00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Sertoli cells contain receptors to which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Sertoli cells contain receptors to which hormone?

      Your Answer: Oestradiol

      Correct Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Sertoli cells contain receptors for FSH. In response to this Sertoli cells synthesize inhibin, androgen binding proteins and anti Mullerian hormone all which are connected to the reproduction cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following organisms causes Scarlet Fever? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organisms causes Scarlet Fever?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus, is the organism responsible for scarlet fever. The bacteria is found in secretions from the nose, ears or the skin, and infections may be preceded by wounds, burns or respiratory infections. Symptoms may include a sore throat, fever, a red skin rash and cervical lymphadenopathy. Untreated scarlet fever in children and adolescents can lead to rheumatic fever, or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure? ...

    Correct

    • The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure?

      Your Answer: Fascia lata

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded:
      – Superiorly by the inguinal ligament that forms the base of the femoral triangle.
      – Medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus.
      – Laterally by the sartorius; the apex of the femoral triangle is formed where the borders of the sartorius and the adductor muscles meet.
      – The floor of the femoral triangle is formed by the iliopsoas laterally and the pectineus muscle medially.
      – The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by the fascia lata and cribriform
      fascia, subcutaneous tissue, and skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which period during pregnancy has the highest risk of maternal-fetal Toxoplasma Gondii transmission?...

    Correct

    • Which period during pregnancy has the highest risk of maternal-fetal Toxoplasma Gondii transmission?

      Your Answer: 26-40 weeks

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma Gondii is an intracellular parasite which is excreted in cat faeces and then transferred to humans through secondary hosts. During pregnancy, it can be transmitted to the neonate. The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks but during this time period it is less dangerous as compare to the transmission during 0-10 weeks of gestation. It may lead to abortion, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications, cerebral palsy and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both...

    Correct

    • The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol is the common precursor for progesterone and androgen production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?

      Your Answer: 3 days

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at 19 weeks of gestation.
      She is allergic to penicillin, with non-anaphylactic presentation.

      Urine microscopy confirmed the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and culture result is pending.

      From the options below, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      According to the laboratory reports, patient has developed urinary tract infection and should be treated with one week course of oral antibiotics.
      As the patient is pregnant, antibiotics like cephalexin, co-amoxiclav and nitrofurantoin must be considered as these are safe during pregnancy.

      Due to this Patient’s allergic history to penicillin, cephalexin can be considered as the best option. Risk of cross allergy would have been higher if the patient had any history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin.

      In Australia, Amoxicillin is not recommended to treat UTI due to resistance.Tetracyclines also should be avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      75.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old white female lawyer sees you for the first time. When providing a history, she describes several problems, including anxiety, sleep disorders, fatigue, persistent depressed mood, and decreased libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month. Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part.

      The most likely diagnosis at this time is:

      Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Correct Answer: Dysthymia

      Explanation:

      Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in true PMS. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient keep a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles, carefully recording daily symptoms. Dysthymia consists of a pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for 2 years or more and are less severe than those of major depression. This diagnosis is consistent with the findings in the patient described here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28 year old women presents at 30 weeks complaining of intense itching...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old women presents at 30 weeks complaining of intense itching particularly on the hands and feet that is worse in the evenings. She has taken cetirizine but this hasn't settled her symptoms. Examination is unremarkable with no rash. What is the likely diagnosis

      Your Answer: Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The history is typical of Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis and prurigo gravidarum. The features are: Intense itching typically of the hands and feet Itch gets worse at night Responds poorly to antihistamines There is no rash. The mechanism is poorly understood but tests may show deranged LFTs. It usually resolves quickly after delivery. The other diagnoses listed are possible though less likely. Scabies normally has a rash

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      107.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical history reveals that she has migraine headaches on occasions, associated with paraesthesia's in her right arm.
      Examination reveals that she weighs 120kg and has a BMI of 36.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate contraceptive methods for her?

      Your Answer: Condoms

      Explanation:

      This woman suffers from a classic migraine with focused neurological symptoms. The use of any OCP preparation containing oestrogen in such patients is strictly prohibited. Androgenic consequences of progesterone include hirsutism, acne, and weight gain. Progesterone of any sort (norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, etc.) should be avoided by a lady of her size; consequently, a barrier approach such as male condoms is the best option.

      It is recommended that formulations containing 20-30 mcg ethinylestradiol be evaluated first when choosing a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The progesterone component can be norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, and so on; however, norgestrel-containing formulations are less expensive and more accessible to patients.

      For specific cases, the type of progesterone should be considered:
      – Patients who have unpleasant fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCPs may be administered drospirenone (Yaz®. Yasmin®)-containing preparations.
      – Drospirenone inhibits the production of mineralocorticoids and does not cause fluid retention. It may even be linked to a small amount of weight reduction.
      – A preparation containing cyproterone acetate is preferable if the patient has suspected polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600 ml at 40 weeks of gestation.

      On examination, her vital signs were found to be stable, with a tender abdomen and there were no fetal heart sounds heard on auscultation.

      Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound of uterus

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is commonly defined as the premature separation of the placenta, which complicates approximately 1% of births. During the second half of pregnancy abruption is considered an important cause for vaginal bleeding and is mostly associated with significant perinatal mortality and morbidity.
      Clinical presentation of abruption varies from asymptomatic cases to those complicated with fetal death and severe maternal morbidity. Classical symptoms of placental abruption are vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain, but at times severe cases might occur with neither or just of one of these signs. In some cases the amount of vaginal bleeding may not correlates with the degree of abruption, this is because the severity of symptoms is always depend on the location of abruption, whether it is revealed or concealed and the degree of abruption.
      Diagnosis of abruption is clinical and the condition should be suspected in every women who presents with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain or both, with a history of trauma, and in those women who present with an unexplained preterm labor. All causes of abdominal pain and bleeding, like placenta previa, appendicitis, urinary tract infections, preterm labor, fibroid degeneration, ovarian pathology and muscular pain are considered as differential diagnosis of abruption.

      In the given case patient has developed signs and symptoms of placental abruption, like severe vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain, whose management depends on its presentation, gestational age and the degree of maternal and fetal compromise. As the presentation is widely variable, it is important to individualize the management on a case-by-case basis. More aggressive management is desirable in cases of severe abruption, which is not appropriate in milder cases of abruption. In cases of severe abruption with fetal death, as seen in the given case, it is reasonable to allow the patient to have a vaginal delivery,regardless of gestational age, as long as the mother is stable and there are no other contraindications.
      The uterus is contracting vigorously, and labor occurs rapidly and progresses, so amniotomy is mostly sufficient to speed up delivery. There is a significant risk for coagulopathy and hypovolemic shock so intravenous access should be established with aggressive replacement of blood and coagulation factors. Meticulous attention should be paid to the amount of blood loss; general investigations like complete blood count, coagulation studies and type and crossmatch should be done and the blood bank should be informed of the potential for coagulopathy. A Foley catheter should be placed and an hourly urine output should be monitored.
      It is prudent to involve an anesthesiologist in the patient’s care, because if labor does not progress rapidly as in cases like feto-pelvic disproportion, fetal malpresentation, or a prior classical cesarean delivery, it will be necessary to conduct a cesarean delivery to avoid worsening of the coagulopathy.
      Bleeding from surgical incisions in the presence of DIC may be difficult to control, and it is equally important to stabilize the patient and to correct any coagulation derangement occuring during surgery. The patient should be monitored closely after delivery, with particular attention paid to her vital signs, amount of blood loss, and urine output. In addition, the uterus should be observed closely to ensure that it remains contracted and is not increasing in size.
      Immediate delivery is indicated in cases of abruption at term or near term with a live fetus. In such cases the main question is whether vaginal delivery can be achieved without fetal or maternal death or severe morbidity. In cases where there is evidence of fetal compromise, delivery is not imminent and cesarean delivery should be performed promptly, because total placental detachment could occur without warning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      301.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of...

    Correct

    • To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?

      Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      211.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The lower part of the rectum is supplied by the middle rectal artery....

    Incorrect

    • The lower part of the rectum is supplied by the middle rectal artery. What is the middle rectal artery a branch of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The middle rectal artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
      Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.

      Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
      ‌- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
      ‌- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
      ‌- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
      ‌- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
      ‌- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
      ‌- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.

      Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman came into your office looking for contraception assistance. Her new partner and she are arranging a trip to Thailand. She has no contraindications.

      What is the best piece of advice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive pills and condoms

      Explanation:

      OCPs should be started in this patient as well as condoms to prevent likely sexually transmitted infections.

      Condoms alone are not effective for prevention of pregnancy.

      OCPs alone do not prevent from sexually transmitted infections.

      It is not appropriate to inform the parents and the patient hasn’t refused any advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Serum prolactin levels are greatest in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Serum prolactin levels are greatest in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suckling

      Explanation:

      Serum prolactin levels are increased during suckling. Some other conditions in which serum prolactin is increased consist of: prolactin secreting brain tumours, anti psychotic drugs and hypothyroidism. It can also be increased in pregnancy, nipple stimulation and stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old gravida 6, para 5 woman at 36 weeks of gestation arrives...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old gravida 6, para 5 woman at 36 weeks of gestation arrives in the ED via ambulance and precipitously delivers a male child. The child coughs and has a strong cry. He is very active. Acrocyanosis is noted. Heart rate is 98 bpm and breathing is strong. What is this child’s Apgar score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The Apgar test scores appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration and is generally done at 1 and 5 minutes after birth but may be repeated if the child continues to score low (Table). This child’s score is as follows: Appearance, 1; Pulse, 1; Grimace, 2; Activity, 2; Respiration, 2 (APGAR score = 8). A score of 3 or less is generally regarded as critically low, 4 to 6 is fairly low, and 7 to 10 is generally normal. Contrary to common belief, the Apgar score is not used to decide if a neonate requires resuscitation. Decisions about resuscitation are based on emergency assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation.5,6

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history of light vaginal bleeding.

      Her past medical history reveals she had a lumpectomy, postoperative radiotherapy, adjuvant chemotherapy and tamoxifen therapy 3 years ago as treatment for an oestrogen receptor-positive breast malignancy.

      She was prescribed tamoxifen in a dose of 10mg per day to take for the next five years.

      Since she completed her chemotherapy three years ago, she has no menstrual periods.

      What is the most probable cause of her current bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her bleeding is an endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.

      Tamoxifen is often prescribed to decrease risk of breast cancer recurrence in premenopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive cancers.

      As with any medication, it has known side effects, which include endometrial polyp formation, subendometrial oedema and, rarely, endometrial carcinoma.

      A polyp or carcinoma can cause uterine bleeding, but a polyp is more likely to occur.

      Routine endometrial thickness screening is not recommended in all women taking tamoxifen. However, in cases of abnormal bleeding, ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness, hysteroscopy and curettage are indicated to assess the endometrium in more detail.

      Tamoxifen is not associated with endometrial atrophy.

      Endometrial metastasis from a breast cancer is rare, and tamoxifen would not usually induce follicular development in a woman who has had chemotherapy and resultant amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test is performed by the doctor. HPV Type Non-16/18 is detected in her cervical cytology. Squamous cells and other abnormalities were found to be absent in the reflex liquid-based cytology.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat Cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      A cervical screening test was performed on this patient, and the result revealed the presence of the Human Papilloma Virus Type non-16/18. Reflex liquid base cytology was conducted, but no further abnormalities were seen. In this case, the patient should be offered a 12-month repeat cervical screening cytology. If the patient’s repeated cervical screening cytology after 12 months revealed LSIL, she should be referred for a colposcopy.
      If HPV is discovered at 12 months, regardless of the LBC result, some women may be at higher risk of having high-grade abnormalities and should be referred to colposcopy. These include:
      – women 2 or more years overdue for screening at the time of the initial screen
      – women who identify as being of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
      – women aged 50 years or older.

      Summary of recommended actions based on the level of risk
      Intermediate danger:
      – HPV non-16/18 positive, intermediate risk (with negative or low-grade cytology)
      If feasible, repeat the HPV test after 12 months.
      A three-to-six-month delay would be acceptable. Delays of longer than six months are discouraged.
      Follow up HPV test – HPV non 16/18 (possible high grade cytology or high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) – Treated as Higher risk.

      High-risk:
      HPV non-16/18 positive on follow-up HPV test (with negative or low-grade cytology)
      Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.

      If your patient is: 2 years or more past due for screening at the time of the initial screening, and identifies as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander aged 50 or older, they may be at higher risk and should be referred to a professional at once for additional evaluation.

      HPV 16/18 positive with any of the following non–16/18 positive: a glandular anomaly in high-grade cytology high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) cancer. Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.

      Currently, several colposcopy facilities are experiencing strong demand and extended wait times. If you are concerned that your patient will be delayed, you should call the specialist or clinic to which your patient has been referred.
      On the Cure Test Pathway, wherever possible, continue testing as planned. A woman who has been treated for HSIL (CIN2/3) should have a 12-month follow-up co-test and annual tests after that. She can resume standard 5-yearly screening after receiving two consecutive negative co-tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which one of the following muscles is the most important muscle forming the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following muscles is the most important muscle forming the pelvic floor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levator ani

      Explanation:

      Levator ani muscle is composed of three different muscles i.e. iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus and the puborectalis muscle. It is the main muscle that supports the organs of the pelvic cavity.
      Bulbocavernosus and Ischiocavernosus muscles are located in-between the anus and scrotum and play an important role in sexual response in males.
      Superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles are located in the perinium and pass in front of the anus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A lactating mother has developed a breast abscess. Which organism is the most common?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staph aureus

      Explanation:

      Staph aureus is the most common causative organism of skin and soft tissue infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      90% of genital candida infections are the result of Candida albicans. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The pelvis includes which of the following bones: ...

    Incorrect

    • The pelvis includes which of the following bones:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum & coccyx

      Explanation:

      The pelvic skeleton is formed posteriorly (in the area of the back), by the sacrum and the coccyx and laterally and anteriorly (forward and to the sides), by a pair of hip bones. Each hip bone consists of 3 sections, ilium, ischium, and pubis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clomiphene

      Explanation:

      Firstline medical management of PCOS is with clomiphene.

      Ovulation Disorders

      WHO Group I : Hypothalamic pituitary failure (Stress, anorexia, exercise induced)
      Management:
      Increase BMI if <19 kg/m2
      Reduce exercise if high levels
      Pulsatile GnRH or Gonadotrophins with LH activity to induce ovulation

      WHO Group II : Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction (PCOS)
      Management:
      Weight reduction if BMI >30
      Clomiphene/Clomiphene (1st line)
      Metformin (1st line)
      Clomiphene & Metformin (1st/2nd line)
      Laparoscopic drilling (2nd line)
      Gonadotrophins (2nd line)

      WHO Group III : Ovarian failure
      Management:
      Consider IVF with donor eggs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting at 8 weeks of being pregnant. She is unable to take solid food but is capable of drinking small sips of liquids. She is concerned that she might have gastroenteritis because her partner was noted to have recently been diagnosed with it.

      Which of the following is considered the next best step to investigate given the situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia.

      The exact cause of hyperemesis gravidarum remains unclear. However, there are several theories for what may contribute to the development of this disease process such as:
      1. Hormone changes – hCG levels peak during the first trimester, corresponding to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. Estrogen is also thought to contribute to nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
      2. Changes in the Gastrointestinal System – the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.
      3. Genetics – an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum has been demonstrated among women with family members who also experienced hyperemesis gravidarum.

      The average onset of symptoms happens approximately 5 to 6 weeks into gestation. The physical exam should include fetal heart rate (depending on gestational age) and an examination of fluid status, including an examination of blood pressure, heart rate, mucous membrane dryness, capillary refill, and skin turgor. A patient weight should be obtained for comparison to previous and future weights. If indicated, abdominal examination and pelvic examination should occur to determine the presence or absence of tenderness to palpation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle is bounded medially by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adductor longus

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the left ovary drain into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left renal

      Explanation:

      The right ovarian vein ascends and enters the inferior vena cava and the left ovarian vein drains into the longer left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old G2P1 visits the gynaecologist with complaints of increased hair growth on...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old G2P1 visits the gynaecologist with complaints of increased hair growth on her face, breast, and belly, but hair loss in the temporal regions of her head. She has also struggled with acne.

      On physical examination, the patient's face, chest, and belly are covered in coarse, dark hair. Her clitoris is swollen on pelvic examination. Her left adnexal mass is 7 cm in diameter.

      What is the most likely ovarian tumour to be associated with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour

      Explanation:

      Sertoli-Leydig cell tumours constitute less than 0.5 percent of ovarian neoplasms. They may behave in a benign or malignant fashion, which correlates with the degree of differentiation in an individual case. Approximately 75 percent occur in women under the age of 40 years (mean age at diagnosis is 25), but they occur in all age groups. The neoplasms are characterized by the presence of testicular structures that produce androgens. This can result in virilization, although not all of these neoplasms are functionally active.

      Pure Sertoli cell tumours are usually estrogenic and may also secrete renin, leading to refractory hypertension and hypokalaemia. In addition, these tumours may be associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.

      Pure Leydig cell tumours are androgen secreting; only a few cases have been reported. Virtually all of these rare tumours are unilateral and confined to the ovary at diagnosis.

      Granulosa cell tumours typically present as large masses; the mean diameter is 12 cm. Women may present with an asymptomatic mass noted on abdominal or pelvic examination. Granulosa cell tumours often produce oestrogen and/or progesterone; consequently, symptoms related to hyperestrogenism are common at diagnosis.

      Krukenberg tumour, also known as carcinoma mucocellulare, refers to the signet ring subtype of metastatic tumour to the ovary. The stomach followed by colon are the two most common primary tumours to result in ovarian metastases, pursued by the breast, lung, and contralateral ovary.

      A rare tumour that is made up of more than one type of cell found in the gonads (testicles and ovaries), including germ cells, stromal cells, and granulosa cells. Gonadoblastomas are usually benign (not cancer), but they may sometimes become malignant (cancer) if not treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 47-year-old woman is concerned about the use of hormone replacement therapy(HRT) after...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman is concerned about the use of hormone replacement therapy(HRT) after her menopause. She's still having normal menstrual cycles and hasn't experienced any hot flashes or other issues. She is especially concerned about Alzheimer's disease (AD), as her mother was diagnosed with the condition at the age of 75 and is now confined to a nursing facility. Which of the following is the best piece of advice about using HRT and the risk of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD.

      Explanation:

      Although there have been some mixed results regarding the use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and the prevalence of Alzheimer’s disease (AD), there is little question that HRT started during menopause lowers cognitive decline, which is a common early symptom of AD.
      This is in contrast to the effect shown when HRT is started at the age of 60-65, when the risk of Alzheimer’s disease rises.
      There are no statistics on the effect of HRT on the incidence of Alzheimer’s disease when it is started before menopause, but it is apparent that it does not slow the progression of the disease or make advanced dementia less severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients...

    Incorrect

    • As a locum GP at a rural hospital, you are serving female patients at the OBGYN department. You have become an expert in diagnosing endometriosis early.

      Which would you say is the most common symptom of endometriosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysmenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The following are the most common symptoms for endometriosis, but each woman may experience symptoms differently or some may not exhibit any symptoms at all. Symptoms of endometriosis may include:

      Pain, especially excessive menstrual cramps that may be felt in the abdomen or lower back
      Pain during intercourse
      Abnormal or heavy menstrual flow
      Infertility
      Painful urination during menstrual periods
      Painful bowel movements during menstrual periods
      Other gastrointestinal problems, such as diarrhoea, constipation and/or nausea

      All options can be symptoms of endometriosis but the commonest one is dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the following statements regarding progesterone production in the ovary is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding progesterone production in the ovary is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synthesised from cholesterol by Luteal cells

      Explanation:

      After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has had limited response to conservative measures for her overactive bladder (OAB). Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Darifenacin

      Explanation:

      Detrusor overactivity can be treated with anti-cholinergic agents such as oxybutynin or tolterodine, solifenacin, fesoterodine and darifenacin. They are used as first line agents. Imipramine is used for enuresis and desmopressin is used for nocturia.
      NICE pathway

      Prior to initiating anticholinergics:
      Bladder training
      Consider treating vaginal atrophy and nocturia with topical oestrogen and desmopressin respectively before commencing treatments below.
      Consider catheterisation if chronic retention
      1st line treatments:
      1. Oxybutynin (immediate release) – Do not offer to frail elderly patients
      2. Tolterodine (immediate release)
      3. Darifenacin (once daily preparation)
      DO NOT offer any of the 3 drugs below:
      1. Flavoxate
      2. Propantheline
      3. Imipramine
      2nd line treatment
      Consider transdermal anticholinergic (antimuscarinic)
      Mirabegron
      Adjuvant Treatments
      Desmopressin can be considered for those with nocturia
      Duloxetine may be considered for those who don’t want/unsuitable for surgical treatment
      Intravaginal oestrogen can be offered to postmenopausal women with OAB

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by sacral nerve roots S2, S3 and S4 almost immediately as they exit the spinal foramina. The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen, travels behind the sacrospinous ligament before re-entering the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is an important nerve to be aware of as it supplies sensation to the genitalia and can also be damaged/compressed at a number of places along its course. Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The COCP (Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill) causes all of the following biochemical effects...

    Incorrect

    • The COCP (Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill) causes all of the following biochemical effects EXCEPT which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevate FSH

      Explanation:

      Remember patients with PCOS have elevated LH. COCPs suppress synthesis and secretion of FSH and the mid-cycle surge of LH, thus inhibiting the development of ovarian follicles and ovulation COCPs reduce hyperandrogenism as reduced LH secretion results in decreased ovarian synthesis of androgens. Furthermore they stimulate the liver to produce Sex Hormone Binding Globulin which leads to decreased circulating free androgens. Other mechanisms include reduction in adrenal androgen secretion and inhibition of peripheral conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone and binding of dihydrotestosterone to androgen receptors

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea and vomiting along with dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this period.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a drop in systolic blood pressure by more than 20% when she stands. She is unable to tolerate oral intake and her laboratory results show ketonuria.

      Which one of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Clinical picture mentioned is indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum with resultant hypovolemia and pre-shock state, were patient needs urgent fluid resuscitation and intravenous antiemetic medications. The first-line fluid for resuscitation is normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and metoclopramide an antiemetic drug which is safe for use in pregnancy (category A).

      Dextrose should be avoided in this situation as the sugar in the solution will leave behind a hypotonic fluid leading to severe hyponatraemic state which increases the risk for encephalopathy due to edema.

      Ondansetron is considered as the second-line of antiemetic drug under category B1 which is used in situations like more refractory vomiting, when patient is not responding to metoclopramide and in cases of recurrent hospital admissions due to hyperemesis gravidarum.

      Steroids such as prednisolone are considered as the third-line medication mostly used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum and should be used only after consulting an expert in the field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended...

    Incorrect

    • According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended daily intake) is 3 times higher in pregnancy than the non-pregnant state?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic Acid

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid should be increased in diet of a pregnant women. Deficiency will lead to neural tube defects i.e. spina bifida.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing a planned Caesarean Section (CS) with a patient. Which of the following risks is reduced with CS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Early postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      There are many different reasons for performing a delivery by Caesarean section. The four major indications accounting for greater than 70 per cent of operations are: 1. previous Caesarean section 2. dystocia 3. malpresentation 4. suspected acute fetal compromise. Other indications, such as multifetal pregnancy, abruptio placenta, placenta praevia, fetal disease and maternal disease are less common. The chances of early postpartum haemorrhage are greatly reduced in C-section deliveries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      Pelvic Outlet Boundaries Anteriorly: Pubic arch Laterally: Ischial tuberosities Posterolaterally: Inferior margin of the sacrotuberous ligament Posteriorly: Tip of the coccyx Note: The pelvis outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Fetal urine production starts at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8-11 weeks

      Explanation:

      Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following inhibit Glucagon? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following inhibit Glucagon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      Glucagon release is inhibited by increased blood glucose, ketones, free fatty
      acids, insulin, raised urea levels and somatostatin. Glucagon is produced by alpha cells of the pancreas and increases the plasma glucose level by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one? ...

    Incorrect

    • The femoral triangle contains all of the following structures EXCEPT which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The contents of the femoral triangles are femoral nerve, artery and the vein. Along with the femoral sheath and lymphatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of...

    Incorrect

    • One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of pregnancy, a 33-year-old woman developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has been on enoxaparin therapy for DVT. Upon discharge, there is a plan to start her on warfarin. When this was explained, the patient was reluctant to take warfarin since she thinks it might cause problems to the baby because she is planning to breastfeed.

      Which of the following is considered correct regarding warfarin and breastfeeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should continue to breastfeed her baby while she is on warfarin

      Explanation:

      No adverse reactions in breastfed infants have been reported from maternal warfarin use during lactation, even with a dose of 25 mg daily for 7 days. There is a consensus that maternal warfarin therapy during breastfeeding poses little risk to the breastfed infant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness of the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The anterior aspect of the vulva (mons pubis, anterior labia) is supplied by derivatives of the lumbar plexus: the anterior labial nerves, derived from the
      ilio-inguinal nerve, and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
      The posterior aspect of the vulva is supplied by derivatives of the sacral plexus: the perineal branch of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh laterally, and the pudendal nerve centrally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The uterine vein drains where? ...

    Incorrect

    • The uterine vein drains where?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac vein

      Explanation:

      The venous drainage of the uterus is via the uterine veins which form a plexus passing below the artery within the base of the broad ligament communicating with the rectal and the vesical venous plexus before draining into the internal iliac veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 67 year old patient with endometrial carcinoma is to undergo staging investigations....

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old patient with endometrial carcinoma is to undergo staging investigations. There is evidence of invasion into the vaginal wall, but the lymph nodes are spared, and there is no distant metastasis. According to FIGO, what stage is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3B

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is one of the most common gynaecological malignancies present in postmenopausal women, with a peak incidence between the ages of 60-89. Factors associated with endometrial cancer include obesity, hypertension and diabetes. Full staging for endometrial cancer is surgical, including several other radiologic investigations. According to FIGO staging classifications:
      Stage 1 indicates a tumour confined to the uterine body
      Stage 2 indicates the invasion of the cervical stroma
      Stage 3 indicates local and regional spread, where the tumour invades the serosa in stage 3A, spreads to the vagina and parametrium in stage 3B, and metastasizes to the pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes in stage 3C.
      Stage 4 indicates tumour invasion on the bladder or bowel mucosa, or distant metastasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A mother typically becomes aware of fetal movements at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • A mother typically becomes aware of fetal movements at what gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18-20 weeks

      Explanation:

      Foetal movements often become apparent at about 18-20 weeks gestation. This phenomenon is also called quickening. The Foetal movements continue to increase in frequency and force until 32 weeks where they plateau. Foetal movements can be used to monitor the wellbeing of the foetus, alerting the mother and healthcare providers to a problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following is regarded as the current Gold standard in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is regarded as the current Gold standard in the diagnosis of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rotterdam

      Explanation:

      The Rotterdam criteria was developed and expanded by the European Society of Human Reproduction and Embryology/American Society for Reproductive Medicine Rotterdam consensus (ESHRE/ASRM) in 2003 and is now the Gold standard in the diagnosis of PCOS. The criteria requires two of three features: anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries seen on ultrasound.

      The National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) attempted to define PCOS in 1990 but omitted ultrasonographic evidence of polycystic ovaries which is considered to be diagnostic of PCOS.

      The Androgen Excess Society (AES) served to confirm hyperandrogenism as the central event in the development of PCOS.

      The ROME III criteria is used for Irritable Bowel Disease and is therefore not applicable to PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Clinical Management (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed