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  • Question 1 - Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12?

      Your Answer: Liver, meat

      Explanation:

      No fungi, plants, nor animals (including humans) are capable of producing vitamin B12. Only bacteria and archaea have the enzymes needed for its synthesis. Proved food sources of B12 are animal products (meat, fish, dairy products).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      2.1
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 47 -year-old male was admitted due to a bleeding peptic ulcer. On...

    Correct

    • A 47 -year-old male was admitted due to a bleeding peptic ulcer. On his 3rd hospital day, he developed a cardiac arrhythmia. His serum potassium was markedly elevated. What is the most likely cause of hyperkalaemia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Multiple blood transfusions

      Explanation:

      Patients with gastrointestinal bleeding often require blood transfusion. Among the various side effects of blood transfusions, is the increase of potassium levels. The use of stored blood for transfusions is followed by an increase of serum potassium levels. Potassium level increases are more pronounced in patients who receive blood stored for more than 12 d. Furthermore, the lysis and destruction of red blood cells, especially in the transfusion of older PRBCs, can further increase potassium levels. Excessive use of a PPi has been associated with hyperkaelemia however would be less likely in this acute setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      3.8
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Bacteria constantly remodel their peptidoglycan cell walls, simultaneously building and breaking down portions of the cell wall as they grow and divide. β-Lactam antibiotics inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall; this is achieved through binding of the four-membered β-lactam ring of penicillin to the enzyme DD-transpeptidase. As a consequence, DD-transpeptidase cannot catalyse formation of these cross-links, and an imbalance between cell wall production and degradation develops, causing the cell to rapidly die.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Physiology
      2.6
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation… ...

    Correct

    • In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation…

      Your Answer: Reduces towards the centre

      Explanation:

      Cells located close to the portal triad or peripheral zone which consist of arterioles from the hepatic artery are the most oxygenated cells. Cells in the central zone are least oxygenated and mainly receive blood supply from the central vein which is a branch of the hepatic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Physiology
      3.6
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the...

    Correct

    • What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the body?

      Your Answer: Radiation and conduction

      Explanation:

      The body maintains a constant core temperature by balancing heat loss and heat gain. The mechanisms of heat loss are: radiation, evaporation, convection and conduction. Out of these mechanisms, the most important under normal conditions are radiation, through which body heat is given off to the surrounding atmosphere; and conduction, in which the body releases heat into the objects it comes into contact with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      2.1
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules? ...

    Correct

    • What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules?

      Your Answer: Kinesin and dynein

      Explanation:

      The major motor proteins that interact with microtubules are kinesin, which usually moves toward the (+) end of the microtubule, and dynein, which moves toward the (−) end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      6.9
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman with history of blunt thoracic trauma develops hypotension chest pain,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with history of blunt thoracic trauma develops hypotension chest pain, and breathlessness. A bedside echocardiogram was performed and revealed a large pericardial effusion. Due to this finding, a pericardiocentesis was to be performed. Which of the following statements is considered true regarding pericardiocentesis?

      Your Answer: The needle should be aimed at the midpoint of the left clavicle

      Explanation:

      Pericardiocentesis is a procedure done to remove fluid build-up in the sac around the heart known as the pericardium. The pericardium can be tapped from almost any reasonable location on the chest wall. However, for the usual blind pericardiocentesis, the subxiphoid approach is preferred. Ideally, 2-D echocardiography is used to guide needle insertion and the subsequent path of the needle/catheter. In the subxiphoid approach, the needle is inserted 1 cm inferior to the left xiphocostal angle with an angle of 30 degrees from the patient’s chest with a direction towards the left mid-clavicle. The fingers may sense a distinct give when the needle penetrates the parietal pericardium. Successful removal of fluid confirms the needle’s position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      9.3
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Role of bile salts in digestion of fats include ...

    Correct

    • Role of bile salts in digestion of fats include

      Your Answer: Reduce surface tension, emulsification and transportation

      Explanation:

      Bile acts to some extent as a surfactant reducing surface tension, helping to emulsify the lipids in food. Bile salt anions are hydrophilic on one side and hydrophobic on the other side; consequently, they tend to aggregate around droplets of lipids (triglycerides and phospholipids) to form micelles, with the hydrophobic sides towards the fat and hydrophilic sides facing outwards. The hydrophilic sides are negatively charged, and this charge prevents fat droplets coated with bile from re-aggregating into larger fat particles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      2.4
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Regarding the formation of CSF, which of the following is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the formation of CSF, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Its composition resembles that of brain ECF

      Explanation:

      In normal adults CSF volume is around 125ml to 150ml. Turnover of entire volume of cerebrospinal fluid a day is about 3 to 4 times a day. Composition of CSF is similar to that of plasma except that CSF is nearly protein-free compared with plasma and has a different electrolyte level. About 80% of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus. It is also produced by a single layer of column shaped ependymal cells. The composition and rate of CSF generation depends on several factors and is influenced by hormones and the content and pressure of blood and CSF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.3
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Where is the major site of purine synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the major site of purine synthesis?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The major site of purine synthesis is in the liver. Purines are biologically synthesized as nucleotides and in particular as ribotides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolism
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones?

      Your Answer: They are released in response to hypervolemia

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic hormones are vasodilators released in response to hypervolemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it? ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct statement regarding the 4th heart sound, it?

      Your Answer: Occurs during isovolumetric ventricular contraction.

      Correct Answer: Can be heard in atrial systole.

      Explanation:

      The fourth heart sound is not normally audible in a normal adult. It occurs as a consequence of ventricular hypertrophy. It is caused by filling of the ventricle by atrial systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation...

    Incorrect

    • Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation of covalent cross-linkages?

      Your Answer: Factor XIIa

      Correct Answer: Factor XIIIa

      Explanation:

      Factor XIII or fibrin stabilizing factor is an enzyme of the blood coagulation system that crosslinks fibrin. Deficiency of this factor (FXIIID) affects clot stability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A lesion that interrupts one optic nerve causes blindness: ...

    Correct

    • A lesion that interrupts one optic nerve causes blindness:

      Your Answer: In the eye on the same side as the optic nerve

      Explanation:

      The optic nerve on each side contains medial and lateral fibers originating from the retina. Medial fibers cross at the optic chiasm and become the optic tract ending in the visual cortex of the occipital lobe. If there is a lesion interrupting the “optic nerve” on one side, the same side eye will be completely blind.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      3.1
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the trachea, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the neck inferior to the cricoid cartilage.

      Explanation:

      A cricothyrotomy involves making an opening in the median cricothyroid ligament (the medial part of the cricothyroid membrane), between the cricoid cartilage below and the thyroid cartilage above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.3
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone...

    Incorrect

    • Which coronary artery is mostly likely affected if an ECG shows a tombstone pattern in leads V2, V3 and V4?

      Your Answer: Posterior descending artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      Tombstoning ST elevation myocardial infarction can be described as a STEMI characterized by tombstoning ST-segment elevation. This myocardial infarction is associated with extensive myocardial damage, reduced left ventricle function, serious hospital complications and poor prognosis. Tombstoning ECG pattern is a notion beyond morphological difference and is associated with more serious clinical results. Studies have shown that tombstoning is more commonly found in anterior than non-anterior STEMI, thus, higher rates of left anterior descending artery disease are observed in patients with tombstoning pattern. The following ECG leads determine the location and vessels involved in myocardial infarction: ECG Leads Location Vessel involved V1-V2 Septal wall Left anterior descending V3-V4 Anterior wall Left anterior descending V5-V6 Lateral wall Left circumflex artery II, III, aVF Inferior wall Right coronary artery (80%) or Left circumflex artery (20%) I, aVL High lateral wall Left circumflex artery V1, V4R Right ventricle Right coronary artery V7-V9 Posterior wall Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      5.8
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is: ...

    Correct

    • The parasympathetic function of the facial nerve is:

      Your Answer: Secretion of tears from lacrimal glands, secretion of saliva from the sublingual and submandibular salivary glands.

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII) has both sensory and motor components so it is a mixed nerve. It carries axons of:General somatic afferent – to skin and the posterior earGeneral visceral efferent – which innervate sublingual, submandibular and lacrimal glands and the mucosa of the nasal cavity.General visceral afferent – provide sensation to soft palate and parts of the nasal cavity.Special visceral efferent – innervate muscles of facial expression and stapedius, the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid musclesSpecial visceral afferent – provide taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via chorda tympani.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      1.9
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with:

      Your Answer: Ectodermal cells

      Correct Answer: Mesothelial cells

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid mater is one of the three meninges that covers the brain and spinal cord. It is interposed between the two other meninges, the more superficial and much thicker dura mater and the deeper pia mater, from which it is separated by the subarachnoid space. The arachnoid mater consists of a subdural mesothelial layer and a compact central layer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      1.8
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Microtubule subunits include: ...

    Correct

    • Microtubule subunits include:

      Your Answer: Alpha and beta tubulin

      Explanation:

      Microtubules are long, hollow cylinders made up of polymerised α- and β-tubulin dimers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      3.5
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve?

      Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      2.3
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck...

    Correct

    • A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck to screen for Down's syndrome.Which of these is the embryological origin of this tissue?

      Your Answer: Ectoderm

      Explanation:

      The origins of the neural tube and the nape of the neck where nuchal translucency measurements are taken are from embryonic ectoderm.The structural development of the head and neck occurs between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. The 5 pairs of branchial arches, corresponding to the primitive vertebrae gill bars, that form on either side of the pharyngeal foregut on day 22 are the embryologic basis of all the differentiated structures of the head and neck. Each arch consists of 3 layers: an outer covering of ectoderm, an inner covering of endoderm, and a middle core of mesenchyme. These arches are separated further into external, ectoderm-lined pharyngeal clefts and internal, endoderm-lined pharyngeal pouchesA population of ectodermal cells adjacent to the neural fold and not included in the overlying surface (somatic) ectoderm gives rise to the formation of the neural crest. These neuroectodermal crest cells are believed to migrate widely throughout the developing embryo in a relatively cell-free enriched extracellular matrix and differentiate into a wide array of cell and tissue types, influenced by the local environment. Most connective and skeletal tissues of the cranium and face ultimately come from the derivatives of neural crest cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Antomy
      • Embryology
      2
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is...

    Incorrect

    • The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is what type of sensory neuron?

      Your Answer: IIa

      Correct Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      Muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is gamma motor neurone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      3.2
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - The most resistant area in the brain to hypoxia is: ...

    Correct

    • The most resistant area in the brain to hypoxia is:

      Your Answer: Brain stem

      Explanation:

      The structures in the brainstem are more resistant to hypoxia than the cerebral cortex and the rest of the brain structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      2.1
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following suggests the presence of mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Loud P2

      Correct Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis on its own does not lead to left ventricular dilatation and hence a displaced apex beat. Thus a displaced apex beat is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other options occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male,...

    Correct

    • A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male, chronic smoker will mostly likely show which cellular adaptation?

      Your Answer: Stratified squamous metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is a change in the cell type caused in part due to an extrinsic stress on the organ. It involves a change in the surface epithelium from one cell type to the another, most commonly squamous to columnar. This is a reversible process, and removal of the stress should theoretically reverse the surface epithelium back to normal morphology. Respiratory tract metaplasia is a classic example, in which the normal pseudostratified columnar epithelium is replaced by stratified squamous epithelium to better cope with the stress. Under continuous stress metaplasia can progress to dysplasia which is a disordered growth of cells eventually leading to the development of carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      2
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Nucleic acids are split into nucleotides in the: ...

    Correct

    • Nucleic acids are split into nucleotides in the:

      Your Answer: Intestine

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is the major source for all the digestive enzymes including nucleases which split nucleic acids into nucleotides primarily in the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolism
      • Physiology
      1.6
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage...

    Correct

    • During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage known as:

      Your Answer: Epiphysial plate

      Explanation:

      The epiphysial plate, physis, or growth plate, is a hyaline cartilage plate located near the ends of long bones; it consists of growing tissue. It is found in children and teenagers; in adults, it is replaced by an epiphysial line or epiphysial closure. The epiphysial plate is divided into zones: zone of reserve, proliferation, maturation and hypertrophy, calcification, and ossification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      1.9
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - In response to tissue injury, which of these cannot sensitize and activate nociceptors?...

    Correct

    • In response to tissue injury, which of these cannot sensitize and activate nociceptors?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Explanation:

      Histamine, serotonin, bradykinin and prostaglandin are all chemical mediators of inflammation with different distinct functions however all activate nociceptors. Calcium on the other hand cannot sensitize or activate nociceptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      1.7
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach ...

    Correct

    • HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Parietal cells are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the body of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      1.7
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - The interior of lysosomes is kept at a pH of around 5 by...

    Correct

    • The interior of lysosomes is kept at a pH of around 5 by the action of:

      Your Answer: H+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      The lysosome maintains its pH differential by pumping in protons (H+ ions) from the cytosol across the membrane via proton pumps and chloride ion channels. Vacuolar H+-ATPases are responsible for transport of protons, while the counter transport of chloride ions is performed by ClC-7 Cl−/H+ antiporter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Physiology
      2.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (1/2) 50%
Physiology (17/23) 74%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Cell Biology (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (3/4) 75%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Neurology (4/6) 67%
Metabolism (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/4) 25%
Head & Neck (2/2) 100%
Antomy (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
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