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Question 1
Correct
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Question 2
Correct
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The initial rapid depolarization in the action potential of cardiac muscle cells is due to:
Your Answer: Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels
Explanation:The initial depolarization of the action potential in a cardiac muscle cell is due to the sodium current generated by opening of the voltage gated sodium channels leading to an influx of sodium ions into the cell and raising the membrane potential towards threshold.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which of the following?
Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea
Explanation:Vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP) is found in the nerves innervating the GIT. It markedly stimulates the secretion of intestinal electrolytes and also with them water. This results in secretary diarrhoea. Along with that it also relaxes intestinal smooth muscle including the sphincters, it also results in dilation of the peripheral blood vessels and along with this its also inhibits gastric acid secretions. A VIPoma will exaggerate all this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A typical sleep cycle from stage 1 to the end of REM sleep in a normal adult is approximately how long?
Your Answer: 90 min
Explanation:A single sleep cycle has stages 1, 2, 3, 4 and REM (Rapid eye movement). These stages progress cyclically from 1 through to REM and then begin again with stage 1. A complete sleep cycle takes an average of 90-110 minutes, with each stage lasting between 5 to 15 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the most important determinant of ECF volume?
Your Answer: The amount of sodium in the ECF
Explanation:The volume of the ECF is determined primarily by the total amount of osmotically active solute in the ECF. The composition of the ECF is discussed in Chapter 1. Because Na+ and Cl− are by far the most abundant osmotically active solutes in ECF, and because changes in Cl− are to a great extent secondary to changes in Na+, the amount of Na+ in the ECF is the most important determinant of ECF volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 6
Correct
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Xanthines (for example Caffeine), exhibit their positive inotropic effect by:
Your Answer: Inhibiting the breakdown cAMP
Explanation:Xanthines exert their positive inotropic effect by inhibiting the breakdown of the cAMP resulting in stronger and sustained contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed for ATP production. These proteins are also essential for:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apoptotic cell death
Explanation:The intrinsic pathway or the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis is activated due to the loss of BCL-2 and other antiapoptotic proteins. This loss results in the increased membrane permeability and release of cytochrome C which activates caspases downstream resulting in apoptosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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According to Poiseuille’s formula, which 1 of the following will lead to increased flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shorter tube
Explanation:V = π p r4 / 8 η lwhere V = discharge volume flow (m3/s)p = pressure difference between the ends of the pipe (N/m2, Pa)r = internal radius of pipe (m)l = length of pipe (m)η = viscosity of fluid
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tela choroidea
Explanation:The choroid plexus produces the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain. It consists of modified ependymal cells. Tela choroidea is a region of pia mater of the meninges and underlying ependyma that’s a part of the choroid plexus. It is a very thin layer of the connective tissue of pia mater that overlies and covers the ependyma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The main efferent input of the posterior pituitary gland comes from:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracrine hormones secreted from the hypothalamus via axons.
Explanation:The posterior pituitary or neurohypophysis consists of a collection of axonal projections emerging from the hypothalamus. It releases hormones directly from these axonal endings into circulation; these hormones are oxytocin and vasopressin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following limits the duration of inspiration and increases respiratory rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumotaxic centre
Explanation:The mechanism of control of ventilation is an interplay of multiple regions in the brain. The medullary respiratory centre sets the basic rhythm of breathing and the pons modifies the output of the medullary centres. There are two pontine centres: apneustic and pneumotaxic.
The pnuemotaxic centre controls inspiratory time. Increased signals to this area increases respiratory rate. The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) integrates input from the stretch receptors and the chemoreceptors in the periphery and is composed mainly of inspiratory neurons. The DRG controls the basic rhythm of breathing by triggering inspiratory impulses. The ventral respiratory group (VRG) generates breathing rhythm and integrates data coming into the medulla and contains both inspiratory and expiratory neurons. They are primarily active in exercise and stress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The nucleus tractus solitaries is medullary nucleus that processes the following inputs except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensory input from the semi-circular canal (CN VIII)
Explanation:Located in the brain stem is a series of purely sensory nuclei known as tractus solitaries. Inputs of the nucleus tractus solitaries include:Taste information from the facial nerve (anterior 2/3 of the tongue), glossopharyngeal nerve (posterior 1/3) and vagus nerve (small area on the epiglottis).Sensory information from the ear (auricular branch of the vagus nerve).Chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) in the carotid body via glossopharyngeal nerve, aortic bodies, and the sinoatrial node, via the vagus nerve.Chemically and mechanically sensitive neurons of the general visceral afferent pathway (GVA) with endings located in the heart, lungs, airways, gastrointestinal system, pharynx, and liver via the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which vaso metabolite decreases coronary blood flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endothelin
Explanation:Decreased O2, increased CO2, lactate, prostaglandins, adenine nucleotides, adenosine, H+, K+ and cyanide produce vasodilation and thus an increase in coronary blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin act by way of which second messengers in the release of acid by parietal cells:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A and D
Explanation:Acetylcholine, Histamine and Gastrin receptors are located on the basolateral membrane of the parietal cell and control its activity. Stimulation of these receptors modulates the levels of protein kinases in the cell and brings about the changes from a resting to stimulated structure. Protein kinase catalyses conversion of ATP to cyclic AMP which activates the proton pump. Calcium ions increase gastric acid secretion elicited by gastrin released through a vagal mechanism, and also by a direct effect on parietal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mydriasis occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In the jugular venous pressure wave…
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consists of 3 peaks and 2 troughs
Explanation:The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections (peaks) and two downward deflections (troughs) have been described:The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C fibers
Explanation:According to Erlanger- Grasser classification preganglionic fibers are B fibers whereas post ganglionic fibers are C fibers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following skin disorders is least commonly associated with hypothyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema
Explanation:Pretibial myxoedema is an infiltrative dermopathy, resulting as a rare complication of Graves’ disease (hyperthyroidism) and very occasionally occurs in non-thyrotoxic Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
Hypothyroidism typically presents with symptoms such as dry skin, brittle hair, and thinning of the outer third of the eyebrows. While skin conditions like dryness and hair changes are common in hypothyroidism due to reduced metabolic activity, acne is also not typically associated with it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68 year old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of his parotid gland. It is revealed that this has been ongoing for the past 10 years. Upon examination, the swelling is firm in consistency. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis for this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma
Explanation:A pleomorphic adenoma is also called a benign mixed tumour – this is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It also causes over a third of all submandibular tumours. This type of a tumour is slow-growing and has no symptoms, which means it has great malignant potentiality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1
Explanation:Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following will increase an individual’s appetite?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ghrelin
Explanation:Ghrelin is a hormone which exerts a strong influence on hunger and energy balance. It helps regulate appetite by being secreted when the stomach is empty, to stimulate hunger. When the stomach is filled, its secretion stops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary modifications and weight reduction. He needs to be started on an oral hypoglycaemic agent. Which among the following statements regarding oral hypoglycaemic agents is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acarbose inhibits α-glucosidase
Explanation:Different Oral Hypoglycaemic Agents (OHAs) and their respective mechanism(s) of action include:• Sulfonylureas (such as, glipizide, gliclazide, glimepiride) – bind to ATP sensitive Potassium channels (K – ATP channels) in the 𝝱 cells of the islets of the pancreas. Inhibition of these channels lead to an altered resting membrane potential in these cells causing an influx of calcium which increases insulin secretion.• Meglitinides (like Repaglinide) through a different receptor, they similarly regulate K – ATP channels thereby causing an increase in insulin secretion.• Biguanides (e.g., Metformin) increase the hepatic AMP-activated protein kinase activity leading to reduced gluconeogenesis and lipogenesis and increased insulin-mediated uptake of glucose in muscles. (it doesn’t increase insulin secretion)• Thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone, pioglitazone) bind to PPAR-𝝲 and increase peripheral uptake of glucose and decrease hepatic glucose production.• α-Glucosidase inhibitors (such as acarbose, miglitol, voglibose) competitively inhibit α-glucosidase enzymes in the intestine that digest the dietary starch thus, inhibiting the polysaccharide reabsorption as well as metabolism of sucrose to glucose and fructose.• DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin, saxagliptin, vildagliptin, linagliptin, alogliptin) prolong the action of glucagon-like peptide. This leads to inhibition of glucagon release, increase in insulin secretion and a decrease in gastric emptying leading to a decrease in blood glucose levels.• SGLT2 inhibitors (dapagliflozin and canagliflozin) inhibit glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubules of the renal glomeruli leading to glycosuria which in-turn reduces blood glucose levels.Note: Side effects of pioglitazone are weight gain, pedal oedema, bone loss and precipitation of congestive cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the main function of vitamin E?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is an antioxidant
Explanation:Vitamin E has many biological functions, the antioxidant function being the best known. Other functions include enzymatic activities, gene expression, and neurological function(s).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium, serves to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drain the venous supply of the myocardium
Explanation:The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the heart muscle (myocardium). It delivers deoxygenated blood to the right atrium, as do the superior and inferior vena cava.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median eminence
Explanation:The hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system connects the brain to the anterior pituitary. It is made up of two capillary beds, one in the median eminence and the other in the anterior pituitary. Blood from the plexus of the median eminence is carried by portal veins, draining into the cavernous and posterior intercavernous sinuses. This system delivers hypothalamic hormones to their target cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The net effect of parathyroid hormone on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, decrease in phosphate
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone’s main target organs are the kidneys, bone, and intestine. In the kidney, it decreases reabsorption of phosphate and increases calcium reabsorption. It also promotes absorption of calcium from bone. PTH release results in a small drop in serum phosphate concentrations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache, fever and malaise. He also complains of scalp sensitivity while combing his hair. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following would be the definite test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy
Explanation:Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling, and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferroportin
Explanation:Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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During which phase of the cell cycle does transcription of DNA synthesis molecules occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S
Explanation:DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further.
Interphase is composed of G1 phase (cell growth), followed by S phase (DNA synthesis), followed by G2 phase (cell growth). At the end of interphase comes the mitotic phase, which is made up of mitosis and cytokinesis and leads to the formation of two daughter cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
