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  • Question 1 - Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type...

    Incorrect

    • Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism

      Your Answer: Autocrine

      Correct Answer: Endocrine

      Explanation:

      Hormones that are secreted into the circulation at one site but have effects on distal target organs are endocrine as is the case with the hormones above. Autocrine and Intracrine messengers act within the same cell. Exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts. Apocrine is a histological term used to describe some types of exocrine gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except:

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of tumours defined by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

      GTD is divided into hydatidiform moles (contain villi) and other trophoblastic neoplasms (lack villi). The non-molar or malignant forms of GTD are called gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).
      Hydatidiform mole (HM) is associated with abnormal gametogenesis and/or fertilization. Risk factors include extremes of age, ethnicity, and a prior history of an HM which suggests a genetic basis for its aetiology.

      GTD is best managed by an interprofessional team that includes nurses and pharmacists. Patients with molar pregnancies must be monitored for associated complications including hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia, and ovarian theca lutein cysts. Molar pregnancy induced hyperthyroidism should resolve with the evacuation of the uterus, but patients may require beta-adrenergic blocking agents before anaesthesia to reverse effects of thyroid storm. Pre-eclampsia also resolves quickly after the evacuation of the uterus. Theca lutein cysts will regress spontaneously with falling beta-HCG levels. However, patients must be counselled on signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion and ruptured ovarian cysts.

      A single uterine evacuation has no significant effect on future fertility, and pregnancy outcomes in subsequent pregnancies are comparable to that of the general population, despite a slight increased risk of developing molar pregnancy again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?

      Your Answer: Face presentation

      Explanation:

      Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
      Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.

      Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.

      Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In twin deliveries: Which is true? ...

    Correct

    • In twin deliveries: Which is true?

      Your Answer: There is increased risk of postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Twin gestations are at increased risk for postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). A number of maternal and peripartum factors are associated with PPH requiring blood transfusion in twin gestations. Reducing the rate of caesarean delivery in twin pregnancies may decrease maternal hemorrhagic morbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast causing the milk production. It also helps augment contractions in labour and cause uterine involution after childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Buccal smear is chromatin positive

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have high FSH levels and low oestrogen levels. They have a short stature and buccal smear is chromatin negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of?

      Your Answer: < 5 mm

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      AFI involves measuring the depth of amniotic fluid pockets in all 4 quadrants.
      Oligohydramnios AFI< 5cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket < 2cm
      Polyhydramnios AFI > 25cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket > 8cm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain?

      Your Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The basic components of the mammary gland are the alveoli. These are lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells surrounded by myoepithelial cells. The alveoli join to form groups known as lobules. The lobules form lobes. Each lobe has a lactiferous duct that drains into openings in the nipple. Each breast typically contains 15-20 lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A pregnant patient with a chest infection is worried about the radiation risk...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant patient with a chest infection is worried about the radiation risk of a chest X Ray. How many days of natural background radiation is equivalent to a chest X Ray?

      Your Answer: 28

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      X-rays carry low levels of risk during pregnancy and are not a significant cause for concern if the total exposure to ionising radiation is less than 5 rads throughout the pregnancy; a chest X-ray is about 0.00007 rads. The amount of radiation generated from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 2.4 days of natural background radiation. Non-urgent radiological tests should, however, be avoided between 10-17 weeks gestation as there is a higher risk of central nervous system teratogenesis during this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach'...

    Incorrect

    • You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach' after hearing about several methods (calendar calculation).

      Menstrual periods last between 26 and 29 days for the woman. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: From day 9 to day 19

      Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase is always fixed to 14 days. In this patient, ovulation will occur between days 12-15. Sexual encounter must be ceased until 24-36 hours before day 15 (day 17). The start date of abstinence, calculated by decreasing 6 days (life span of the sperm) from the earliest possible day of ovulation (12-6=6). Hence from day 6-17, sexual encounter must be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Completion of the 3rd stage of labour refers to: ...

    Correct

    • Completion of the 3rd stage of labour refers to:

      Your Answer: Expulsion of the placenta and membranes

      Explanation:

      The third stage of labours starts from the delivery of the foetus to the delivery of the placenta and the membranes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding the Pituitary gland which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the Pituitary gland which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It rests on the Ethmoid bone in the skull base

      Correct Answer: It is surrounded by the sella turcica

      Explanation:

      The Sella turcica is composed of three parts:
      1. The tuberculum sellae (horn of saddle): a variable slight to prominent median elevation forming the posterior
      boundary of the prechiasmatic sulcus and the anterior boundary of the hypophysial fossa.
      2. The hypophysial fossa (pituitary fossa): a median depression (seat of saddle) in the body of the sphenoid that accommodates the pituitary gland (L. hypophysis).
      3. The dorsum sellae (back of saddle): a square plate of bone projecting superiorly from the body of the sphenoid.
      It forms the posterior boundary of the Sella turcica, and its prominent superolateral angles make up the posterior clinoid processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24 year old, 16 week pregnant patient presents with vaginal discharge. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old, 16 week pregnant patient presents with vaginal discharge. There is heavy growth of N. gonorrhoea as shown on swabs taken. Which treatment course is most advisable?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone 1g intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2 g oral as a single dose

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone 1 mg intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2g oral as a single dose

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is a diplococcus bacteria known to infect the female genital tract. The bacteria is sexually transmitted and can cause an ascending infection in the uterus and fallopian tubes. According to the BASHH guidelines (British Association for Sexual Health and HIV), indication for therapy include confirmation of intracellular diplococci on microscopy or a confirmed positive NAAT. Treatment of gonorrhoea in pregnancy is as follows: Ceftriaxone 1g intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2g oral as a single dose. Pregnant individuals are not to be treated with quinolones or tetracyclines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      81.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.

    On speculum...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.

      On speculum examination, her ectocervix and vagina show signs of atrophy.

      No evidence of malignant cells is seen on cervical cytology, although no endocervical cells were visualised.

      Choose the most suitable next step for management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Hysteroscopy and dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic hysteroscopy with dilatation and curettage (D&C) is the most suitable step for immediate management of this patient (correct answer). This would aid in determining if an endometrial lesion exists and enable histologic examination of any endometrium that may be present.
      Assessment of endometrial thickness via ultrasound examination is commonly used to decide if a patient requires D&C. In postmenopausal women, an endometrial thickness of more than 4mm indicates need for D&C.

      However, this method is more beneficial in younger postmenopausal women. In women who are 70 years or older, postmenopausal bleeding should be considered to be due to a malignancy until confirmed otherwise.

      In this patient, a vaginal swab for culture or a colposcopy would not be appropriate.

      Similarly, laparoscopy is not indicated unless the bleeding continued despite a normal hysteroscopy and D&C.

      If the endometrial thickness is less than 4mm, a malignancy is less likely to be present; however, the risk cannot be completely excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      83.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation.

      The most appropriate treatment strategy for such a patient is?

      Your Answer: Antipsychotics

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a more serious form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). PMS causes bloating, headaches, and breast tenderness a week or two before your period.

      With PMDD, you might have PMS symptoms along with extreme irritability, anxiety, or depression. These symptoms improve within a few days after your period starts, but they can be severe enough to interfere with your life.

      PMDD symptoms appear a week or two before menstruation and go away within a few days after your period starts. In addition to PMS symptoms, you may have:

      Anger or irritability.
      Anxiety and panic attacks.
      Depression and suicidal thoughts.
      Difficulty concentrating.
      Fatigue and low energy.
      Food cravings or binge eating.
      Headaches.
      Insomnia.
      Mood swings.

      The following treatments have been shown to relieve symptoms:

      Sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). SSRIs are the first-line treatment and are extremely effective.
      The second line of defence is alprazolam (a short course recommended due to its addictive potential).
      The use of temazepam has little advantage because it only aids with sleep and is relatively short-acting.
      Lifestyle modifications-weight loss, exercise, quitting smoking, and relaxation therapies for less severe PMS.
      Danazol-suppresses the ovulation and helps with mastalgias associated with PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice as she was recently exposed to chickenpox. Regarding fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) which of the following statements is correct regarding maternal varicella infection?

      Your Answer: FVS may result if there is maternal varicella infection at any time during pregnancy

      Correct Answer: FVS may result if there is maternal varicella infection within the 1st 20 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      (13-20 weeks). If a mother has chickenpox in late pregnancy (5 days prior to delivery) then there is risk of neonatal varicella infection which may be severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      177.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Whilst reviewing a 34 year old patient with amenorrhoea in clinic they tell...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst reviewing a 34 year old patient with amenorrhoea in clinic they tell you they have gained over 10kg in weight in the past 8 weeks and have noticed worsening acne. Routine bloods taken that morning show a random glucose 11.1mmol/l, normal thyroid function tests and negative pregnancy test. BP is 168/96 mmHg. You suspect Cushing's. What would the most appropriate investigation be to conform the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Plasma Corticotrophin Releasing Hormone

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone suppression test

      Explanation:

      In Cushing’s syndrome there is excess cortisol. Causes are broadly divided into 2 types: ACTH dependent disease: excess ACTH from the pituitary (Cushing’s disease), ectopic ACTH-producing tumours or excess ACTH administration. Non-ACTH-dependent: adrenal adenomas, adrenal carcinomas, excess glucocorticoid administration. The recommended diagnostic tests for the presence of Cushing’s syndrome are 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test and late-night salivary cortisol. There are several other tests that may also be performed to find the cause. ACTH and cortisol measured together may show if this is ACTH dependent or not. MRI pituitary and CT abdo and pelvis may show if tumour is the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her menstrual cycle should blood be collected for progesterone, if she has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Day 7

      Correct Answer: Day 21

      Explanation:

      Maximum levels of progesterone are detected at day 21 of 28 days in the menstrual cycle, assuming that ovulation has occurred at day 14. A value of >30nmol/l indicates an ovulatory cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      103.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Children born to women, whose hypothyroidism was inadequately treated in pregnancy are at increased risk of neuropsychological impairment

      Correct Answer: Thyroxin requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued

      Explanation:

      Thyroid disease is the second most common endocrine disorder after diabetes in pregnancy. Thyroid disease poses a substantial challenge on the physiology of pregnant women and has significant maternal and fetal implications. Research shows during pregnancy, the size of the thyroid gland increases by 10% in countries with adequate iodine stores and by approximately 20% to 40% in countries with iodine deficiency. During pregnancy, thyroid hormone production increases by around 50% along with a similar increase in total daily iodine requirements.

      The different changes occurring in thyroid physiology are as follow:
      – An increase in serum thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) leading to an increase in the total T4 and total T3 concentrations
      – Stimulation of the thyrotropin (TSH) receptor by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) which increases thyroid hormone production and subsequently reduces serum TSH concentration.

      Therefore, compared to the non-pregnant state, women tend to have lower serum TSH concentrations during pregnancy.
      The need to adjust levothyroxine dose manifests itself as early as at 4-8 weeks of gestation, therefore justifying the adjustment of levothyroxine replacement to ensure that maternal euthyroidism is maintained during early gestation. Most of well-controlled hypothyroid pregnant women need increased dosage of thyroid hormone after pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      76.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to gynaecologist for advice

      Correct Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now

      Explanation:

      To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.

      Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
      If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.

      Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
      Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Listeria Monocytogenes is a cause of congenital infection. The most common source of the bacteria is food, especially unpasteurised milk. Congenital listeriosis can lead to spontaneous abortions, premature birth and chorioamnionitis. At birth, neonates may present with septicaemia, respiratory distress and inflammatory granulomatosis. The case mortality rate for listeriosis is thought to be between 20-30%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • HPV genotypes 6 and 11 are associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma penis

      Correct Answer: Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (LSIL)

      Explanation:

      6 and 11 are considered low risk and are commonly associated with genital warts and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions of the cervix (can correspond cytologically to CIN 1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding the urinary bladder, what type of epithelium lines it? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the urinary bladder, what type of epithelium lines it?

      Your Answer: Stratified

      Correct Answer: Transitional

      Explanation:

      The urinary bladder, and most of the urinary structures are lined by epithelium called the urothelium, or the transitional epithelium. This stratified lining is divided into three parts, an apical layer, an intermediate layer and a basal layer. The transitional epithelium is available to stretch to accommodate the increased volume when the bladder is distended, without structural damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      140.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Delayed puberty in girls is defined as? ...

    Incorrect

    • Delayed puberty in girls is defined as?

      Your Answer: Primary amenorrhoea at age 16

      Correct Answer: Absence of breast development in girls beyond 13 years old

      Explanation:

      Breast development occurs from the age of 9-13 at the onset of puberty. Delayed puberty is defined as the absence of breast development after the age of 13.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      149.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male...

    Incorrect

    • If both parents have beta-thalassaemia minor, what is the chance of their male offspring having beta thalassemia major?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      This is not an X-linked condition so the sex of the child makes no difference to the inheritance. Any child will have a 1 in 4 chance of having beta thalassaemia major.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      78.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends your clinic. She is planning for a pregnancy in the next few months and feels well generally.
      What would be your advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy is contraindicated in her condition

      Explanation:

      From the options given, option A is correct as primary pulmonary hypertension is considered a contraindication to pregnancy.
      The patient should be educated about the possible risks and increased maternal mortality in such cases. This restriction is due to the fact that symptoms of Pulmonary hypertension gets worse during pregnancy which results in high maternal mortality.
      Termination of pregnancy may be advisable in these circumstances mostly to preserve the life of the mother.
      Sudden death secondary to hypotension is also a commonly dreaded complication among patients with pulmonary hypertension during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the results of her recent DEXA scan are. You note her hip BMD hip T-score is -1.4. You note she has a history of olecranon fracture 4 years ago. What is her classification according to WHO criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteopenia

      Explanation:

      Her T-score puts her in the osteopenic range. The presence of fragility fractures is more important in the osteoporotic patient. Olecranon fracture is not a typical fragility fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland.

      What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
      Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.

      Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.

      Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.

      So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of...

    Incorrect

    • To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following drugs cross the placenta to the foetus, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Standard heparin, an effective treatment for antepartum thromboembolic disease, is thought to be safe for the foetus since it does not cross the placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cabergoline

      Explanation:

      Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both...

    Incorrect

    • The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol is the common precursor for progesterone and androgen production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the left ovary drain into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left renal

      Explanation:

      When it comes to questions on venous drainage the ovarian vein is likely to be a common question given its varied drainage depending on laterality. The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function in patients with obstetric cholestasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Intrahepatic cholestasis characterized by reversible cholestasis typically occurring in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, elevated serum aminotransferases and bile acid level and resolution of symptoms by 2 to 3 weeks after delivery. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown to reduce the symptoms of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which period during pregnancy has the highest risk of maternal-fetal Toxoplasma Gondii transmission?...

    Incorrect

    • Which period during pregnancy has the highest risk of maternal-fetal Toxoplasma Gondii transmission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 26-40 weeks

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma Gondii is an intracellular parasite which is excreted in cat faeces and then transferred to humans through secondary hosts. During pregnancy, it can be transmitted to the neonate. The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks but during this time period it is less dangerous as compare to the transmission during 0-10 weeks of gestation. It may lead to abortion, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications, cerebral palsy and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 38 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound together with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97%

      Explanation:

      Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.

      The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department. Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days. Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. 

      On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min. Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. 

      On systemic examination:
      Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. 
      Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. 
      The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. 
      There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally.  Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. 

      Laboratory results are as follows:
      a) Complete blood count shows
      - Hematocrit: 33%
      - Platelets: 140,000/mm3
      - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3
      b) Serum chemistry
      - Sodium: 124 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
      - Chloride: 96 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L
      - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L
      - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L
      - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L
      c) Urinalysis
      - Protein: none
      - Ketones: present

      CT scan of the head is normal. 

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication

      Explanation:

      This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.

      In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.

      Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
      Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.

      Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.

      Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 40 - When deciding on entry method for laparoscopy a patients build is important. Which...

    Incorrect

    • When deciding on entry method for laparoscopy a patients build is important. Which of the following entry methods is inappropriately matched to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varess needle entry in a very thin patient (BMI 16)

      Explanation:

      In patients with normal BMI there is no preferential entry method. The Varess technique is not appropriate for morbidly obese or very thin patients for the reasons set out below: Morbid Obesity (BMI>40): Hasson technique or entry at Palmers point Reason: difficult penetration with Varess needle Very Thin Patients: Hasson technique or insertion at Palmers point Reason: higher risk of vascular injury

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 41 - Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Nipple stimulation during breastfeeding triggers the production of oxytocin from the hypothalamus and its subsequent release from the posterior pituitary gland. The hormone causes the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract causing milk to flow through the ducts.

      Ergometrine and Prostaglandin E2 are used during labour to control uterine bleeding after delivery, or ripen the cervix, while Atosiban is an oxytocin antagonist.

      Antidiuretic hormone is also released from the posterior pituitary, and acts on the kidneys to decrease fluid excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 42 - The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fascia lata

      Explanation:

      Boundaries of the Femoral Triangle: Superior: Inguinal ligament Medial: Medial border of the adductor longus Lateral: Medial border of the sartorius Floor: Pectineus, Adductor longus and Iliopsoas muscles Roof: Fascia Lata (cribriform fascia at the saphenous opening) Trasversalis fascia forms part of the roof of the inguinal canal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 43 - All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are features of Turner's syndrome except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The ovaries are usually well developed

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have malfunctioning or streak ovaries due to which they can never conceive. It affects females, who will have a short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck and karyotyping shows 45XO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 44 - A serum progesterone value less than 5ng/ml can exclude the diagnosis of viable...

    Incorrect

    • A serum progesterone value less than 5ng/ml can exclude the diagnosis of viable pregnancy with a certainty of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Serum progesterone has been proposed as a useful test to distinguish a viable pregnancy from a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Low progesterone values are associated with miscarriages and ectopic pregnancies, both considered non-viable pregnancies, and high progesterone concentrations with viable pregnancies. A single progesterone measurement for women in early pregnancy presenting with bleeding or pain and inconclusive ultrasound assessments can rule out a viable pregnancy. The probability of a non-viable pregnancy was raised from 62.9% to 96.8%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 45 - All of the following complications can be found in a pregnant patient with...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following complications can be found in a pregnant patient with a bicornuate uterus, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      Women with a bicornuate uterus are at increased risk of recurrent abortions, premature birth, fetal malpositioning, placenta previa and retained products of placenta leading to post partum haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 46 - Which of the following inhibit Glucagon? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following inhibit Glucagon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      Glucagon release is inhibited by increased blood glucose, ketones, free fatty
      acids, insulin, raised urea levels and somatostatin. Glucagon is produced by alpha cells of the pancreas and increases the plasma glucose level by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 47 - A low APGAR score at one minute: ...

    Incorrect

    • A low APGAR score at one minute:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation

      Explanation:

      The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 48 - A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and has no relatives who have been diagnosed with breast cancer or heart disease.

      Her weight is 90 kg, her height is 167 cm, her BMI is 32 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, as recorded on two occasions. She also suffers from hirsutism. she was diagnosed with PCOS.

      What are your plans for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis. A woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovaries (as opposed to PCOS) if she has 20 or more follicles in at least 1 ovary. The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      Hirsutism
      Infertility
      Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      Diabetes
      Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Drugs used in the treatment of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) include metformin (off-label use), spironolactone, eflornithine (topical cream to treat hirsutism), and oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives containing a combination of oestrogen and progestin increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG) levels and thereby reduce the free testosterone level. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are also suppressed. This restores cyclic exposure of the endometrium to oestrogen-progestin, with the resumption of menstrual periods and decreased hirsutism.

      Drug of choice for treatment of PCOS are COCs, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 49 - One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53...

    Incorrect

    • One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change.

      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

      Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 50 - All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (2/4) 50%
Obstetrics (4/6) 67%
Anatomy (3/3) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Biophysics (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology (2/4) 50%
Clinical Management (2/2) 100%
Microbiology (1/3) 33%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Passmed