks of delivery and is transferred to the neonate via maternal secretions at birth. Affected babies can present as skin manifestations, CNS infection, or disseminated infection, which carries an 85% risk of mortality if left untreated. Treatment with high dose antivirals such as acyclovir can help decrease the case mortality rate to 30% in cases of disseminated infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?

      Your Answer: CA 125

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      CA-125 has found application as a tumour marker or biomarker that may be elevated in the blood of some patients with specific types of cancers, or other conditions that are benign. Increased level of CA125 appears in fifty percent of stage 1 ovarian cancer patients and more than 90% with stages 2-4 ovarian cancer. CA-125 is therefore a useful tool for detecting ovarian cancer after the onset of symptoms as well as monitoring response to treatment and for predicting a patient’s prognosis after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due to spontaneous rupture of membranes. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and delivered at term via vaginal delivery. 24 hours since rupture of her membranes, no spontaneous labour was noted, hence a syntocinon/oxytocin infusion (10 units in 1L of Hartmann solution) was started at 3DmL/hour and increased to 120 mL over 9 hours. After 10 hours of infusion, during which Syntocinon dosage was increased to 30 units per litre, contractions were noted. Which is the most common complication of Syntocinon infusion?

      Your Answer: Fetal distress.

      Explanation:

      In this case, induction of labour at 37 weeks of gestation was necessary due to the absence of spontaneous of labour 24 hours after rupture of membranes. High doses of Syntocin and large volume of fluids may be required particularly when induction is done before term.

      Syntocin infusion can lead to uterine hypertonus and tetany which can result in fetal distress at any dosage. This is a common reason to decrease or stop the infusion and an indication for Caesarean delivery due to fetal distress

      Uterine rupture can occur as a result of Syntocin infusion especially when the accompanying fluids do not contain electrolytes, which puts the patient at risk for water intoxication.

      Maternal hypotension results from Syntocin infusion, not hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation.

      Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.

      For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.

      Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 33-year-old female presents with 3 months of irregular vaginal bleeding. Prior to...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female presents with 3 months of irregular vaginal bleeding. Prior to this her menstrual periods were normal.

      Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial laboratory test for this patient?

      Your Answer: hCG

      Explanation:

      In women of childbearing age, the most likely cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding is pregnancy; thus, the most appropriate initial test would be an hCG level. Once pregnancy has been excluded, patient history would guide further testing. Iatrogenic causes, usually resulting from certain medicines or supplements, are the next most common cause in this age group, followed by systemic disorders. Haemoglobin and haematocrit would be appropriate only if the patient seemed acutely anaemic due to the abnormal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent CT scan. Last week, the patient was involved in a car accident and had a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis to rule out any intraabdominal trauma. The CT scan revealed a uterus that was significantly enlarged, with several intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata that did not squeeze the ureters or the surrounding intestine. The patient has a monthly menstrual period with light bleeding lasting four days. On the first day of her monthly period, she normally has stomach discomfort but does not require pain medication. There are no changes in bowel habits, urine frequency, urgency, or chronic pelvic pain in the patient. She doesn't have any chronic illnesses and doesn't use any drugs on a daily basis. The patient is in a monogamous, same-sex relationship and experiences no discomfort during sexual activity. The vital signs are OK, and the BMI is 24 kilograms per square metre. The lower abdomen has an irregularly expanded mass, which is consistent with uterine leiomyomata.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Combination oral contraceptive pills

      Correct Answer: Observation and reassurance only

      Explanation:

      Leiomyomas uterine (fibroids)
      Clinical features:
      Menses that are heavy and last a long time, symptoms of pressure, pelvic discomfort, constipation, frequency of urination, complications during pregnancy, fertility problems, loss of pregnancy, premature birth, uterus enlargement and irregularity

      Workup:
      Ultrasound

      Treatment:
      Asymptomatic: monitoring
      Surgical intervention, hormonal contraception

      This patient has uterine leiomyomata, or fibroids, which are benign smooth muscle (myometrial) tumours that are very prevalent in adult women (up to 25%). These tumours can expand the endometrium’s surface area, the uterus’ overall size and thickness, and compress adjacent structures; nevertheless, some individuals have no symptoms and are identified by chance during a physical examination or imaging (as in this patient’s CT scan after a car accident).
      Heavy, prolonged menses are among the indications for uterine leiomyomata treatment (particularly if associated with anaemia).
      Pelvic discomfort that persists (e.g., dyspareunia).
      Symptoms in abundance (e.g., pelvic pressure, hydronephrosis, constipation).
      Recurrent miscarriages.
      Medical or surgical treatment options are available for patients with these clinical characteristics (e.g., myomectomy).

      This woman had mild menses and no pelvic discomfort or mass symptoms while having many big intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata (e.g., no ureter compression). There is no need for extra treatment in persons with asymptomatic fibroids. Only observation and reassurance are required.
      In the treatment of symptomatic fibroids, a combination of oral contraceptive pills and progestin-containing intrauterine devices can be utilised, although they are not required in the management of asymptomatic fibroids. Furthermore, this patient has a minimal risk of unwanted pregnancy (e.g., monogamous, same-sex relationship), and the hazards of these contraceptives (e.g., venous thromboembolism, uterine perforation) outweigh the benefits.

      GnRH agonist therapy (e.g., leuprolide) is a treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids that works by inhibiting pulsatile FSH and LH production in the hypothalamus, lowering oestrogen levels. Low oestrogen levels cause a temporary reduction in leiomyoma size, which helps with heavy menses and bulky symptoms. Because long-term usage of GnRH agonists is linked to an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, they are only administered preoperatively.

      Tranexamic acid is a nonhormonal medicinal medication that reduces heavy menstrual bleeding by preventing fibrin breakdown (i.e., an antifibrinolytic drug). This patient’s menses are light.
      Uterine leiomyomata (fibroids) are benign myometrial tumours that can produce a range of symptoms but are often identified by chance. Heavy menstrual blood, pelvic pain, and bulk symptoms are all indications for treatment. Patients with asymptomatic fibroids merely need to be monitored and reassured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last...

    Incorrect

    • A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last and only pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 3 years ago. Contractions are 6 minutes apart and on examination and the cervix is 6cm dilated. She wants to know the chances of a successful vaginal delivery if she proceeds with a vaginal delivery after C-section(VBAC). What is the chance of successful delivery with VBAC?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      There is 70% chance that a women who has had a C-section can deliver via spontaneous vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The metabolic adaptations of pregnancy are orchestrated by hormones produced by the placenta and maternal pituitary gland, which undergo dramatic changes during gestation. After involution of ovarian sex steroid production by wk 6, placental oestrogen and progesterone production increases exponentially to term. Concurrently, there are progressive increases in prolactin (PRL), produced by the maternal pituitary gland and decidua, and human chorionic somatomammotropin (CSH, also called human placental lactogen), which has structural similarities to GH and PRL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new partner and she are arranging a trip to Thailand. She has no contraindications.

      What is the best piece of advice?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pills and condoms

      Explanation:

      OCPs should be started in this patient as well as condoms to prevent likely sexually transmitted infections.

      Condoms alone are not effective for prevention of pregnancy.

      OCPs alone do not prevent from sexually transmitted infections.

      It is not appropriate to inform the parents and the patient hasn’t refused any advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and some weight gain reports to clinic for a review. Her medical records show evidence of hypothyroidism. On examination, a non tender, hard goitre is palpated. Further tests reveal elevated anti TPO (anti thyroid peroxidase) and anti -Tg (anti thyroglobulin). Which of the following conditions is most likely to present like this?

      Your Answer: Hashimoto's

      Explanation:

      The case presented points to a diagnosis of an autoimmune thyroiditis leading to hypothyroidism. The most common form of autoimmune hypothyroidism, Hashimoto’s, often presents with a goitre, positive for antibody tests against thyroid components i.e. anti-TPO and anti-thyroglobulin. Graves disease and toxic diffuse goitre are more likely to cause hyperthyroidism. While De-Quervain’s and endemic goitre may cause hypothyroidism, they don’t result in positive antibody tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Nipple stimulation during breastfeeding triggers the production of oxytocin from the hypothalamus and its subsequent release from the posterior pituitary gland. The hormone causes the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract causing milk to flow through the ducts.

      Ergometrine and Prostaglandin E2 are used during labour to control uterine bleeding after delivery, or ripen the cervix, while Atosiban is an oxytocin antagonist.

      Antidiuretic hormone is also released from the posterior pituitary, and acts on the kidneys to decrease fluid excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - What is the typical weight of a term uterus? ...

    Correct

    • What is the typical weight of a term uterus?

      Your Answer: 1200g

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium. Weight of the uterus increases from 50–60 g prior to pregnancy to 1000 g by term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one?

      Your Answer: Saphenofemoral Junction

      Correct Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The contents of the femoral triangles are femoral nerve, artery and the vein. Along with the femoral sheath and lymphatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 33 year old pregnant lady was brought into the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old pregnant lady was brought into the emergency department with per vaginal bleeding. She has been having labour pains for the last 2 hours. O/E: her cervix was 2cm dilated. Which stage of labour is she in now?

      Your Answer: First stage

      Explanation:

      There are 3 stages of labour. The 1st stage of labour starts from labour contractions till the time the cervix is fully dilated. Stage 2 is from complete cervical dilatation until the baby is born. The 3rd stage is from the birth of the baby, until the time the placenta is expelled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - The Mantoux test utilises what type of hypersensitivity reaction? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Mantoux test utilises what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

      Your Answer: Type I

      Correct Answer: Type IV

      Explanation:

      The Mantoux test is based on type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - During pregnancy, maternal oestrogen levels increase markedly. Most of this oestrogen is produced...

    Correct

    • During pregnancy, maternal oestrogen levels increase markedly. Most of this oestrogen is produced by the:

      Your Answer: Placenta

      Explanation:

      The placenta does not have all the necessary enzymes to make oestrogens from cholesterol, or even progesterone. Human trophoblast lack 17-hydroxylase and therefore cannot convert C21-steroids to C19-steroids, the immediate precursors of oestrogen. To bypass this deficit, dehydroisoandrosterone sulphate (DHA) from the fetal adrenal is converted to estradiol-17ί by trophoblasts. In its key location as a way station between mother and foetus, placenta can use precursors from either mother or foetus to circumvent its own deficiencies in enzyme activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - At what stage of gestation does maternal immunoglobulin G transfer to the foetus...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of gestation does maternal immunoglobulin G transfer to the foetus start?

      Your Answer: 18 weeks

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transportation of the maternal IgG through the placenta starts around the 12 week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the: ...

    Correct

    • After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the:

      Your Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      Immediately after birth the liver is deprived of the large flow of blood supplied during foetal development via the umbilical vein and portal sinus. Simultaneously the blood pressure in the portal sinus, previously as high as in the umbilical vein, falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks. She complains of difficulty breathing and a distended belly. U/S scan was done showing polyhydramnios and an absent gastric bubble. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal atresia

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia of the foetus interrupts the normal circulation of the amniotic fluid. This causes polyhydramnios and subsequent distension of the uterus impacting proper expansion of the lungs. This would explain the difficulty breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman would usually take her oral contraceptive pill (ethinyl oestradiol 30µg, levonorgestrel 150 µg) each night at around 11 pm. One day, she presents at 7pm and says that she had forgotten to take her pill the evening before and would like some advice as to what she should do. Last sexual intercourse was last night and she is now on day-27 of her cycle. She is due to take her last pill tonight and then start the first of seven lactose tablets tomorrow night.

      What would be the best advice to give her?

      Your Answer: Take a double dose (two tablets) now, then continue the original course, taking the next tablet tomorrow night.

      Correct Answer: Stop the current course of contraceptive pills, and start the next course of hormone tab lets in five days’ time.

      Explanation:

      Taking into consideration that she had only missed one pill and that they were going to be stopped the next day anyway, the rate of pregnancy would be low; hence all of the responses would be acceptable and effective. However, the most appropriate step would be to initiate her hormone-free interval starting from the time she missed her pill i.e. 11pm the night before. This would make tonight the 2nd lactose pill day and hence she should commence the next course of hormone pills on the 5 nights from tonight. In doing this, her hormone-free period would be the usual length of 7 days. Although the risk of pregnancy is low after missing only one pill, this opposite occurs when the missed pill causes a longer than normal hormone-free duration between the end of the current cycle and the starting of the subsequent one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The endometrial thickness is 6mm, according to transvaginal ultrasound. To rule out endometrial cancer, you plan to send this patient to a gynaecologist for an endometrial biopsy with or without hysteroscopy.

      Which of the following characteristics in your medical history is linked to a higher risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome associated with chronic anovulation

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) have a 2.7-fold increased risk for developing endometrial cancer. A major factor for this increased malignancy risk is prolonged exposure of the endometrium to unopposed oestrogen that results from anovulation.

      Additionally, secretory endometrium of some women with PCOS undergoing ovulation induction or receiving exogenous progestin exhibits progesterone resistance accompanied by dysregulation of gene expression controlling steroid action and cell proliferation.

      Other risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche and late menopause, obesity and family history of endometrial cancer. Which rules out all the other options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Clotting factor problem

      Explanation:

      Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages presented at 9 weeks of gestation with per vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage. The mechanisms by which antiphospholipid antibodies cause pregnancy morbidity include inhibition of trophoblastic function and differentiation, activation of complement pathways at the maternal–fetal interface, resulting in a local inflammatory response and, in later pregnancy, thrombosis of the uteroplacental vasculature. This patient should be offered referral to a specialist clinic as she has had recurrent miscarriages. Low dose aspirin is one of the treatment options to prevent further miscarriage for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - During pregnancy which hormone(s) inhibit lactogenesis? ...

    Correct

    • During pregnancy which hormone(s) inhibit lactogenesis?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Prolactin levels rise steadily during pregnancy during which time it promotes mammary growth (along with the other hormones mentioned below). Oestrogen and progesterone inhibit lactogenesis and it is only with the loss of these placental steroid hormones at term that Prolactin exhibits its lactogenic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - What is the prevalence of antiphospholipid syndrome in patients with recurrent miscarriage? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the prevalence of antiphospholipid syndrome in patients with recurrent miscarriage?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Anti phospholipid syndrome is an autoimmune disorder in which abnormal antibodies are formed which increases the risk of blood clots to develop in vessels and leads to recurrent miscarriages to occurs. The changes of recurrent miscarriage in a previously known case of APL is 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient...

    Incorrect

    • You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient by your consultant. The pudendal nerve is formed from which spinal segments?

      Your Answer: S3,S4 and S5

      Correct Answer: S2,S3 and S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve has its origins form S2, S3 and S4 spinal segments. It provides sensation to the clitoris and labia along with the ilioinguinal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Listeria Monocytogenes is a cause of congenital infection. The most common source of the bacteria is food, especially unpasteurised milk. Congenital listeriosis can lead to spontaneous abortions, premature birth and chorioamnionitis. At birth, neonates may present with septicaemia, respiratory distress and inflammatory granulomatosis. The case mortality rate for listeriosis is thought to be between 20-30%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Herpes Simplex is which type of virus ...

    Incorrect

    • Herpes Simplex is which type of virus

      Your Answer: single stranded RNA

      Correct Answer: double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex is a double stranded DNA virus. There are two viral types, HSV-1 and HSV-2. The majority of orolabial infections are caused by HSV-1. These infections are usually acquired during childhood through direct physical contact such as kissing. Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection and is most commonly caused by HSV-2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that is reported as showing a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mature teratoma

      Explanation:

      Dermoid cysts and teratomas contain elements from multiple germ cell layers. They are often considered the same entity (even in medical texts) however a dermoid is composed only of dermal and epidermal elements. A teratoma has mesodermal and endodermal elements Mature teratomas are composed of well-differentiated derivations from at least 2/3 germ cell layers (i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm). They contain developmentally mature skin complete with hair follicles, sweat glands, sometimes hair, and sometimes sebum, blood, fat, bone, nails, teeth, eyes, cartilage, and thyroid tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      19.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/13) 38%
Gynaecology (9/18) 50%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Management (4/12) 33%
Obstetrics (9/23) 39%
Biophysics (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Microbiology (2/7) 29%
Physiology (3/5) 60%
Epidemiology (1/2) 50%
Data Interpretation (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (4/4) 100%
Immunology (1/3) 33%
Embryology (2/4) 50%
Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
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