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Question 1
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A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Explanation:In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 2
Correct
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Anorexia nervosa is associated with which of the following skin and nail related changes?
Your Answer: Acrocyanosis
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder which is characterized by distorted self-image leading to abnormally decreased calorie intake. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the skin, GI, and endocrine system. Due to extreme weight loss, patients with anorexia nervosa develop cold intolerance along with bluish discoloration of their fingers, nose, and ears, which is known as acrocyanosis. This phenomenon may be due to the shunting of the blood from the peripheries to the central body systems as a reaction to hypothermia. Other notable changes in the integumentary system include extreme dryness (xerosis), lanugo hairs, decubitus ulcers, and easy bruisibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby boy who is well feed and thriving, but jaundiced?
Your Answer: Total serum bilirubin
Explanation:Usually, a total serum bilirubin level test is the only one required in an infant with moderate jaundice who presents on the second or third day of life without a history and physical findings suggestive of a pathologic process. Measurement of bilirubin fractions (conjugated vs unconjugated) in serum is not usually required in infants who present as described above. However, in infants who have hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, thrombocytopenia, or other findings suggestive of hepatobiliary disease, metabolic disorder, or congenital infection, early measurement of bilirubin fractions is suggested. The same may apply to infants who remain jaundiced beyond the first 7-10 days of life, and to infants whose total serum bilirubin levels repeatedly rebound following treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy was admitted with a burn that looks third or fourth degree upon inspection. He has not stopped crying. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: IV fluid start
Explanation:The boy needs re-hydration due to his full thickness burn so IV fluids is the next most appropriate step. The greatest loss of plasma occurs in the first 12 hours after burn injury. The plasma loss then slowly decreases during the second 12 hours of the post-burn phase, although extensive leakage can continue for up to three days (Ahrns, 2004). Optimal fluid replacement during this period is essential to ensure cardiac output and renal and tissue perfusion. Usually, 36 hours post-burn, capillary permeability returns to normal and fluid is drawn back into the circulation. Burns of more than 15% of surface body area in adults and of over 10% in children warrant formal resuscitation.The Parkland formula for the total fluid requirement in 24 hours is as follows:4ml x TBSA (%) x body weight (kg)|50% given in first eight hours|50% given in next 16 hours.Children receive maintenance fluid in addition, at an hourly rate of:4ml/kg for the first 10kg of body weight plus|2ml/kg for the second 10kg of body weight plus|1ml/kg for >20kg of body weight.End pointUrine – adults: 0.5–1.0 ml/kg/hour|Urine – children: 1.0–1.5ml/kg/hour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?
Your Answer: Combined pill
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child whose head circumference is on the 3rd centile? Note that his height and weight are in the 75th centile.
Your Answer: Congenital rubella syndrome
Explanation:The most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child is congenital rubella syndrome.Microcephaly is defined as head circumference > two standard deviations below the mean.The causes of microcephaly include:- Genetic disorders: Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, Patau syndrome, Williams syndrome, Angelman syndrome, and Rett syndrome.- Infective: Meningitis, toxoplasmosis, CMV, rubella, varicella, HIVand Zika.- Acquired causes: Severe brain malformations, neurodegenerative diseases, hypoxic-ischemic injury, infarction, antenatal exposure to drugs, alcohol, and other toxins. Severe malnutrition and uncontrolled phenylketonuria in the mother are other causes of microcephaly in children.- Craniosynostosis- Neurometabolic disorders- Early non-accidental trauma- Fanconi anaemia- Other causes include: Familial and nonfamilial nonsyndromic microcephalyMost children with microcephaly have one or several associated symptoms:- Developmental delay- Seizures- Visual abnormalities- Short stature
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 6 month old infant has developed jaundice from breast milk. He is otherwise healthy with no signs of dehydration. His LFTs will most likely show which of the following pattern?
Your Answer: Total bilirubin: 40, conjugated bilirubin < 5%
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Breast milk jaundice is a type of jaundice associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth. The condition can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It’s safe to continue breast-feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?
Your Answer: It is suggested by reduced alpha fetoprotein levels in maternal serum and amniotic fluid
Correct Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common
Explanation:Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 9
Correct
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A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:- A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels- Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:- A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following best describes odds ratios?
Your Answer: The odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another
Explanation:Odds ratios are best described as the odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another. They form an alternative to the relative risk in case–control studies and are close to the relative risk when events are rare. The odds are the number of the event divided by the number without the event, which is less intuitive than the risk, which is the number with the event divided by the total. Odds ratios are therefore less intuitive than relative risks. Logistic regression analysis outputs variable coefficients which are the log of the odds ratio.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 16-year-old visibly anxious female, known to have HIV, presents to the clinic with blurring of vision and blind spots in her field of vision. Her last CD4 count was reported to be 45 cells/mL. Which of the following complications of HIV has most likely occurred that has resulted in her ocular damage?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:The most common etiological agent for retinitis in HIV infected patients is cytomegalovirus (88.63% of retinitis in HIV/AIDS patients). Most patients have a CD4 lymphocyte count less than 50/μL, which can represent the susceptibility to this type of retinitis when lymphocyte count falls below this threshold. The treatment consists of systemic intravenous administration of Ganciclovir or Foscarnet at a first stage of induction, followed by the maintenance treatment with oral administration of Ganciclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 12
Correct
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A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 4 year old boy, who is mentally unstable, accidentally shoves a pea into his ear while eating. Otoscopic examination reveals a green coloured object in the ear canal. Which of the following would be the best approach to get rid of the pea?
Your Answer: Syringing
Correct Answer: Under GA
Explanation:For Otorhinolaryngologist, removal of foreign bodies (FB) from the ear, nose and throat is one of the common emergency procedures done. Most of the cases especially of the ear and nose can be managed without General Anaesthesia (GA). But in some cases GA may be needed. As the child is mentally unstable, he is unlikely to be able to hold still while the foreign body (pea) is being removed with a forceps, which could result in instrumental damage to the ear canal. Pea is an organic foreign body and not metallic hence the use of magnets would not be of any help either. From the options provided, general anaesthesia would be the best option in this child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following pathological criteria carries the greatest prognostic weight for malignant melanoma?
Your Answer: Breslow thickness
Explanation:Breslow thickness is measured from the top of the granular layer of the epidermis (or, if the surface is ulcerated, from the base of the ulcer) to the deepest invasive cell across the broad base of the tumour (dermal/subcutaneous) as described by Breslow.Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thicknessLesions 0-1mm thick – 1cmLesions 1-2mm thick – 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions 2-4mm thick – 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions >4 mm thick – 3cmMarsden J et al Revised UK guidelines for management of Melanoma. Br J Dermatol 2010 163:238-256.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?
Your Answer: Cupola
Explanation:Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 11 month old baby develops periumbilical abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea after having a sore throat and fever for a few days. He presents to the A&E department and an ultrasound is done which shows a 'target sign' on the right side of the abdomen. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Undertake a laparotomy
Correct Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics
Explanation:Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics.Intussusception is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction (blockage). Although intussusception can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, it usually occurs at the junction of the small and large intestines. The obstruction can cause swelling and inflammation that can lead to intestinal injury. The patient with intussusception is usually an infant, often one who has had an upper respiratory infection, who presents with the following symptoms:Vomiting: Initially, vomiting is nonbilious and reflexive, but when the intestinal obstruction occurs, vomiting becomes biliousAbdominal pain: Pain in intussusception is colicky, severe, and intermittentPassage of blood and mucus: Parents report the passage of stools, by affected children, that look like currant jelly| this is a mixture of mucus, sloughed mucosa, and shed blood| diarrhoea can also be an early sign of intussusceptionLethargy: This can be the sole presenting symptom of intussusception, which makes the condition’s diagnosis challengingPalpable abdominal massDiagnosis:Ultrasonography: Hallmarks of ultrasonography include the target and pseudo kidney signs.For all children, start intravenous fluid resuscitation and nasogastric decompression as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?
Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?
Your Answer: Carcinoid tumours
Explanation:Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a higher propensity to develop various endocrine and nonendocrine tumours. The primary endocrine tumours that are a part of this disorder include carcinoid tumours and tumours of parathyroid, enteropancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin. Carcinoid tumours encountered in MEN type 1 are mostly of the foregut region. Non-endocrine tumours found in MEN type 1 include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas. The pathogenesis of MEN type 1 is the inactivating mutation of the tumour suppressor gene MEN 1, which encodes the protein menin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following does not cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum and is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract, occurring in about 2% of people. It is caused by incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct and consists of a congenital sacculation of the antimesenteric border of the ileum. Symptoms are uncommon but include lower GI bleeding, bowel obstruction, and inflammation (diverticulitis). Causes of upper GI bleeding in neonates:Swallowed maternal bloodCoagulopathies including haemorrhagic disease of the new-bornStress gastritis & stress ulcersDrugs (NSAIDs, heparin, indomethacin used for patent duct closure, dexamethasone)Causes of upper GI bleeding in children 1 month to 1 year:GORDGastritis (with or without Helicobacter pylori infection)Crohn diseaseDrugs (NSAIDs)Zollinger-Ellison syndromeCauses of upper GI bleeding in children 1 -2 years:Peptic ulcer diseaseZollinger-Ellison syndromeBurns (Curling ulcer)Head trauma (Cushing ulcer)SepsisCauses of upper GI bleeding in older than 2 years:Oesophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension (most commonly portal vein thrombosis and biliary atresia)Duodenal ulcersOesophagitisGastritisMallory-Weiss tears
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 16-year-old male presents with complaints of a patch of scaling skin and hair loss on the right side of his head. A skin scraping confirms the diagnosis of tinea capitis. What is the most common organism responsible for tinea capitis?
Your Answer: Trichophyton tonsurans
Explanation:The most common organism responsible for tinea capitis is Trichophyton tonsurans.Tinea is a term given to dermatophyte fungal infections. There are three types of tinea, depending on what part of the body is infected:- Tinea capitis – scalp- Tinea corporis – trunk, legs or arms- Tinea pedis – feetTinea capitis (scalp ringworm):It is a cause for scarring alopecia mainly seen in children.If untreated, it can form a raised pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion.The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans.Tinea can also be caused by Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs.The diagnosis of tinea capitis and identification of the organism is possible from the skin lesions:- Scalp scrapings and Potassium hydroxide (KOH) mounts.- Wood’s lamp: Microsporum canis produces a green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp examination.Treatment: – Oral antifungals: terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections.- Griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. – Topical ketoconazole shampoo is recommended for the first two weeks to limit the transmission of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the hospital following a road traffic accident. A diagnosis of splenic laceration was made, and a splenectomy was performed. Which among the following blood film findings is not a feature associated with hyposplenism?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia
Explanation:Hyposplenism is associated with thrombocytosis. Other features of hyposplenism are: – Howell-Jolly bodies and acanthocytosis, occurring secondary to haemolysis.- Pappenheimer bodies: These are granular deposits of iron found within the RBCs.- Lymphocytosis and monocytosis.Causes for hyposplenism include:- Congenital asplenia- Iatrogenic splenectomy: Following trauma or treatment for ITP, thalassemia or spherocytosis).- Autosplenectomy: Secondary to sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, essential thrombocythemia or splenic arterial thrombosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child is admitted with generalised oedema, albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidaemia. The renal biopsy is normal. What would you expect to see on electron microscopy?
Your Answer: Deposition of electron-dense material on the capillary basement membrane
Correct Answer: Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
Explanation:The child has nephrotic syndrome which is most commonly caused by minimal change nephropathy in this age group. The condition presents with fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells under the microscope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?
Your Answer: Sulphonamides
Explanation:Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 24
Correct
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A 17 year old patient, who reports to the clinic following an apparent transient ischaemic attack, is demonstrated to have a small right homonymous hemianopia with partial sparing of central vision.Where is the lesion most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer: Occipital cortex
Explanation:The most common cause of homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a stroke. In this condition there is bitemporal field loss. Lesions posterior to the optic chiasm, in the brain parenchyma are most likely to be the cause of the HH. In this case the retention of central vision indicates that the area of injury may be in the occipital cortex, sparing the occipital pole. The occipital pole receives sensory fibres from the macular, and has a dual blood supply protecting it from total infarction. Lesions of the optic tract can be ruled out as these cause total vision loss in the affected eye. Parietal or temporal nerve lesions cause affect the inferior and superior parts of the visual field respectively causing homonymous quadrantinopias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A new treatment reduces blood pressure for hypertensive patients by 10 mmHg more than the current standard treatment (95% confidence interval minus 2 to 22).Which of the following statements is most accurate?
Your Answer: The difference is clinically significant
Correct Answer: The difference is not statistically significant
Explanation:If the 95% confidence interval contains zero (more precisely, the parameter value specified in the null hypothesis), then the effect will not be significant at the 0.05 level.If the 95% CI for the DIFFERENCE between the 2 groups contains the value 0, this means that the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Conversely, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 0, then the p-value will be strictly less than 0.05. The same applies when comparing groups using a ratio, such as an odds ratio or risk ratio. When using a RATIO instead of a DIFFERENCE, the situation of no difference between the 2 groups will be indicated by a value of 1 instead of 0. If the ratio equals to 1, the 2 groups are equal. Hence, if the 95% CI of the ratio contains the value 1, the p-value will be greater than 0.05. Alternatively, if the 95% CI does not contain the value 1, the p-value is strictly less than 0.05.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 26
Correct
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A patient undergoes investigation for chronic upper urinary tract obstruction with intravenous urography (IVU).The patient should be informed about which severe complication of IVU?
Your Answer: Contrast hypersensitivity
Explanation:Allergy: A history of a prior allergic-like reaction to contrast media is associated with an up to a 5-fold increase in the likelihood of experiencing a subsequent reaction. Also, any patient with a predilection to allergic reactions may predispose them to a reaction after the administration of contrast media. Given the increased risk of severe life-threatening anaphylaxis related to the administration of contrast media in the setting of the history of atopy, the risk versus benefits should be discussed before following through with the procedure. A premedication regimen may be used to reduce the risk of anaphylaxis.Asthma: A history of asthma may be indicative of a higher likelihood of developing a contrast reaction. Cardiac status: Attention must be turned to patients with significant cardiac disease (congestive heart failure, aortic stenosis, severe cardiomyopathy, and/or pulmonary hypertension), as higher volumes and osmolality of contrast material may result in an increased risk for a contrast reaction.Renal insufficiency: Contrast nephrotoxicity is defined as the rapid deterioration of renal function after the administration of contrast media when no other aetiology can be determined from the clinical records. The major predisposing risk factors include pre-existing renal insufficiency (defined as serum creatinine level >1.5 mg/dL) and diabetes. Other risk factors include dehydration, cardiovascular disease, the use of diuretics, advanced age (>70 years old), hypertension, and hyperuricemia. Obtaining multiple contrast-enhanced studies within 24 hours is also thought to increase the risk for contrast-induced nephrotoxicity. Miscellaneous: Relative contraindications to the use of high osmolality iodinated contrast media (HOCM) in patients with pheochromocytoma, sickle cell disease, and multiple myeloma have been reported. Although the administration of low osmolality or iso-osmotic contrast media may be beneficial in patients with pheochromocytoma and sickle cell disease, little evidence suggests that these agents mitigate the risks associated with multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements?
Your Answer: CMV cannot be transmitted through breast milk
Correct Answer: Periventricular cerebral calcifications are an associated feature
Explanation:One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. The infection is even commoner than the other widely known diseases like down’s syndrome and spina bifida. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5 and is diagnosed using PCR of saliva. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness. Cytomegalic inclusion disease is diagnosed at birth with marked neurological disability, resulting from microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, and cerebral atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low energy. History reveals that he has also experienced low libido and has difficulty maintaining erections. Serum testosterone levels are checked. In the human body, the secretion of testosterone is stimulated by which of the following?
Your Answer: Luteinising Hormone
Explanation:The hypothalamus and pituitary gland control how much testosterone the testes produce and secrete. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary gland to release gonadotrophic substances (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone). Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right lower limb. The pain tends to occur more at night and is not associated with physical activity. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma
Explanation:Osteoid osteoma is a bone forming tumour which affects individuals in the second decade of life. The patient presents with a history of pain in the lower limbs which is mostly at night and responds to NSAIDS. If the pain doesn’t respond to NSAIDS, then other differentials should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A normal 6-month-old child is NOT expected to do which of the following?
Your Answer: Have no head lag
Correct Answer: Sit unsupported for 10 minutes
Explanation:Milestones of 6 monthsSocial and EmotionalKnows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/CommunicationResponds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with the parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical DevelopmentRolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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