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  • Question 1 - During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal...

    Correct

    • During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal angle. The sternal angle is a land mark for locating the level of the:

      Your Answer: Second costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle, a key landmark used in the clinic for auscultating for heart sounds, is the point of attachment of the costal cartilage of rib 2 to the sternum. It thus corresponds to the location of the second rib. A horizontal plane through the sternal angle traverses the T4/T5 intervertebral disc and marks the inferior boundary of the superior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?

      Your Answer: Blasts

      Correct Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      57.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his...

    Correct

    • A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?

      Your Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Explanation:

      The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      195.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?

      Your Answer: Sternal angle

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer: Anger

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport...

    Correct

    • Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport of glucose in the renal tubular cells occurs via:

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport with sodium

      Explanation:

      In 1960, Robert K. Crane presented for the first time his discovery of the sodium-glucose cotransport as the mechanism for glucose absorption. Glucose transport through biological membranes requires specific transport proteins. Transport of glucose through the apical membrane of renal tubular as well as intestinal epithelial cells depends on the presence of secondary active Na+–glucose symporters, SGLT-1 and SGLT-2, which concentrate glucose inside the cells, using the energy provided by co-transport of Na+ ions down their electrochemical gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56 year old gentleman, who is a chronic smoker presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old gentleman, who is a chronic smoker presents to the clinic with dyspnoea. His Chest X-ray shows intercostal space widening with increased blackening bilaterally. What is the most likely finding on his pulmonary function test?

      Your Answer: Increased total lung capacity

      Explanation:

      In patients suspected of having chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pulmonary function testing (PFT) is useful to confirm airway obstruction, to quantify its severity and reversibility, for following disease progression and monitoring response to treatment. These tests include:

      FEV1 – volume of air forcefully expired during the first second after a full breath

      Forced vital capacity (FVC) – total volume of air expired with maximal force and flow-volume loops. The hallmark of airway obstruction is reduction of FEV1, FVC and the ratio of FEV1/FVC, with a concave pattern in expiratory tracing on the flow-volume loop. FEV1 and forced vital capacity (FVC) are easily measured with office spirometry and are useful to assess the severity of disease. Other parameters include increased total lung capacity, functional residual capacity and residual volume, which can help distinguish chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) from restrictive pulmonary disease where these values are lower than normal. Along with these, other tests are decreased vital capacity; and decreased diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO). DLCO is non-specific and can be low in other disorders that affect the pulmonary vascular bed, such as interstitial lung disease. DLCO is however useful to distinguish COPD from asthma, in which DLCO is normal or elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      101.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer: Low serum concentration of glucose

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia whereas hyperglycaemia is a stimulus for insulin release. Glucagon secretion also occurs in response to high levels of amino acids. Somatostatin inhibits glucagon secretion. Parasympathetic stimulation increases pancreatic acinar secretion, but not of α-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain? ...

    Correct

    • What percentage of the cardiac output is delivered to the brain?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Among all body organs, the brain is most susceptible to ischaemia. Comprising of only 2.5% of total body weight, the brain receives 15% of the cardiac output. Oxygen extraction is also higher with venous oxygen levels approximating 13 vol%, and arteriovenous oxygen difference of 7 vol%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old woman, who had been taking a combined oral contraceptive for 6...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman, who had been taking a combined oral contraceptive for 6 months, presented with inguinal pain and oedema of the left leg. Which of the following investigations would you recommend to help confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duplex scan

      Explanation:

      Oral combined contraceptive pill (OCCP) is a drug used for birth control and treating a number of other conditions. Women who take the OCP have a higher risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), usually in the legs. Duplex ultrasonography is a safe and non-invasive technique which is used for diagnosing the presence of lower extremity thrombi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An experiment was conducted in which the skeletal muscle protein (not smooth muscle)...

    Incorrect

    • An experiment was conducted in which the skeletal muscle protein (not smooth muscle) involved in contraction was selectively inhibited. Which protein was inhibited?

      Your Answer: Actin

      Correct Answer: Troponin

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of contraction of smooth muscles is different from that of skeletal muscles in which the contractile protein is troponin whilst in smooth muscle contraction is a protein called calmodulin. Calmodulin reacts with calcium ions and stimulates the formation of myosin crossbridges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - During routine laboratory tests, a 66-year-old man is found to be suffering from...

    Incorrect

    • During routine laboratory tests, a 66-year-old man is found to be suffering from hypercholesterolaemia and is prescribed atorvastatin. What is the mechanism of action of atorvastatin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

      Explanation:

      Atorvastatin is a member of the drug class of statins, used for lowering cholesterol. The mode of action of statins is inhibition of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase. This enzyme is needed by the body to make cholesterol. The primary uses of atorvastatin is for the treatment of dyslipidaemia and the prevention of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP is 70/33 mmhg, heart rate of 140 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood resulting in his BP returning to 100/70 and his heart rate to 90 beats/min. What decreased following transfusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood to replace the volume lost. It is important not only to replace fluids but stop active bleeding in resuscitation. Fluid replacement will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling thus reducing total peripheral resistance and increasing cardiac output and cardiac filling pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with: ...

    Incorrect

    • Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penile erections

      Explanation:

      Normal sleep comprises of alternate cycles between slow-wave sleep (non-REM sleep) and REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by increased metabolic brain activity and EEG desynchronization. Somnambulism (sleepwalking), enuresis (bedwetting) and night terrors all occur during slow-wave sleep or during arousal from slow-wave sleep. In comparison, REM sleep is characterized by hypotonia of major muscle groups (excluding ocular muscles), dreams, nightmares and penile erection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse. Her ECG showed absent P-waves with irregular RR interval. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common cardiac arrhythmias. It is often asymptomatic but may present with symptoms of palpitations, fainting, chest pain and heart failure. Characteristic findings are: absence of P-waves, unorganised electrical activity in their place, irregularity of RR interval due to irregular conduction of impulses to the ventricles and if paroxysmal AF is suspected, episodes may be documented with the use of Holter monitoring

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An excised lesion is found to be a premalignant during examination by the...

    Incorrect

    • An excised lesion is found to be a premalignant during examination by the pathologist. What is the most likely histopathology report of this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Solar keratosis

      Explanation:

      Premalignant condition is a state of disordered morphology of cells that is associated with an increased risk of cancer. If this condition is left untreated, it may lead to the development of cancer. The following are examples of pre-malignant lesions: actinic keratosis, Barret’s oesophagitis, atrophic gastritis, ductal carcinoma in situ, dyskeratosis congenita, sideropenic dysphagia, lichen planus, oral submucous fibrosis, solar elastosis, cervical dysplasia, leucoplakia and erythroplakia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70 year old women, died suddenly. She had a history of hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old women, died suddenly. She had a history of hypertension and aortic stenosis. On autopsy her heart weighed 550g. What is the most likely cause of this pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Due to increased pressure on the heart as a result of hypertension and aortic stenosis, the myocardial fibres hypertrophied to adapt to the increased pressure and to effectively circulate blood around the body. Hyperplasia could not occur, as myocardial fibres are stable cells and cannot divide further.

      Fat does not deposit in the heart due to volume overload.

      Myocardial oedema is not characteristic of a myocardial injury.

      Metaplasia is a change in the type of epithelium.

      Atrophy would result in a decreased heart size and inability to function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?...

    Incorrect

    • With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The ciliary muscles are relaxed

      Explanation:

      Myopia or near-sightedness is a disease due to elongated eyeballs or too strong a lens. For far accommodation (focus of a distant object onto the retina), the lens needs to decrease its refractive power, or in other words, increase its focal length. This is done by relaxation of ciliary muscles which tightens the zonular fibres and flattening of the lens. Relaxation of the zonular fibres, rounding of the lens, shortening of the focal length and constriction of the pupil occurs during near accommodation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following diuretics promotes diuresis by opposing the action of aldosterone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretic

      Explanation:

      The term potassium-sparing refers to an effect rather than a mechanism or location. Potassium-sparing diuretics act by either antagonising the action of aldosterone (spironolactone) or inhibiting Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubules (amiloride). This group of drugs is often used as adjunctive therapy, in combination with other drugs, for the management of chronic heart failure. Spironolactone, the first member of the class, is also used in the management of hyperaldosteronism (including Conn’s syndrome) and female hirsutism (due to additional antiandrogen actions).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to: ...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman feels thirsty. This thirst is probably due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased level of angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Thirst is the basic need or instinct to drink. It arises from a lack of fluids and/or an increase in the concentration of certain osmolites such as salt. If the water volume of the body falls below a certain threshold or the osmolite concentration becomes too high, the brain signals thirst. Excessive thirst, known as polydipsia, along with excessive urination, known as polyuria, may be an indication of diabetes. Angiotensin II is a hormone that is a powerful dipsogen (i.e. it stimulates thirst) that acts via the subfornical organ. It increases secretion of ADH in the posterior pituitary and secretion of ACTH in the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal...

    Incorrect

    • At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and external carotid arteries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      The common carotid arteries are present on the left and right sides of the body. These arteries originate from different sources, but follow symmetrical courses. The right common carotid originates in the neck from the brachiocephalic trunk; the left from the aortic arch in the thorax. These split into the external and internal carotid arteries at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage, at around the level of the fourth cervical vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old female had a painful abdomen and several episodes of vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female had a painful abdomen and several episodes of vomiting. She was severely dehydrated when she was brought to the hospital. Her ABG showed a pH 7.7, p(O2) 75 mmHg, p(CO2) 46 mmHg and bicarbonate 48 mmol/l. The most likely interpretation of this ABG report would be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is a primary increase in bicarbonate (HCO3−) with or without compensatory increase in carbon dioxide partial pressure (Pco2); pH may be high or nearly normal. Metabolic alkalosis occurs as a consequence of a loss of H+ from the body or a gain in HCO3 -. In its pure form, it manifests as alkalemia (pH >7.40). As a compensatory mechanism, metabolic alkalosis leads to alveolar hypoventilation with a rise in arterial carbon dioxide tension p(CO2), which diminishes the change in pH that would otherwise occur. Normally, arterial p(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mmol/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that occurs very rapidly. If the change in p(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs. Likewise, if the increase in p(CO2) is less than the expected change, then a primary respiratory alkalosis is also present. However an elevated serum bicarbonate concentration can also occur due to a compensatory response to primary respiratory acidosis. A bicarbonate concentration greater than 35 mmol/l is almost always caused by metabolic alkalosis (as is the case in this clinical scenario). Calculation of the serum anion gap can also help to differentiate between primary metabolic alkalosis and the metabolic compensation for respiratory acidosis. The anion gap is frequently elevated to a modest degree in metabolic alkalosis because of the increase in the negative charge of albumin and the enhanced production of lactate. However, the only definitive way to diagnose metabolic alkalosis is by performing a simultaneous blood gases analysis, which reveals elevation of both pH and arterial p(CO2) and increased calculated bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Outer membrane

      Explanation:

      The reason bacteria are either Gram-positive or Gram-negative is due to the structure of their cell envelope (the cell envelope is defined as the cell membrane and cell wall plus an outer membrane, if one is present.) Gram-positive bacteria, for example, retain the crystal violet due to the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. It can be said therefore that the Gram-stain procedure separates bacteria into two broad categories based on structural differences in the cell envelope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration, and subsequent hypotension and tachycardia. Which part of the kidney will compensate for this loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      The collecting duct system of the kidney consists of a series of tubules and ducts that physically connect nephrons to a minor calyx or directly to the renal pelvis. The collecting duct system is the last component of the kidney to influence the body’s electrolyte and fluid balance. In humans, the system accounts for 4–5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of sodium and 5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of water. At times of extreme dehydration, over 24% of the filtered water may be reabsorbed in the collecting duct system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop? ...

    Incorrect

    • What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synthesis of proteins

      Explanation:

      The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the factory for the manufacturing of proteins. It contains ribosomes attached to it and transports proteins that are destined for membranes and secretions. The rough ER is connected to the nuclear envelope and to the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus by vesicles that shuttle between the two compartments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The primary motor cortex is located in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary motor cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Precentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary motor cortex is located in the dorsal part of the precentral gyrus and the anterior bank of the central sulcus. The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the postcentral gyrus and is separated from it by a central sulcus. Its anterior border is the precentral sulcus, while inferiorly it borders to the lateral fissure (Sylvian fissure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left chest. The tip of the pen knife entered the pleural space just above the cardiac notch. Luckily the lung was spared as it would only occupy this space during deep inspiration. Which of these structures was pierced by the knife?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is located immediately next to the cardiac notch. The medial aspect of the superior lobe of the left lung, when fully inflated expands to this place. The lung wouldn’t enter the anterior or the posterior mediastinum which are found between the two pleural cavities.

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity where the inferior lobes of the lungs would expand into in deep inhalation.

      The cupola, is the part of the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib into the root of the neck. The superior most part of the superior lobe of the lung might extend into this part.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold that is located below the root of the lung where the visceral pleura and the mediastinal pleura are in continuity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The most likely cause of a low p(O2) in arterial blood is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most likely cause of a low p(O2) in arterial blood is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoxic hypoxia

      Explanation:

      Hypoxia is when the whole body or a region is deprived of adequate oxygen supply. Different types of hypoxia include the following:

      – Hypoxic hypoxia, which occurs due to poor oxygen supply, as a result of low partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood. This could be due to low partial pressure of atmospheric oxygen (e.g., at high altitude), sleep apnoea, poor ventilation because of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or respiratory arrest, or shunts. The other types of hypoxia have a normal partial pressure of oxygen.

      – Anaemic hypoxia occurs due to low total oxygen content of the blood, with a normal arterial oxygen pressure.

      – Hyperaemic hypoxia occurs due to poor delivery of oxygen to target tissues, such as in carbon monoxide poisoning or methemoglobinemia.

      – Histotoxic hypoxia results due to inability of the cells to use the delivered oxygen due to disabled oxidative phosphorylation enzymes.

      – Ischaemic (or stagnant) hypoxia occurs due to local flow restriction of well-oxygenated blood, seen in cases like cerebral ischaemia, ischaemic heart disease and intrauterine hypoxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - After being admitted to the hospital, a 60-year-old man is administered sodium nitroprusside....

    Incorrect

    • After being admitted to the hospital, a 60-year-old man is administered sodium nitroprusside. Which class of drugs does nitroprusside belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasodilators

      Explanation:

      Sodium nitroprusside is a potent peripheral vasodilator that affects both arterioles and venules. It is often administered intravenously to patients who are experiencing a hypertensive emergency. It reduces both total peripheral resistance as well as venous return, so decreasing both preload and afterload. For this reason it can be used in severe cardiogenic heart failure where this combination of effects can act to increase cardiac output. It is administered by intravenous infusion. Onset is typically immediate and effects last for up to ten minutes. The duration of treatment should not exceed 72 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (3/3) 100%
Thorax (2/2) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (1/2) 50%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (4/6) 67%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
General (0/1) 0%
Passmed