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  • Question 1 - A 13-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a body mass index (BMI)...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a body mass index (BMI) of 13. On examination, she was found to have cold peripheries. Her vitals were:Pulse rate: 130 bpmTemperature: 37°CCapillary blood glucose: 1.8 mmol/LAfter drawing blood for a full blood panel, you immediately give a bolus of glucose at a dose of 2 ml/kg. Her sugar levels improve to 4 mmol/L.What is the next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Start a maintenance infusion of 10% dextrose

      Correct Answer: Normal saline fluid bolus| send blood culture, lactate and C-reactive protein

      Explanation:

      The next step in the management of this patient is starting a normal saline fluid bolus, following which we should send samples for blood culture, lactate and C-reactive protein. The patient is probably a case of anorexia nervosa (AN).Note:Children with AN are at higher risk of developing infections, and this needs to be considered in this case. Patients with AN may not respond in the usual fashion to sepsis as they may not mount a fever in response to infection. Hypoglycaemia (especially when severe or persistent despite correction) should raise the alarm for an infection as should tachycardia and cool peripheries. Children with severe AN are more likely to be bradycardic. Therefore, a tachycardia should cause the clinician to consider that another process is going on.Other options:- Correcting electrolyte abnormalities is, of course, very important. However, while these are awaited, one needs to consider that this patient is septic and managed accordingly. Children with anorexia nervosa (AN) may have a whole host of electrolyte abnormalities, some of which can be treated with oral or nutritional supplementation although sometimes intravenous correction is required. Electrolytes need to be checked frequently during admission because of the risk of refeeding syndrome, and dietetic input is required to advise on appropriate starting intake.- While maintenance fluids like dextrose are likely to be needed in this case, consideration needs to be given to the underlying cause of the hypoglycaemia. As the sugar has come up following a glucose bolus, a 10% dextrose infusion would be excessive.- An ECG should form a part of any assessment of a child with AN. In this case, it would not be the first thing| however, as part of the acute management of this child, cardiac monitoring should be commenced. One would usually expect a child with AN to be bradycardic so a tachycardia should raise suspicion that another process is going on.- Dietary input will be vital for this child’s ongoing management. However, their acute issues take precedence in this case. Nevertheless, a dietician should be informed and involved from an early stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      115.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days. She was taking ibuprofen and paracetamol over the counter for the pain. She was started on phenoxymethylpenicillin V following a diagnosis of tonsillitis.The next day she presents with a painful rash and feels unwell. On examination, she has extensive papular and plaque lesions. On palpation the papules desquamate. What is this sign called?

      Your Answer: Forscheimer's sign

      Correct Answer: Nikolskys sign

      Explanation:

      The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorder, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points are left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Gastroenteritis

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Growth failure can be managed with recombinant human growth hormone (Somatropin) in the...

    Incorrect

    • Growth failure can be managed with recombinant human growth hormone (Somatropin) in the all of the following conditions except:

      Your Answer: Small for gestational age

      Correct Answer: Achondroplasia

      Explanation:

      Somatropin is a recombinant human growth hormone used to treat growth failure conditions associated with natural growth hormone deficiencies. According to the UK National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, these conditions include, Prader-Willi syndrome, Noonan syndrome, short stature Homeobox (SHOX) gene deficiency, Turner’s syndrome, chronic renal insufficiency and children who are small for gestational age. Treatment of short stature in achondroplasia has not seen any significant changes with somatotropin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with jerking movements in her limbs. This lasted for around 10 seconds, and then she fell unconscious. She soon regained consciousness - she was disorientated but afebrile with no symptoms of meningeal irritation. From the list of options, chose the most appropriate investigation route for this patient.

      Your Answer: No investigation needed

      Correct Answer: 24 hour EEG

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour an epilepsy diagnosis: uncontrollable jerking of the limbs and a loss of consciousness. A 24-hour EEG is used to diagnose epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer: Sulphonamides

      Explanation:

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      104
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low energy. History reveals that he has also experienced low libido and has difficulty maintaining erections. Serum testosterone levels are checked. In the human body, the secretion of testosterone is stimulated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Dihydrotestosterone

      Correct Answer: Luteinising Hormone

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus and pituitary gland control how much testosterone the testes produce and secrete. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary gland to release gonadotrophic substances (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone). Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A new-born baby has an abdominal wall defect diagnosed antenatally. When admitted to...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby has an abdominal wall defect diagnosed antenatally. When admitted to the neonatal unit, there is a sac found covering a 3cm defect with what appears to be intestine| no liver is visible. The baby has no dysmorphic features other than a large tongue. What is the immediate danger with this baby?

      Your Answer: Beckwith-Wiedermann syndrome, risk of hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome (BWS) was first characterized by Patients having abdominal wall defects, macrosomia, macroglossia, and enlarged adrenal glands. Since then, the clinical presentation has expanded to recognize hemihypertrophy/lateralized overgrowth, hyperinsulinism, omphalocele, and organomegaly as classic features of BWS.About 50% of children with BWS have hypoglycaemia and therefore patients with diagnosed BWS should be evaluated for hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia in most BWS new-borns generally resolves within the first few days of life. However, in about 5% of patients that have hyperinsulinism, the severe prolonged hypoglycaemia requires escalated therapy ranging for medication (diazoxide) to partial pancreatectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A nervous father is concerned about the development of his 4-month-old baby.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A nervous father is concerned about the development of his 4-month-old baby.Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at 4 months of age?

      Your Answer: The ability to reach for a toy with one hand is not expected at around 4 months of age

      Correct Answer: The ability to string vowels together whilst babbling is not expected at around 4 months of age

      Explanation:

      Developmental milestones at 4 months of age:Social and Emotional:Smiles spontaneously, especially at people Likes to play with people and might cry when playing stops Copies some movements and facial expressions, like smiling or frowningLanguage/CommunicationBegins to babble Babbles with expression and copies sounds he hears Cries in different ways to show hunger, pain, or being tiredCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Lets you know if he is happy or sad Responds to affectionReaches for a toy with one hand Uses hands and eyes together, such as seeing a toy and reaching for it Follows moving things with eyes from side to side Watches faces closely Recognizes familiar people and things at a distance Movement/Physical DevelopmentHolds head steady, unsupported Pushes down on legs when feet are on a hard surface May be able to roll over from tummy to back Can hold a toy and shake it and swing at dangling toys Brings hands to mouth When lying on stomach, pushes up to elbows

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs. Which one of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Her excessive hair growth is associated with hereditary gingival hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: She is on phenytoin to control seizures

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are most likely due to phenytoin intake.Note:Hypertrichosis occurs in 5–12% of patients on phenytoin and is most prominent on the extremities. Other options:- Hypertrichosis is the excess hair growth, whereas hirsutism is the development of male-pattern-dependent hair growth, as seen in polycystic ovarian syndrome. – A Becker’s naevus is associated with localised hypertrichosis in the naevus. – Cyclosporine intake can typically lead to diffuse hair growth that begins within 2–4 weeks of starting the drug. – Hereditary gingival fibromatosis is associated with variable hypertrichosis occurring on the eyebrows, face, limbs and mid-back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      417.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Alexander is a developing and active 2 year old boy. Which of the following commands would he be able to follow?

      Your Answer: Point to three body parts

      Explanation:

      A 2 year old child who is developing normally should be able to point to three body parts, identify familiar objects in his environment such as a crayon or a toy and follow simple instructions.At 3 years old he should be able to copy a circle, jump up and down and name three colours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints of a 0.5 cm cystic lump on the lateral aspect of her eyebrow. It has been present since birth but is slowly increasing in size. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: External angular dermoid

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be external angular dermoid.External angular dermoids typically form where there are overlapping tissue planes such as the midline. They contain a caseous material. The cysts are essentially benign in nature and are excised for cosmetic purposes or when they encroach on vision.Other options:- Branchial remnant typically presents as a supraclavicular pit.- Sebaceous cysts tend to be present on the scalp.- There is nothing in the clinical scenario to suggest a vascular malformation such as pigment change or ‘bag of worms’.- Lymphatic malformations are typically found in the neck or under the axilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old male presents to the clinic with a month-long history of headaches,...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the clinic with a month-long history of headaches, which are worse in the morning and when lying down. There is no significant past medical history and he is not currently taking any medications. Eye examination reveals left sided homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. A lesion is most likely suspected in which of the following sites?

      Your Answer: Right sided optic tract

      Explanation:

      Homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a visual field defect involving either two right or the two left halves of the visual field of both eye. It results from the damage of the visual pathway in its suprachiasmatic part. The causes of HH include stroke, brain tumours, head injuries, neurosurgical procedures, multiple sclerosis and miscellaneous conditions. HH result in a severe visual impairment and affect a variety of cognitive visual functions. Patients with HH frequently have difficulties with reading and scanning scenes in sufficiently rapid fashion to make sense of things as a whole. They stumble, fall or knock objects in their surroundings, since they cannot see them and they are frequent surprised that somebody or something suddenly appeared in their visual field. The prognosis of visual field deficit recovery is highly variable and depends on the cause and severity of brain nd optic pathway injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      69.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur...

    Incorrect

    • Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur in anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Salivary gland hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Hepatosplenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious, psychiatric eating disorder characterized by distorted self-image due to which abnormal eating behaviours are adopted. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the gastrointestinal system. The GI manifestations of anorexia are enlarged salivary glands due to purging behaviour, gastritis, gastroparesis, acute gastric dilatation, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, elevated liver transaminases, which cause hepatocyte apoptosis leading to cirrhosis, and steatosis leading to fatty liver. Hepatosplenomegaly is not a recognized complication of anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound....

    Correct

    • A 37 week foetus is found to be in transverse position on ultrasound. The position has not changed despite attempting External Cephalic Version at 36 weeks and the due date is in a week. What is the preferred option of delivery for a foetus in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      A transverse lie is a common malpresentation. It occurs when the fetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. The location of the spine determines if the foetus is back up (the curvature of the spine is in the upper part of the uterus) or back down (the curvature of the spine is in the lower part of the uterus).Good antenatal care, ECV, and elective caesarean section are the mainstay of the management.Spontaneous delivery of a term foetus is impossible with a persistent transverse lie and, in general, the onset of labour is an indication for the lower segment caesarean section (LSCS) in a case of a transverse lie.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His mucous membranes seem dry and his skin turgor is low. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Fluid replacement

      Explanation:

      Fluid replacement therapy should be initiated immediately because the patient is suffering from severe dehydration as shown by the low urine output, the dry mucous membranes and the low skin turgor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT? ...

    Correct

    • All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Steatorrhoea

      Explanation:

      CMPI ( cow’s milk protein intolerance) is an immunological reaction to one or more of the many proteins found in cow’s milk. It may be IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated. The prominent signs and symptoms include sneezing, rhinorrhoea, coughing, wheezing, oral angioedema, oral itching, diarrhoea, vomiting, and bloody stools. Steatorrhea is not a recognized feature of CMPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?

      Your Answer: Is best treated with increased evening insulin dose

      Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit

      Explanation:

      The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      173.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results...

    Incorrect

    • A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below:
      • Right atrium 7 mmHg; Saturation 60 %
      • Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
      • Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
      • Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg; Saturation 98 %
      • Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 87 %
      • Aorta 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 76 %
      All of the following abnormalities are present in this patient, except?

      Your Answer: Right-to-left shunt

      Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Key Observations:

      1. Cyanosis and Low Oxygen Saturation:
        • Central cyanosis indicates mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
        • The aortic oxygen saturation is low (76%), indicating a significant amount of deoxygenated blood entering systemic circulation.
      2. Pressure Analysis:
        • The right ventricle pressure is significantly elevated (110/6 mmHg), suggesting an obstructive lesion like pulmonary stenosis or an increased volume load due to a shunt.
        • The pulmonary artery pressure is low (20/5 mmHg) despite the high right ventricular pressure, suggesting an obstruction to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, consistent with pulmonary stenosis.
      3. Oxygen Saturation Analysis:
        • There is a notable drop in oxygen saturation from the left ventricle (87%) to the aorta (76%), indicating a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation, suggestive of a right-to-left shunt.

      Differential Diagnosis:

      1. Pulmonary Stenosis:
        • Supported by elevated right ventricular pressure and low pulmonary artery pressure.
      2. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):
        • Would typically cause left-to-right shunting, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and higher oxygen saturation in the right ventricle and pulmonary artery, which is not observed here.
      3. Over-riding Aorta:
        • Seen in conditions like Tetralogy of Fallot where the aorta receives blood from both the right and left ventricles, leading to mixed oxygen saturation.
      4. Right-to-Left Shunt:
        • The data indicates a right-to-left shunt, with low oxygen saturation in the aorta, suggesting that deoxygenated blood is bypassing the lungs and entering systemic circulation.
      5. Aortic Stenosis:
        • Typically presents with high left ventricular pressure and a pressure gradient between the left ventricle and the aorta, which is not observed here.

      Conclusion:

      Given the data, the most likely abnormalities present in this patient are Pulmonary Stenosis, Right-to-Left Shunt, and Over-riding Aorta. These findings are consistent with a condition like Tetralogy of Fallot, where all these features are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary infection. She now presents a few days later with signs of meningism. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a cancer of the lymphoid line of blood cells characterized by the development of large numbers of immature lymphocytes. Symptoms may include feeling tired, frequent infections with fever as well as anaemia with thrombocytopenia. As an acute leukaemia, ALL progresses rapidly and is typically fatal within weeks or months if left untreated. The patient’s age also favours the diagnosis of ALL as it occurs most commonly in children, particularly those between the ages of two and five.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      140.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: For the majority of girls there is an underlying medical problem such as a brain tumour, ovarian diseases, thyroid gland problems

      Correct Answer: In about 5% of boys, precocious puberty is inherited from the father

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally earlier age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. The onset of normal puberty is triggered by gonadotropic-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.In most of the familial cases, the condition is transmitted by affected father. In boys, this makes up about 5% of the cases.Full adult height potential is not achieved in patients of precious puberty, although there is an advanced bone maturation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident. His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands. He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes. He tries to move away from the examining hand.What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?

      Your Answer: 6

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS. Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):Spontaneous – 4To speech – 3To pain – 2No response – 1Best Verbal Response:Oriented – 5Words – 4Vocal sounds – 3Cries – 2No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):Obeys commands – 5Localises pain – 4Flexion to pain – 3 Extension to pain – 2No response – 1 The described child scores:Eye response – 1| Verbal response – 3| Motor response – 4Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tuner’s syndrome is not associated with arachnodactyly.Arachnodactyly is seen in the following conditions:- Marfan syndrome- Homocystinuria- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome- Congenital contractural arachnodactylyOther rare syndromes include:- Loeys-Dietz syndrome- Antley-Bixler syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Lujan-Frinz syndrome- Haim-Munk syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Spondylocostal dysostosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following descriptions qualifies as a diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type...

    Correct

    • Which of the following descriptions qualifies as a diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1?

      Your Answer: > 6 cafe au lait spots or hyperpigmented macules which are >5mm in children under age 10, and >15mm in children over 10

      Explanation:

      Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more café-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm in postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

      Correct Answer: Silver-Russell syndrome

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia can be defined as either a birth weight greater than 4kg or birth weight greater than 90% for the gestational age. Risk factors for macrosomia include maternal diabetes, excessive gestational weight gain, pre-pregnancy obesity, male gender, ethnicity, and advanced gestational age. Genetic conditions associated with macrosomia are Bardet-Biedl syndrome, Perlman syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Silver-Russell syndrome is associated with intrauterine growth retardation and post-natal failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An infant presents with a rash to her body consisting of greasy yellow...

    Correct

    • An infant presents with a rash to her body consisting of greasy yellow crusted lesions. Her mother complains that the child has been experiencing chronic diarrhoea and recurrent skin infections. She is non-febrile, but her growth chart is highly suggestive of failure to thrive.The constellation of symptoms present in this child suggests which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Leiner's disease

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s presentation, he’s probably suffering from Leiner’s diseaseLeiner’s disease is a severe generalised form of seborrhoeic dermatitis. It is also associated with recurrent diarrhoea, recurrent skin and internal infections, and failure to thrive.Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common and self-limiting condition in childhood. Lesions affect the scalp (cradle cap), and sometimes the ear, nose, and eyebrows. It is characterised by greasy yellow or yellow-brown scales.There is an association with Malassezia, and the lesions are a reaction to this yeast, rather than caused by it.It is most common in the 6-12 month age group. Simple brushing with a soft bristle brush, use of oil or emollient, and ketoconazole 2% shampoo are all treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented with bronchoconstriction, excessive salivation, and diarrhoea. On examination, a drop in heart rate and blood pressure was noted.What is the mechanism by which the substance causes these effects?

      Your Answer: Reduction in the re-uptake of acetylcholine into neurones

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of excessive salivation and diarrhoea, along with hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchoconstriction, indicates excess parasympathetic nervous system activity. The patient is showing features of acetylcholine toxicity. Pesticides typically contain organophosphates that are potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used in the neuromuscular junction, as well as at select points in the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic acetylcholine receptors can be nicotinic (more sensitive to nicotine) or muscarinic (more sensitive to muscarine). The most relevant receptors in this scenario are the muscarinic receptors as the majority are located in the parasympathetic nervous system smooth muscle, exocrine glands, and cardiac conduction system.Other options:- Accordingly, to cause the symptoms described, there must be an abundance of acetylcholine which stimulates the muscarinic receptors to enhance the parasympathetic effects. Therefore the reduction in the formation of acetylcholine option must be incorrect as this would produce the opposite effect. – Noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, and both answer options relating to noradrenaline would increase the neurotransmitter and potentiate the sympathetic nervous system effects, making them incorrect.Features can predict the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD):- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Defecation/diarrhoeaCardiovascular symptoms include hypotension and bradycardia. The patient can show associated small pupils and muscle fasciculationManagement:- Atropine- The role of pralidoxime is still unclear – meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following does not cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does not cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum and is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract, occurring in about 2% of people. It is caused by incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct and consists of a congenital sacculation of the antimesenteric border of the ileum. Symptoms are uncommon but include lower GI bleeding, bowel obstruction, and inflammation (diverticulitis). Causes of upper GI bleeding in neonates:Swallowed maternal bloodCoagulopathies including haemorrhagic disease of the new-bornStress gastritis & stress ulcersDrugs (NSAIDs, heparin, indomethacin used for patent duct closure, dexamethasone)Causes of upper GI bleeding in children 1 month to 1 year:GORDGastritis (with or without Helicobacter pylori infection)Crohn diseaseDrugs (NSAIDs)Zollinger-Ellison syndromeCauses of upper GI bleeding in children 1 -2 years:Peptic ulcer diseaseZollinger-Ellison syndromeBurns (Curling ulcer)Head trauma (Cushing ulcer)SepsisCauses of upper GI bleeding in older than 2 years:Oesophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension (most commonly portal vein thrombosis and biliary atresia)Duodenal ulcersOesophagitisGastritisMallory-Weiss tears

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light headedness. Her heart rate is 200 beats per minute so you try with vagal manoeuvres and repeated boluses of adenosine up to a maximum dose of 500mcg/kg. What would you do next?

      Your Answer: Synchronous DC shock 1J/kg

      Explanation:

      According to APLS, your next step should be one of the following: synchronous DC shock, amiodarone, or cardiology advice for alternative antiarrhythmics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      28.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/3) 33%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/3) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (2/2) 100%
Child Development (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (2/4) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
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