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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is a feature of a central venous pressure waveform?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a feature of a central venous pressure waveform?

      Your Answer: A prominent a wave in atrial fibrillation

      Correct Answer: An a wave due to atrial contraction

      Explanation:

      The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

      A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

      C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

      X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

      V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

      Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 43-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department with a traumatic amputation...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department with a traumatic amputation of his leg at mid-thigh level. Resuscitation with 1 L gelofusine was done and four units of packed red blood cells were given before theatre. Thirty minutes following blood transfusion, the patient became flushed, breathless, hypotensive, develops haemoglobinuria, and had a fever of 38oC.

      Which one of the following correctly explains the patient signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Activation of classic complement pathway

      Explanation:

      This may be the classical case of blood transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility.

      Here red cells are destroyed in the bloodstream with the release of haemoglobin in circulation (causing haemoglobinuria). Here, IgM or IgG anti-A or anti-B antibody can cause rapid activation of complement cascade usually the classical pathway. This is called intravascular haemolysis.

      There may be extravascular haemolysis by cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system situated in the liver and spleen. Extravascular red cell destruction can increase breakdown products of haemoglobin, such as bilirubin and urobilinogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is included in monosynaptic reflexes? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is included in monosynaptic reflexes?

      Your Answer: The patellar or knee jerk reflex.

      Explanation:

      Monosynaptic reflexes is a type of reflex arc providing direct communication between motor and sensory innervation in a muscle. It occurs very quickly as it arises and ends in the same muscle. Examples include: biceps reflex, brachioradialis reflex, extensor digitorum reflex, triceps reflex, Achilles reflex and patellar reflex.

      Polysynaptic reflexes facilitates contraction and inhibition in muscle by providing communication between multiple muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Iron is one of the most important micronutrients in the body.

    Out of...

    Incorrect

    • Iron is one of the most important micronutrients in the body.

      Out of the following, which one has the most abundant storage of iron in the body?

      Your Answer: Transferrin bound iron

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Iron is a necessary micronutrient for proper erythropoietic function, oxidative metabolism, and cellular immune responses. Although dietary iron absorption (1-2 mg/d) is tightly controlled, it is only just balanced by losses.

      The adult body contains 35-45 mg/kg iron (about 4-5 g)

      Iron can be found in a variety of forms, including haemoglobin, ferritin, haemosiderin, myoglobin, haem enzymes, and transferrin bound proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result...

    Incorrect

    • During a squint surgery, a 5-year-old child developed severe bradycardia as a result of the oculocardiac reflex.

      The afferent limb of this reflex is formed by which nerve?

      Your Answer: Vagus nerve

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      When the eye is compressed or the extra-ocular muscles are tractioned, the oculocardiac reflex causes a decrease in heart rate.

      The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve provides the afferent limb. This synapses with the vagus nerve’s visceral motor nucleus in the brainstem. The efferent signal is carried by the vagus nerve to the heart, where increased parasympathetic tone reduces sinoatrial node output and slows heart rate.

      The most common symptom is sinus bradycardia, but junctional rhythm and asystole can also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It...

    Incorrect

    • A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.

      What is most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer: Rocuronium in renal failure

      Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

      The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

      Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

      Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

      Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

      Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the cricoid cartilage is true?

      Your Answer: A force of 4 newtons must be applied to the cricoid cartilage to control regurgitation

      Correct Answer: The lower border is attached to the first tracheal ring

      Explanation:

      The cricoid cartilage is a hyaline cartilage ring surrounding the trachea. It provides support for key phonation muscles.

      The inferior border of the cricoid cartilage is attached to the thyroid cartilage and the inferior border is attached to the first tracheal ring through the cricotracheal ligament.

      Application of pressure to the cricoid cartilage to reduce risk of aspiration of gastric contents (Sellick manoeuvre) does not stop tracheal aspiration and cannot stop regurgitation into the oesophagus.

      A force of 44 newtons to the cricoid cartilage is needed to control regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Antomy
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Concerning the intercostal nerves, which one of the following is true? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning the intercostal nerves, which one of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Each is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk

      Explanation:

      The intercostal nerves arise from the ventral rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves. they course along the costal groove on the lower margin of the rib.

      The twelfth intercoastal nerve is called the subcostal nerve. This is because it is below the 12th rib.

      Each intercostal nerve is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk from which it carries preganglionic and postganglionic fibres that innervate blood vessels, sweat glands, and muscles.

      The lateral and medial pectoral nerves innervates pectoralis major muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local...

    Incorrect

    • Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local anaesthetic technique is performed.

      Your Answer: Brachial plexus block

      Correct Answer: Intercostal nerve block

      Explanation:

      An intercostal nerve block is used for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Intercostal nerve blocks manage acute and chronic pain in the chest area. Common indications are chest wall surgery and shingles or postherpetic neuralgia.

      An intercostal nerve block is also an effective option for the management of pain associated with chest trauma and rib fractures. These blocks have been shown to improve oxygenation and respiratory mechanics, and offer pain relief that is comparable to that of epidural analgesia.

      This technique, however, is limited by the relatively large doses of local anaesthetic required, and relatively high intravascular uptake from the intercostal space, increasing risk of local anaesthetic toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

    1 mg midazolam...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

      1 mg midazolam is used to induce anaesthesia, followed by 75 mg propofol.

      Which of the following options best describes how these two drugs interact pharmacologically?

      Your Answer: Synergism

      Explanation:

      Drug interactions can be seen in the following examples:

      Additive interaction (summation).

      Additive effects are described for intravenous drug combinations such as ketamine and thiopentone or ketamine and midazolam. Different mechanisms of action are used by them. Thiopentone and midazolam are GABAA receptor agonists, whereas ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nitrous oxide and halothane are two other examples.

      Synergism is a supra-additive interaction.

      Refers to the administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological properties and closely related sites of action, resulting in a combined effect that is greater than the sum of the contributions of each component. The construction of an isobologram can be used to interpret and understand these. The best example is the hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines and intravenous induction agents like propofol. As part of a co-induction technique, midazolam is frequently given before propofol.

      Potentiation

      In a dose-dependent manner, volatile agents enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. Electrolyte disturbance (hypomagnesaemia), Penicillin, and probenecid can all increase the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (the latter has no similar pharmacological activity).

      Infra-additive interaction (antagonism).

      This can be subdivided into the following categories:

      -Pharmacokinetic interference occurs when one drug affects the absorption of another through the gastrointestinal tract or when hepatic microsomal enzyme induction influences metabolism.
      -Heparin and protamine, for example, or heavy metals and chelating agents, are examples of chemical antagonists.
      -Competitive reversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors, such as opioids and naloxone, and irreversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Very small SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

    One femtolitre is equal...

    Incorrect

    • Very small SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

      One femtolitre is equal to which of the following volumes?

      Your Answer: 0.000, 001 L

      Correct Answer: 0.000, 000, 000, 000, 001 L

      Explanation:

      Small measurement units are denoted by the followingĀ SI mathematical prefixes:

      1 deci = 0.1
      1 milli = 0.001
      1 micro = 0.000001
      1 nano = 0.000000001
      1 pico = 0.000000000001
      1 femto = 0.000000000000001 (used to measure red blood cell volume)
      1 atto = 0.000000000000000001

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine in CNS?

      Your Answer: Most of the administered dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting occur commonly due to Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) stimulation by dopamine (Domperidone but not metoclopramide can be used for the treatment of this vomiting)

      Dopamine itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) but its precursor levodopa can cross BBB.

      Dopamine can modulate extrapyramidal symptoms like acute dyskinesia, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

      Dopamine inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal...

    Correct

    • According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: There are 31 pairs of spinal roots

      Explanation:

      The cylindrical structure(spine), starts from the foramen magnum in medulla oblongata at the skull’s base. Its length varies in gender with men having 45cm and women having up to 43 cm. The spine contains 31 pairs of spinal nerves, named according to the spinal region:
      – 8 cervical nerve pairs ( C1-C8)
      – 12 thoracic nerve pairs ( T1-T12)
      – 5 lumbar nerve pairs (L1-L5)
      – 5 sacral nerves (S1-S5) and
      – 1 coccygeal nerve pair.
      These spinal nerves are classified as the peripheral nervous system though they branch from the spinal cord and central nervous system. They interact directly with the spinal cord to modulate the motor and sensory information from the peripheral’s region. As the nerves emerges form the spinal cords they are known as rootlets. They join to form nerve roots, and depending on their position, we have anterior nerve roots and posterior.

      The spinal cord is supplied by two posterior and one anterior spinal arteries which anastomoses caudally, at the conus medullaris.

      The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord and medulla. Disruption of the anterior spinal artery supply is characterised by ischaemia or infarction of motor tracts (corticospinal) and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.

      The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior columns (posterior third of the spinal cord). Infarction of the posterior columns results in the loss of proprioceptive, vibration and two-point discrimination.

      The spinal cord normally ends at the level of L1 or L2 in an adult and L3 in a newborn.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following derived SI units is correctly expressed as their base units?

      Your Answer: Joule: m.kg.s-2

      Correct Answer: Volt: m2.kg.s-3.A-1

      Explanation:

      The following units are derived SI units of measurement.

      Energy or work: kg.m2.s-2
      The Joule (J) is the energy transferred to an object when a force of one newton acts on that object in the direction of its motion through a distance of one meter or N.m.

      Power: kg.m2.s-3
      The Watt (W) = rate of transfer of energy or Joule per second J/s.

      Force: kg.m.s-2
      One Newton (N) which is the international unit of measure for force = 1 kilogram meter per second squared. 1 Newton of force is the force required to accelerate an object with a mass of 1 kilogram 1 meter per second per second.

      Volt: kg.m2.s-3.A-1
      The volt (V) is defined as the potential difference across a conductor when a current of one ampere dissipates one watt of power or W/A.

      Pressure: kg.m-1.s-2
      A pascal (Pa) is force per unit area or N/m2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following closely estimates the interstitial oncotic pressure acting on a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following closely estimates the interstitial oncotic pressure acting on a pulmonary capillary?

      Your Answer: 0 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 17 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The starling forces operate to maintain a homeostatic flow across the pulmonary capillary bed.

      The outward driving force comprises of the capillary hydrostatic pressure (13 mmHg), negative interstitial fluid pressure (zero to slightly negative), and interstitial colloid osmotic pressure (17 mmHg). The inward driving force is controlled by the plasma colloid osmotic pressure (25 mmHg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An ECG shows tall tented T waves, which corresponds to phase 3 of the cardiac action potential.
      The shape of the T wave is as a result of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Fast depolarisation due to influx of potassium

      Correct Answer: Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic heart disease in a remote area are under consideration and you have been asked to look into it.

      What's the crucial factor in finding out the amount of resources needed to go ahead with the idea?

      Your Answer: Incidence

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Both incidence and prevalence are indicators of the disease frequency. While incidence tells us about the number of cases reported per population in a provided time period, prevalence is the factor you should be vigilant about as it tells us about the total number of cases that have been reported in a population at a particular point of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Given the following values:

    Expired tidal volume = 800 ml
    Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O
    PEEP...

    Correct

    • Given the following values:

      Expired tidal volume = 800 ml
      Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O
      PEEP = 10 cmH2O

      Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.

      Your Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O

      Explanation:

      Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.

      Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.

      Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.

      For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic

      Static compliance can be computed using the formula:

      Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP

      Substituting the values given,

      Cstat = 800/50-10
      Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which plasma protein will bind the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine (T3) more readily? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which plasma protein will bind the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine (T3) more readily?

      Your Answer: Albumin

      Correct Answer: Thyroxine binding globulin

      Explanation:

      Secreted T4 and T3 circulate in the bloodstream almost entirely bound to proteins. Normally only about 0.03% of total plasma T4 and 0.3% of total plasma T3 exist in the free state. Free T3 is biologically active and mediates the effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues in addition to exerting negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus. The major binding protein is thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which is synthesized in the liver and binds one molecule of T4 or T3. About 70% of circulating T4 and T3 is bound to TBGl 10% to 15% is bound to another specific thyroid-binding protein called transthyretin (TTR). Albumin binds 15% to 20%, and 3% to lipoproteins. Ordinarily only alterations in TBG concentration significantly affect total plasma T4 and T3 levels.

      Two important biological functions have been ascribed to TBG. First, it maintains a large circulating reservoir of T4 that buffers any acute changes in thyroid gland function. Second, binding of plasma T4 and T3 to proteins prevents loss of these relatively small hormone molecules in urine and thereby helps conserve iodide. TTR transports T4 in CSF and provides thyroid hormones to the CNS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by...

    Incorrect

    • In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.

      Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.

      Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old woman with a BMI of 24 kg/m2 consumes four glasses of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a BMI of 24 kg/m2 consumes four glasses of wine on an empty stomach. Her serum alcohol are levels measured over the following five hours. The serum alcohol level of 30-year-old man with the same BMI and alcohol consumption is also measured over the same duration.

      The peak concentration of alcohol is found to be greater in the woman than in the man.

      Which of these offers best explanation for this observation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      The blood alcohol concentration depends on:

      -The rate of alcohol absorption from the gastrointestinal tract
      -The volume of distribution of alcohol in the body, and
      -The rate of elimination of alcohol from the body.

      Total body water is approximately 50% in a female as compared to 60% in a typical male. This means that the volume of distribution of alcohol is lower in female compared with men. This is the principal reason for higher peak in alcohol levels.

      About 4% of ingested alcohol is metabolised by the liver accounting for first pass metabolism and 0.4% is metabolised by gastric alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH). The absorbed alcohol is NOT distributed to fat cells but it is distributed throughout the water compartments (plasma, interstitial and intracellular) of the body. Women have very little gastric ADH, which further influences this exaggerated rise.

      85-98% of the alcohol is oxidised by the liver to acetaldehyde and then to acetate. The metabolic pathway initially observes first order kinetics and then saturation or zero order kinetics leading to peaks in alcohol levels.

      Clearance of ethanol per unit lean body mass is lower in male. The calculated alcohol elimination rate and liver volume per kilogram of lean body mass were 33% and 38% higher in women than in men, respectively.

      Available evidence in the literature about the relationship of alcohol metabolism to the phases of the menstrual cycle is conflicting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating ovarian cancer.

      The efficacy of this drug can be assessed by which phase of a clinical trial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase IIa

      Explanation:

      Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to demonstrate clinical efficacy or biological activity (‘proof of concept’ studies) whereas phase IIb studies determine the optimal dose at which the drug shows biological activity with minimal side-effects (definite dose-finding studies).

      Phase III and Phase IV studies are performed on larger set of participants (usually hundreds to thousands) when safety and efficacy have been established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 46-year-old woman is listed for clipping of a cerebral aneurysm, following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman is listed for clipping of a cerebral aneurysm, following a diagnosis of surgical third nerve palsy.

      Which of the following clinical findings correlate with surgical third nerve palsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ptosis, inferolateral rotation of globe and mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Ptosis and mydriasis are visible in surgical third nerve palsy, and the eye looks ‘down and out.’ The loss of innervation to all of the major structures supplied by the oculomotor nerve is reflected in these characteristics.

      Ptosis is caused by the paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris in oculomotor nerve palsy. Due to the unopposed actions of the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles, the eye rotates down and out.

      Mydriasis is caused by surgical (compressive) causes of third nerve palsy, which disrupt the parasympathetic pupillomotor fibres on the nerve’s periphery.

      Medical (ischaemic) causes of a third nerve palsy, on the other hand, leave the superficial parasympathetic fibres relatively unaffected and the pupil unaffected.

      Horner’s syndrome is characterised by ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis, which are caused by a loss of sympathetic innervation to the tarsal muscle of the upper lid, facial skin, and dilator pupillae, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.

      Three groups of CCBs include
      1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
      2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
      3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.

      Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.

      Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine

      Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant,...

    Incorrect

    • A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant, in preventing stroke in patients suffering from atrial fibrillation, relative to those already available in the market was performed. A 59 year old woman volunteered for it and was randomised to the treatment arm. A year later, following findings were reported:

      165 out of 1050 patients who were prescribed the already prevalent medicine had a stroke while the number of patients who had a single stroke after using the new drug was 132 out of 1044.

      In order to avoid one stroke case, what is the number of patients that need to be treated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 32

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)

      ARR= (0.157-0.126)

      ARR= 0.031

      NNT= 1/0.031

      NNT=32.3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 27 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

    What is the...

    Incorrect

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

      What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).

      A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.

      Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as anĀ irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.

      A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
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  • Question 28 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Incorrect

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 29 - A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.

      What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 mL

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

      The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

      A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

      The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A breakthrough lipid-lowering therapy for stroke had a number needed to treat (NNT)...

    Incorrect

    • A breakthrough lipid-lowering therapy for stroke had a number needed to treat (NNT) of 20 for the prevention of the primary end-point. These results can be best described as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For 1000 patients treated with active therapy, there would be 50 fewer strokes

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat (NNT) is a time specific epidemiological measure that indicates how many patients would be require for an intervention to prevent one additional bad outcome. A perfect NNT would be 1, where everyone improves with treatment, thus the higher the NNT, the less effective the treatment.

      Thus if you treat 1000 patients then you will expect to have 50 fewer strokes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Pathophysiology (2/5) 40%
Antomy (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Basic Physics (0/3) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Statistical Methods (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
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