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  • Question 1 - Which antipsychotic medication is offered in a depot form? ...

    Correct

    • Which antipsychotic medication is offered in a depot form?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      A drug in depot form is released slowly.

      Depot antipsychotics (long-term injectables) are available for both first-generation and second-generation antipsychotics. The efficacy of first-generation antipsychotic depots is considered to be broadly similar, with zuclopenthixol potentially being more effective in preventing relapses but with an increased burden of adverse effects. Second-generation antipsychotic depots have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal symptoms compared to first-generation antipsychotic depots. Test doses should be administered for first-generation antipsychotic depots, and only gluteal injection is licensed for olanzapine depots. Post-injection syndrome is a potential adverse effect of olanzapine depots, which can cause significant weight gain. Patients may be most at risk of deterioration immediately after a depot rather than just before, and relapse seems to occur 3-6 months after withdrawing a depot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor...

    Correct

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for interacting with the motor cortex and planning and programming movements?

      Your Answer: Cerebrocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebrocerebellum is the largest functional subdivision of the cerebellum, comprising of the lateral hemispheres and the dentate nuclei. It is involved in the planning and timing of movements, and in the cognitive functions of the cerebellum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following best describes the symptoms of the woman who visited...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the symptoms of the woman who visited A&E claiming that she had a chip implanted in her head by CIA and could hear voices reporting her every move back to headquarters?

      Your Answer: Thought insertion

      Correct Answer: Running commentary

      Explanation:

      The women’s movements are being narrated in real-time by the voices, which is known as ‘running commentary’. It does not appear that the voices are affecting her thoughts in any way.

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which option is not a treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which option is not a treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

      Your Answer: Antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      NMS is a potential side effect of antipsychotics.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which individual discussed objects that provide comfort during times of transition of stress?...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual discussed objects that provide comfort during times of transition of stress?

      Your Answer: Klein

      Correct Answer: Winnicott

      Explanation:

      Transitional objects were conceptualized by Winnicott as items that infants between 4-18 months of age select to aid in their separation and individuation process. These objects, such as a soft toy of blanket, serve as a source of comfort and help reduce anxiety. Object relations theory was also supported by Balint and Fairbairn. Meanwhile, Kleinian theory placed significant emphasis on the interpretation of play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the term used to describe a drug that remains inactive until...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe a drug that remains inactive until it is converted into its active metabolite?

      Your Answer: A prodrug

      Explanation:

      The Significance of Active Metabolites in Drug Discovery and Development

      Certain drugs are classified as prodrugs, which means that they are inactive when administered and require metabolism to become active. These drugs are converted into an active form, which is referred to as an active metabolite. Some drugs have important active metabolites, such as diazepam, dothiepin, fluoxetine, imipramine, risperidone, amitriptyline, and codeine, which are desmethyldiazepam, dothiepin sulfoxide, norfluoxetine, desipramine, 9-hydroxyrisperidone, nortriptyline, and morphine, respectively.

      The role of pharmacologically active metabolites in drug discovery and development is significant. Understanding the active metabolites of a drug can help in the development of more effective and safer drugs. Active metabolites can also provide insights into the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of a drug, which can aid in the optimization of dosing regimens. Additionally, active metabolites can have different pharmacological properties than the parent drug, which can lead to the discovery of new therapeutic uses for a drug. Therefore, the study of active metabolites is an important aspect of drug discovery and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which statement accurately describes sporadic CJD? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes sporadic CJD?

      Your Answer: It usually presents with psychiatric and behavioural problems

      Correct Answer: It tends to affect older rather than younger people

      Explanation:

      Variant CJD primarily affects younger individuals, while sporadic CJD is more commonly seen in older individuals.

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.

      vCJD:
      – Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
      – Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
      – MRI shows pulvinar sign
      – EEG shows generalized slowing
      – Originates from infected meat products
      – Affects younger people (age 25-30)

      CJD:
      – Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
      – Presents with neurological symptoms
      – MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
      – EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
      – Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
      – Affects older people (age 55-65)

      Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which type of cells in the central nervous system are most vulnerable to...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of cells in the central nervous system are most vulnerable to HIV?

      Your Answer: Endothelial cells

      Correct Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      The vulnerability of microglia to HIV infection is highest among all the cell types in the brain. This is because the CD4 and CCR5 receptors required for HIV cell entry are expressed in both parenchymal microglia and perivascular microglia/macrophages. Although there have been some reports of HIV infection in endothelial cells, neurons, and oligodendrocytes, it is generally accepted that such infections are rare and unlikely to play a significant role in HIV-related CNS disorders. Astrocytes are thought to be capable of only a limited form of HIV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A post marketing trial is also referred to as which phase of a...

    Incorrect

    • A post marketing trial is also referred to as which phase of a clinical trial?

      Your Answer: Phase I

      Correct Answer: Phase IV

      Explanation:

      Clinical Trials: Phases and Objectives

      Clinical trials are conducted in four phases to evaluate the safety and efficacy of drugs of treatments. In Phase I, a small group of healthy individuals (15-20) is given the drug to determine its safety, dosage range, and side effects. Phase II involves a larger group (100-300) to assess the drug’s effectiveness and safety. In Phase III, the drug is given to a larger population (1,000-3,000) to confirm its efficacy, compare it with existing treatments, and collect data for safe use. Phase IV, also known as post-marketing trials, is conducted after the drug is licensed to gather additional information on safety and potential uses. These trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of drugs and treatments before they are made available to the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Erikson's developmental model proposes that individuals face distinct challenges at various stages of...

    Correct

    • Erikson's developmental model proposes that individuals face distinct challenges at various stages of their lives. At one of these stages, individuals learn the significance of accomplishments in social relationships beyond their family and the importance of achievements in their professional and academic pursuits. What is the name of this stage?

      Your Answer: Industry vs. inferiority

      Explanation:

      The stage of industry vs. inferiority occurs between the ages of 6 and 12, during which the child learns the importance of succeeding in school and building relationships outside of the family. Autonomy vs. doubt pertains to the stage of 1-2 years old, where the child learns self-discipline, self-assurance, and social norms. Initiative vs. guilt refers to the period of 3-5 years old, when the child forms a sense of self-identity. Intimacy vs. isolation is the stage where an individual develops a sense of commitment to others. Trust vs. mistrust is the stage where a sense of safety and security is established, typically occurring during the first year of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the term that describes a patient's tendency to provide a lengthy...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term that describes a patient's tendency to provide a lengthy and convoluted answer to a question, struggling to filter out irrelevant associations?

      Your Answer: Derailment

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Formal Thought Disorders

      In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.

      There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.

      Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.

      Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.

      Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.

      Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.

      Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.

      Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following options correctly orders the phases of mitosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following options correctly orders the phases of mitosis?

      Your Answer: Prophase, Prometaphase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

      Explanation:

      Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division

      Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.

      During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.

      In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.

      Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about delirium?

      Your Answer: People with hypoactive delirium are often restless

      Correct Answer: Hypoactive delirium is often missed as it is difficult to recognise

      Explanation:

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old woman who has been referred to you by...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old woman who has been referred to you by her therapist. She has a history of pursuing over 40 cases against various individuals, services, and authorities. Many of these cases have been dismissed as frivolous.

      She works as a receptionist, but presents as someone capable of more challenging work. She reports being fired from several jobs due to discrimination and mistreatment.

      Mrs. Johnson is divorced, following her husband's infidelity. After the divorce, she told her children they could either continue to see her of their father. They chose to maintain a relationship with both parents, but Mrs. Johnson is unable to accept this.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the scenario could be consistent with various diagnoses, but the most appropriate diagnosis is paranoid personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by several symptoms, including excessive sensitivity to setbacks, persistent grudges, distorted perceptions of others’ actions, a strong sense of personal rights, unfounded suspicions of infidelity, self-importance, and preoccupation with conspiracies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is one of the five major personality traits? ...

    Correct

    • What is one of the five major personality traits?

      Your Answer: Neuroticism

      Explanation:

      The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - This means that 80% of the variation in ADHD can be attributed to...

    Incorrect

    • This means that 80% of the variation in ADHD can be attributed to genetic factors.

      Your Answer: An individual has an 80% chance of inheriting the condition from an affected parent

      Correct Answer: On average 80% of the variance of the condition in a population is due to genetic factors

      Explanation:

      The heritability estimate does not provide any information about specific individuals.

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In a normal, healthy person during stage III sleep, what EEG patterns would...

    Correct

    • In a normal, healthy person during stage III sleep, what EEG patterns would be most expected to be observed?

      Your Answer: Delta waves

      Explanation:

      Sleep Stages

      Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.

      Sleep stage
      Approx % of time spent in stage
      EEG findings
      Comment

      I
      5%
      Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
      The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.

      II
      45%
      Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
      Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.

      III
      15%
      Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
      Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.

      IV
      15%
      Mixed, predominantly beta
      High dream activity.

      The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.

      It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.

      REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM

      Characteristics of REM sleep

      – Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
      – Loss of muscle tone
      – Dreaming
      – Rapid eye movements
      – Penile erection

      Deafness:

      (No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A client is gradually tapering off venlafaxine and experiencing unbearable discontinuation symptoms. What...

    Correct

    • A client is gradually tapering off venlafaxine and experiencing unbearable discontinuation symptoms. What options are available to alleviate these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Fluoxetine may be effective in treating discontinuation symptoms that occur when stopping venlafaxine and clomipramine, possibly due to its extended half-life.

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The thalamic main input from the cortex is via which tracts? ...

    Correct

    • The thalamic main input from the cortex is via which tracts?

      Your Answer: Thalamocortical pathway

      Explanation:

      The thalamus is connected to cerebral cortex via the thalamocortical radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is a true statement about the cingulate gyrus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the cingulate gyrus?

      Your Answer: It is located within the cerebellum

      Correct Answer: It is involved in reward-based decision making

      Explanation:

      The fusiform gyrus is essential for recognizing faces and bodies, while damage to the angular gyrus can result in Gerstmann syndrome.

      The Cingulate Gyrus: A Hub for Emotions and Decision Making

      The cingulate gyrus is a cortical fold located on the medial aspect of the cerebral hemisphere, adjacent to the corpus callosum. As part of the limbic system, it plays a crucial role in processing emotions and regulating the body’s endocrine and autonomic responses to emotional stimuli. Additionally, it is involved in reward-based decision making. Essentially, the cingulate gyrus acts as a hub that connects emotions, sensations, and actions. The term cingulate comes from the Latin word for belt of girdle, which reflects the way in which it wraps around the corpus callosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The primary sensory cortex is: ...

    Correct

    • The primary sensory cortex is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 3,1,2

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:
      Primary somatosensory cortex is areas 3,1, and 2
      Primary Motor 4
      Premotor 6
      Primary Visual 17
      Primary Auditory 41
      Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is: ...

    Correct

    • The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is:

      Your Answer: Secretion of tears from lacrimal glands, secretion of saliva from the sublingual and submandibular salivary glands.

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) has both sensory and motor components so it is a mixed nerve. It carries axons of:
      General somatic afferent – to skin and the posterior ear
      General visceral efferent – which innervate sublingual, submandibular and lacrimal glands and the mucosa of the nasal cavity.
      General visceral afferent – provide sensation to soft palate and parts of the nasal cavity.
      Special visceral efferent – innervate muscles of facial expression and stapedius, the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid muscles
      Special visceral afferent – provide taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via chorda tympani.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - How can the triad of impairments in autism be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the triad of impairments in autism be described?

      Your Answer: Asperger

      Correct Answer: Wing

      Explanation:

      Autism: A Brief History

      The term autism was first coined in 1911 by Eugen Bleuler to describe individuals with schizophrenia who had cut themselves off as much as possible from any contact with the external world. In 1926, Grunya Sukhareva attempted to delineate autism spectrum disorders as distinct diagnostic entities, referring to them as schizoid personality disorder. However, her work remained largely unknown until 1996.

      The first widely publicized use of the term autism to describe a distinct condition was in 1943 by Leo Kanner, who referred to it as autistic disturbance of affective contact. Kanner suggested that autism may be a manifestation of childhood schizophrenia and that it was characterized by an inability to related to themselves in the ordinary way to people and situations from the beginning of life. In 1944, Hans Asperger published descriptions of four cases of a condition he termed der autistichen psychopathie, which he regarded as a limitation of social relationships.

      In 1980, infantile autism was included in the DSM-III under a new category of pervasive developmental disorders. Lorna Wing redefined Asperger Syndrome in 1981, proposing a triad of impairments in social interaction, communication, and imaginative activities. In 2000, the DSM-IV utilized the umbrella category of pervasive developmental disorders, with five main subcategories. Finally, in 2013, the DSM-5 combined the subcategories into a single label of autism spectrum disorder, asserting that autism is a single disorder on a wide spectrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which component is included in the Papez circuit? ...

    Correct

    • Which component is included in the Papez circuit?

      Your Answer: Hippocampus

      Explanation:

      The Papez Circuit: A Neural Pathway for Emotion

      James Papez was the first to describe a neural pathway in the brain that mediates the process of emotion. This pathway is known as the ‘Papez circuit’ and is located on the medial surface of the brain. It is bilateral, symmetrical, and links the cortex to the hypothalamus.

      According to Papez, information about emotion passes through several structures in the brain, including the hippocampus, the Mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus, the anterior nucleus of the thalamus, the cingulate cortex, and the entorhinal cortex. Finally, the information passes through the hippocampus again, completing the circuit.

      The Papez circuit was one of the first descriptions of the limbic system, which is responsible for regulating emotions, motivation, and memory. Understanding the Papez circuit and the limbic system has important implications for understanding and treating emotional disorders such as anxiety and depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause hypotension, and it is believed that this...

    Correct

    • Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause hypotension, and it is believed that this effect is mediated by a specific type of receptor. Which receptor is thought to be responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Alpha 1

      Explanation:

      Postural hypotension is a known side effect of alpha-1-blockade.

      Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects

      Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.

      Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

      Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.

      Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.

      Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
      Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
      Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
      Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
      Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
      Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
      Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
      Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
      Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
      Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Pimozide + + – + + + +++
      Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
      Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
      Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++

      Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the beverage with the highest caffeine content per serving size? ...

    Correct

    • What is the beverage with the highest caffeine content per serving size?

      Your Answer: Brewed coffee

      Explanation:

      The caffeine content in brewed coffee is relatively high, with approximately 100 mg per cup. In comparison, tea has a lower caffeine content. Black tea has around 45 mg per cup, while green tea has approximately 25 mg per cup. Instant coffee contains about 60 mg per cup, and a can of Red Bull contains 80 mg of caffeine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Who is responsible for introducing chlorpromazine into clinical practice? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is responsible for introducing chlorpromazine into clinical practice?

      Your Answer: Kuhn

      Correct Answer: Delay and Deniker

      Explanation:

      Chlorpromazine, also known as Thorazine, is a medication used to treat various mental health conditions such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and severe anxiety. It was first synthesized by Paul Charpentier in 1950 and quickly became a popular antipsychotic medication due to its effectiveness in reducing symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Chlorpromazine works by blocking certain neurotransmitters in the brain, leading to a calming effect on the patient. Despite its success, chlorpromazine can cause side effects such as drowsiness, dry mouth, and blurred vision. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking this medication.

      A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

      In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the embryonic structure that gives rise to the cerebellum and pons?...

    Correct

    • What is the embryonic structure that gives rise to the cerebellum and pons?

      Your Answer: Metencephalon

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, the neural tube at the cranial end gives rise to three major parts: the prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, forming the forebrain. The mesencephalon forms the midbrain, while the rhombencephalon splits into the metencephalon (which gives rise to the cerebellum and pons) and myelencephalon (which forms the medulla oblongata and spinal cord).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the enzyme that is inhibited by disulfiram and responsible for its...

    Correct

    • What is the enzyme that is inhibited by disulfiram and responsible for its effect?

      Your Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the primary mechanism by which valproate stabilizes mood? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mechanism by which valproate stabilizes mood?

      Your Answer: Calcium channel blockade

      Correct Answer: GABA agonism

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (7/9) 78%
Neuro-anatomy (4/4) 100%
Classification And Assessment (1/5) 20%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/1) 0%
Neurosciences (3/6) 50%
Psychological Development (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Old Age Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Diagnosis (0/1) 0%
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