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  • Question 1 - A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the most compelling indication for starting HRT?

      Your Answer: Prevention of osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Control of vasomotor symptoms such as flushing

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to help alleviate menopausal symptoms. The main indication is the control of vasomotor symptoms. The other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy and prevention of osteoporosis, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      160.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, currently under treatment with simvastatin 10mg was found to have persistently high cholesterol levels. Previous attempts to increase the dose of simvastatin have resulted in myalgia. Given this history, which one of the following lipid-regulating drugs should definitely be avoided?

      Your Answer: Bezafibrate

      Explanation:

      Both fibrates and nicotinic acid have been associated with myositis, especially when combined with a statin. However, the Committee on Safety of Medicines has produced guidance which specifically warns about the concomitant prescription of fibrates with statins concerning muscle toxicity.Bezafibrate: It is a fibric acid derivative (fibrate) that has been used as a class of agents known to decrease triglyceride levels while substantially increasing HDL-C levels.Pharmacological effects:- Increases VLDL catabolism by increasing lipoprotein and hepatic triglyceride lipase.- Decreases triglyceride synthesis by inhibiting acetyl-CoA reductase.- Decreases cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase.Side effects:- Hypersensitivity- Primary biliary cirrhosis- Pre-existing gallbladder disease- Concurrent use with HMG-CoA inhibitors (statins) can produce myopathy- Hepatic/renal impairment in a patient warrants dose adjustment as this drug is primarily excreted via the renal mechanism.Contraindications: Concurrent use of MAO inhibitors, hypersensitivity, pre-existing cholestasis, and pregnancy.Use: It can be used to treat Barth syndrome (characterized by dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia (presenting with recurrent infections), skeletal myopathy and short stature)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The extrinsic coagulation pathway is initiated by activation of which clotting factor? ...

    Incorrect

    • The extrinsic coagulation pathway is initiated by activation of which clotting factor?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Correct Answer: Factor VII

      Explanation:

      The tissue factor pathway (extrinsic) begins following damage to the blood vessel. FVII leaves the circulation and comes into contact with tissue factor (TF) expressed on tissue-factor-bearing cells (stromal fibroblasts and leukocytes), forming an activated complex (TF-FVIIa).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      141.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 62 year old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders....

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also finds it difficult to get out of her chair. From the list of symptoms below, choose the one most likely to support the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Your Answer: Proximal muscle weakness

      Correct Answer: Low grade fever

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disease which usually causes stiffness and pain in the shoulder – this can also occur in the pelvic girdle muscles. Its onset can either be subacute or acute and is associated with a systemic inflammatory response. This, therefore, causes symptoms such as fever, weight loss, anorexia, and malaise. Polymyalgia rheumatica is unpredictable in its course and it is known that 30 per cent of patients also present with giant cell arteritis. The cause of this disease is unknown but studies have shown it have infectious origins. Diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica can be difficult and other inflammatory diseases have to be excluded first. Patients with this disease are usually over 60 years of age (it is very rarely seen in those under 50). Muscle weakness does not present, although this can be hard to assess when the patient is in pain. Low-grade fever and weight loss are typical of this disease due to chronic inflammation. As such, weight gain is very rare and peripheral joints are usually not affected (they can be affected but it is very rare). Also, muscle tenderness is not a specific symptom of the disease – it is therefore not a classical finding of polymyalgia rheumatica. Although patients usually complain of stiffness and pain, the muscles are usually not significantly tender – this is usually more associated with fibromyalgia or myositis. When investigated, a normochromic/normocytic anaemia; a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate often over 50 mm/hr., and raised C reactive protein are usually revealed. Symptoms of giant cell arteritis should also be sought, such as headaches, visual disturbances, TIAs (transient ischemic attacks), jaw claudication, and thickened temporal arteries. The patient response to a moderate dose of steroids is useful when confirming a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica. The maximum dose of prednisolone should not exceed 20mg once a day. After treatment, patients should show a 70 per cent improvement in symptoms within a month (between 3-4 weeks). Inflammatory markers should also fall back to their normal levels. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are of little use and are associated with morbidity. There is also little evidence for the use of steroidal-sparing agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      267.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - With regard to the cell membrane: ...

    Correct

    • With regard to the cell membrane:

      Your Answer: It consists of an outer hydrophilic & an inner hydrophobic layer

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane consists primarily of a thin layer of amphipathic phospholipids that spontaneously arrange with the hydrophobic tail regions on the inside and the hydrophilic head regions outside. Membranes typically have a large content of proteins, around 50% of membrane volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Where does protein digestion begin? ...

    Correct

    • Where does protein digestion begin?

      Your Answer: Stomach

      Explanation:

      Digestion typically begins in the stomach when pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by the action of hydrochloric acid, and continued by trypsin and chymotrypsin in the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb...

    Correct

    • A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb joint pain and lower backache for the past 2 weeks. He remembers getting a mild gastrointestinal infection while in Spain 6 weeks ago that settled spontaneously. There has been eye irritation that has now settled. Past surgical history includes an appendectomy 3 years back. Vital examination shows a temperature of 37.5 C. Lab results reveal a normal WBC and raised ESR. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor is likely to be negative

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. There usually is no rash and the diagnosis is unrelated to the presence of rheumatoid factor. This is a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - With regard to the spleen which of the following has the correct match?...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the spleen which of the following has the correct match?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Periarteriolar lymphoid sheets - T lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      The spleen consists of:Red pulp – responsible for mechanical filtration of red blood cells. Red pulp contains sinusoids, which are filled with blood, splenic cords of reticular fibers and a marginal zoneWhite pulp – responsible for active immune response through humoral and cell-mediated pathways. Composed of nodules, called Malpighian corpuscles. These are composed of: lymphoid follicles, rich in B-lymphocytes and periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths, rich in T-lymphocytes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      The following is a list of factors associated with an increased tendency toward torsades de pointes:- Hypokalaemia (low blood potassium)- Hypomagnesemia (low blood magnesium)- Hypocalcaemia (low blood calcium)- Bradycardia (slow heartbeat)- Heart failure- Left ventricular hypertrophy- Hypothermia- Subarachnoid haemorrhage- Hypothyroidism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following results in the resting membrane potential of a myocyte?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following results in the resting membrane potential of a myocyte?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activation of outward K+ channels

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 is caused by the sodium current. Voltage gated sodium channels open leading to the influx of sodium into the cardiac muscle cell. Phase 1 is the rapid transient repolarization phase which is caused by the inactivation of the voltage gated sodium channels and opening of the voltage gated potassium channels along with opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 2 which is the plateau is caused by opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 4 is caused by closing of the slow calcium channels and opening of the potassium channels leading to efflux of potassium leading to the establishment of the resting membrane potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The brainstem contains which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The brainstem contains which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The midbrain, pons and medulla

      Explanation:

      Brain stem is the base of the brain that connects the brain to the spinal cord. It consists of the mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Bacteria constantly remodel their peptidoglycan cell walls, simultaneously building and breaking down portions of the cell wall as they grow and divide. β-Lactam antibiotics inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall; this is achieved through binding of the four-membered β-lactam ring of penicillin to the enzyme DD-transpeptidase. As a consequence, DD-transpeptidase cannot catalyse formation of these cross-links, and an imbalance between cell wall production and degradation develops, causing the cell to rapidly die.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site...

    Incorrect

    • Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole

      Explanation:

      The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Causes of hair loss include:

      • Dissecting cellulitis
      • Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      • Folliculitis
      • Secondary syphilis
      • Demodex folliculorum
      • Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).

      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided? ...

    Incorrect

    • Into how many functional units can the cerebellum be divided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The functional division of the cerebellum are the: Vestibulocerebellum (floculonodular lobe), Spinocerebellum (vermis and associated areas in the midline) and cerebrocerebellum (lateral hemispheres).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - When observing a JVP, which of the following would lead to prominent v...

    Incorrect

    • When observing a JVP, which of the following would lead to prominent v waves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The v wave corresponds to Venous filling when the tricuspid valve is closed and venous pressure increases from venous return. In Tricuspid regurgitation there is additional blood from the regurgitant flow and thus this leads to a more prominent V wave.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is NOT a component of bile? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a component of bile?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unconjugated bilirubin

      Explanation:

      The composition of gallbladder bile is 97% water, 0.7% bile salts, 0.2% bilirubin, 0.51% fats (cholesterol, fatty acids and lecithin), and 200 meq/l inorganic salts (electrolytes).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following symptoms would point towards an inflammatory joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marked stiffness for more than an hour in the mornings

      Explanation:

      In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), clinical symptoms of joint stiffness, pain, and functional disability are commonly most severe in the early morning. These symptoms closely follow the circadian rhythm of the pro-inflammatory cytokine, interleukin (IL)-6. In RA, the increase in nocturnal anti-inflammatory cortisol secretion is insufficient to suppress ongoing inflammation, resulting in the morning symptoms characteristic of RA. Established diagnostic criteria for RA include prolonged morning stiffness that could last up to an hour. Loss of joint mobility, pain, malaise and swelling of finger joints are features that are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis, and are found in many other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct statement about the microanatomy of the thyroid gland.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The capillaries adjacent to thyroid cells have a fenestrated endothelium.

      Explanation:

      Fenestrated capillaries have a very thin endothelium, which is perforated by numerous fenestrations or pores. Hormones are usually released into these capillaries, reaching their target cells through the circulatory system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The p53 tumour suppressor gene is located on? ...

    Incorrect

    • The p53 tumour suppressor gene is located on?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 17

      Explanation:

      P53 is classified as a tumour suppressor gene and is located on the short arm of chromosome 17.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the most important determinant of ECF volume? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important determinant of ECF volume?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The amount of sodium in the ECF

      Explanation:

      The volume of the ECF is determined primarily by the total amount of osmotically active solute in the ECF. The composition of the ECF is discussed in Chapter 1. Because Na+ and Cl− are by far the most abundant osmotically active solutes in ECF, and because changes in Cl− are to a great extent secondary to changes in Na+, the amount of Na+ in the ECF is the most important determinant of ECF volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Absorption of protein antigens i.e. bacterial and viral proteins takes place in the:...

    Incorrect

    • Absorption of protein antigens i.e. bacterial and viral proteins takes place in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microfold cells (m cells) of the intestine

      Explanation:

      M cells are specialized epithelial cells. They have a high capacity of transcytosis of microorganisms and macromolecules. They rapidly uptake antigens and present them to immune cells associated with the gut. In contrast to absorptive enterocytes, M cells do not exert direct defence mechanisms to antigens and pathogens in the intestinal cavity. Crypts of Lieberkühn are located mainly in the small intestine and large intestine and the main function is to replenish epithelial cells and to secrete intestinal enzymatic juice as well as mucous. Brunner’s glands empty into intestinal glands and their main function is to secrete mucin and to form a protective mucus layer on the duodenal epithelial cells to protect it from acidic chyme coming from the stomach. Islets of Langerhans are located in the pancreas and secrets insulin mainly. Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue plays a role in inducing immune response after presentation of antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The TSH receptor produces its effects in the thyrocyte via: ...

    Incorrect

    • The TSH receptor produces its effects in the thyrocyte via:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G-protein coupled activation of adenylyl cyclise and phospholipase c

      Explanation:

      The thyrotropin receptor, also known as TSH receptor, responds to the thyroid stimulating hormone or thyrotropin to stimulate production of T3 and T4. It is a G protein-coupled receptor which leads to stimulation of phospholipase C and adenylyl cyclase, mediated by Gq/11 and Gs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The thalamus is a large collection of neuronal groups within the diencephalons which...

    Incorrect

    • The thalamus is a large collection of neuronal groups within the diencephalons which participates in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensory, motor and limbic

      Explanation:

      The thalamus has multiple functions. It is the relay station for every sensory system (except olfactory, regulates the sleep-wake cycle and consciousness and also relays motor information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the average life span of eosinophils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average life span of eosinophils?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18 hours

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils have a circulating half-life of approximately 18 hours and a tissue life span of at least 6 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high dose steroids for a few days. The nurses report that she is very agitated and talks about trying to open the window of her room and jump out from the fourth floor.You review her notes and see that she admits to drinking a few glasses of wine per week and has smoked cannabis on a few occasions.On examination her BP is 145/88 mmHg, her pulse is 80 bpm.Blood investigations reveal:Haemoglobin: 12.1 g/dL (11.5-16.5)WBC count: 16.2 x 103/dL (4-11)Platelets: 200 x 109/L (150-400)C-reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10)Sodium: 140 mmol/l (135-146)Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5)Creatinine: 92 μmol/l (79-118)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroid-related psychosis

      Explanation:

      Agitation, hypomania and suicidal intent within a few days after initiating corticosteroid therapy is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of corticosteroid-induced psychosis.In some patients corticosteroid related psychosis has been diagnosed up to 12 weeks or more after commencing therapy.Euphoria and hypomania are considered to be the most common psychiatric symptoms reported during short courses of steroids.During long-term treatment, depressive symptoms were the most common. Higher steroid doses appear to carry an increased risk for such adverse effects; however, there is no significant relationship between dose and time to onset, duration, and severity of symptoms. Management: Reduction or cessation of corticosteroids is the mainstay of treatment for steroid psychosis. For those patients who cannot tolerate this reduction/cessation of steroids, mood stabilizers may be of some benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35 year old sales representative presents with severe pain going down her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old sales representative presents with severe pain going down her neck and right arm. She admits that this pain is worse on sitting and driving for long periods. Past history is significant for two previous road traffic accidents. Examination reveals weakness and sensory loss over C5/C6 nerve distribution. There is pain with neck movement and particularly extension. Which of the following investigations would be the most helpful in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI scan of the cervical spinal cord

      Explanation:

      Cervical radiculopathy is usually due to compression or injury to a nerve root by a herniated disc or degenerative changes. Levels C5 to T1 are the most commonly affected. It is usually, but not always, accompanied by cervical radicular pain, a sharp and shooting pain that travels from the neck and down the upper limb and may be severe. This needs to be differentiated from pain referred from the musculoskeletal (somatic) structures in the neck, which may be aching rather than sharp, and is more severe in the neck than in the upper limb. The neurological signs of cervical radiculopathy depend on the site of the lesion. The patient may have motor dysfunction, sensory deficits or alteration in tendon reflexes. While pain is a common presenting symptom, not all radiculopathies are painful (i.e. only motor deficits may be obvious). CT scanning cannot accurately demonstrate the commonest cause for cervical radiculopathy (disc herniation) without myelography, which requires hospital admission, lumbar puncture and the use of contrast. In patients with cervical radiculopathy, MRI is the imaging technique of choice for the detection of root compression by disc herniation and osteophytes. MRI allows the nerve roots to be directly visualised. Nerve conduction studies are also useful in determining the nerve roots that are involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair: ...

    Incorrect

    • Acetylcholine from enteric nerve endings stimulates this pair:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal cells and chief cells

      Explanation:

      In the body of the stomach, the vagal postganglionic muscarinic nerves release acetylcholine(ACh) which stimulates parietal cell H+ secretion. Gastric chief cells are primarily activated by ACh. However the decrease in pH caused by activation of parietal cells further activates gastric chief cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat...

    Incorrect

    • What is the fat called that serves as a considerable source of heat in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brown adipose tissue

      Explanation:

      Brown adipose tissue, also known as BAT or brown fat, coforms the adipose tissue along with white adipose tissue (WAT) or white fat. While WAT is responsible for energy-storage, BAT is involved in thermogenesis and energy expenditure. It is more prevalent in children than in adults, and its activation during adolescence is associated to less weight gain and adiposity. BAT produces heat by non-shivering thermogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - After exercise, O2 debt repay may take up to: ...

    Incorrect

    • After exercise, O2 debt repay may take up to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90 min

      Explanation:

      Physical activity or exercise requires oxygen for production of ATP or energy via aerobic pathways of energy production. When the amount of oxygen that reaches muscles depletes, cells start producing energy anaerobically by partial breakdown of glucose resulting in lactic acid. Lactic acid should be removed from cells as it causes muscle fatigue. Oxygen is needed to oxidize lactic acid in to carbon dioxide and water and this need is known as oxygen debt. The existence of an oxygen debt explains why we continue to breathe deeply and quickly for a while after exercise. This may take up from 60 – 90 mins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (4/7) 57%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Geriatrics (0/1) 0%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (1/1) 100%
Passmed