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  • Question 1 - A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and is threatening preterm labour. The parents would like to know the statistics relating to survival and outcome if their baby is born at this gestation. Which particular study would be useful to review before this consultation?

      Your Answer: SafeBoosC

      Correct Answer: EPICURE

      Explanation:

      EPICure is a series of studies of survival and later health among babies and young people who were born at extremely low gestations – from 22 to 26 weeks.Boost II is a double-blind randomised controlled trial (RCT) comparing the effects of targeting arterial oxygen saturations between 85% and 89% versus 91% and 95% in preterm infants.OSCAR Xe is not the name of a study. Baby-OSCAR is an RCT to determine whether a confirmed large patent ductus arteriosus in very premature babies should be treated with ibuprofen within 72 hours of birth.SafeBoosC is a trial to examine if it is possible to stabilise the cerebral oxygenation of extremely preterm infants in the first 72 hours of life with the use of NIRS oximetry and a clinical treatment guideline. TOBY Xe is an RCT looking at the neuroprotective effects of hypothermia combined with inhaled xenon following perinatal asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is not associated with DiGeorge syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not associated with DiGeorge syndrome?

      Your Answer: Normal IQ

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge syndrome is one of the most common microdeletion syndromes, resulting from 22q11 deletion. 10% of the cases can be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, while 90% are sporadic. The syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of both T and B-cell lines along with hearing loss, 20-fold increased lifetime chances of developing schizophrenia, renal abnormalities, congenital heart defects, and a borderline or low IQ. Distinctive facial features include micrognathia, long face, short philtrum, cleft palate, and small teeth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10 year old boy is being bullied by his classmates because he's...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old boy is being bullied by his classmates because he's obese and he is the shortest in his class. His mother is worried and brings him in to the clinic. History reveals he had a renal transplant last year. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lawrence moon biedel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The boy had a renal transplant, for which he needs immune suppression. For the exogenous immune suppression an exogenous steroid is needed, which in this case is responsible for the primary Cushing syndrome manifesting with short stature. The administration of steroids before the physiological fusion of the growth plate can lead to premature fusion with permanent cessation of bone growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car accident. On examination bowel sounds were heard in the chest. A nasogastric tube was inserted and a chest x-ray showed a curved NG tube. Which of the following is the most probable reason for it?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm rupture

      Explanation:

      Bowel sounds in the chest and curved NG tube are suggestive of a diaphragm rupture, which has caused herniation of bowel into the thoracic cavity through the defect in the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via...

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via Caesarean section because of pathological cardiotocography. The baby looks healthy and she has an Apgar score of 9, however, her RR is increased. The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN)

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in new-borns and self-limiting. It can affect any new-born shortly after birth. Its most prominent feature is tachypnoea. Nasal flaring, grunting, or intercostal retractions may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old boy complains of fever, headache, and neck stiffness. On examination, Kernig's...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy complains of fever, headache, and neck stiffness. On examination, Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs were positive. In the meantime, while awaiting the results from blood culture, how will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Positive Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s signs may indicate meningitis. While awaiting blood culture results, a broad-spectrum antibiotic such as Cefotaxime (a third generation cephalosporin) is preferred over the other medications listed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development in a 2-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Congenital ptosis

      Explanation:

      A drooping eyelid is called ptosis or blepharoptosis. In ptosis, the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. Severe ptosis may cover part or all of the pupil and interfere with vision, resulting in amblyopia.Visual development in a child can be permanently impaired when there is deprivation of visual stimulation or when the oculomotor function is impaired. Congenital ptosis can represent both these components

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the cause for tinea incognito? ...

    Correct

    • What is the cause for tinea incognito?

      Your Answer: Inappropriate treatment with steroid cream

      Explanation:

      “Tinea incognito” is a term used to describe a tinea infection modified by topical steroids. It is caused by prolonged use of topical steroids, sometimes prescribed as a result of incorrect diagnosis. Topical steroids suppress the local immune response and allow the fungus to grow easily. As a result, the fungal infection may take on the bizarre appearance seen in this patient.The diagnosis of tinea incognito is simple to confirm by microscopic visualization of branching hyphae and spores typical of dermatophytes in a potassium hydroxide preparation.Treatment of tinea incognito requires cessation of all topical steroid use and implementation of specific antifungal treatment. A low-potency corticosteroid may be used briefly to avoid the flare often associated with abrupt cessation of a potent steroid. Patients should be warned of this possibility so they do not reinstitute use of topical steroids on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 +...

    Correct

    • This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 + (1.5 × height), R = 0.75Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Taller individuals have higher lung functions

      Explanation:

      The equation, lung function = 3.2 + (1.7 x height) is linear, but this does not necessarily mean that the relationship itself is linear. The equation is able to predict that taller individuals are more likely to have greater lung functions. No information is given on whether the coefficients and the R value are statistically significant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 2-year-old child, who is not very active, presented with bruises on the...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old child, who is not very active, presented with bruises on the back as well as on the chest. X-ray showed a radiolucent area around the ribs indicating callus formation. Which of the following is the most important investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Skeletal survey

      Explanation:

      Because the initial chest X-ray returned an anomaly, a skeletal survey is the best option. Also known as a bone survey, the skeletal survey is a series of X-rays that will help analyse the structure of all the bones in the body. Because the child is not very active yet presents with bruising, the child protection register should also be checked but only after a skeletal survey has been conducted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 6-year-old boy was admitted with a burn that looks third or fourth...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy was admitted with a burn that looks third or fourth degree upon inspection. He has not stopped crying. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: IV fluid start

      Explanation:

      The boy needs re-hydration due to his full thickness burn so IV fluids is the next most appropriate step. The greatest loss of plasma occurs in the first 12 hours after burn injury. The plasma loss then slowly decreases during the second 12 hours of the post-burn phase, although extensive leakage can continue for up to three days (Ahrns, 2004). Optimal fluid replacement during this period is essential to ensure cardiac output and renal and tissue perfusion. Usually, 36 hours post-burn, capillary permeability returns to normal and fluid is drawn back into the circulation. Burns of more than 15% of surface body area in adults and of over 10% in children warrant formal resuscitation.The Parkland formula for the total fluid requirement in 24 hours is as follows:4ml x TBSA (%) x body weight (kg)|50% given in first eight hours|50% given in next 16 hours.Children receive maintenance fluid in addition, at an hourly rate of:4ml/kg for the first 10kg of body weight plus|2ml/kg for the second 10kg of body weight plus|1ml/kg for >20kg of body weight.End pointUrine – adults: 0.5–1.0 ml/kg/hour|Urine – children: 1.0–1.5ml/kg/hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following conditions exhibits Koebner’s phenomenon? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions exhibits Koebner’s phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Koebner’s phenomenon describes skin lesions that occur on damaged skin, usually in a linear fashion at the site of injury. Conditions which exhibit true Koebnerisation include psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosis, vitiligo, Kaposi sarcoma and SLE. Conditions such as erythema nodosum or multiforme, or Lyme disease and Impetigo do not exhibit Koebner’s phenomenon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In the treatment of infants with gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is...

    Correct

    • In the treatment of infants with gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is the most accurate one?

      Your Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally

      Explanation:

      The main problem with infants having gastroenteritis is dehydration. So they should be admitted to the hospital for IV fluids if they are not tolerating oral fluids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch? ...

    Correct

    • What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Also known as the hyoid arch, it forms the side and front of the neck. From its cartilage develops the styloid process, stylohyoid ligament and lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. The muscular derivatives include the muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid and the posterior belly of the digastric. All these are innervated by cranial nerve VII but migrate into the area of the mandibular arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?

      Your Answer: Cranial ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which...

    Correct

    • A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which of the following risk factors might be present?

      Your Answer: Maternal smoking

      Explanation:

      Maternal smoking is one of the most significant risk factors for pyloric stenosis.Remember the three Ps for Pyloric Stenosis:P – palpable massP – peristalsisP – projectile vomiting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions may pre-dispose children to alopecia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions may pre-dispose children to alopecia?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Alopecia areata is seen in 6-8.8% of patients with Down syndrome, but only 0.1% of patients with alopecia areata have Down syndrome. The high frequency of alopecia areata in patients with Down syndrome suggests that a genetic linkage for alopecia areata may exist on chromosome 21.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 8-month-old infant is presented to the paediatrics ward with a history of...

    Correct

    • An 8-month-old infant is presented to the paediatrics ward with a history of delayed developmental milestones since birth. On examination, he has poor muscle tone and balance, and a head circumference, which is greater than normal. Imaging of the patient's head revealed a diminished cerebellar vermis, a large fourth ventricle, and an enlarged posterior fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dandy-Walker syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dandy-Walker syndrome is characterised by symptoms of brain maldevelopment that are seen in this patient. A large cranium indicates hydrocephalus, and the hypotonia indicates poor limb development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing on her right temple that wasn't noted at birth, but is now 5 mm in diameter.What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Advise topical steroid+ regular emollient

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress

      Explanation:

      Capillary haemangiomas are one of the most common benign tumours of infancy. They are benign endothelial cell neoplasms that are typically absent at birth and characteristically have rapid growth in infancy with spontaneous involution later in life. This is in contrast to another known group of childhood vascular anomalies, vascular malformations. Vascular malformations, such as lymphangiomas and arteriovenous malformations, are present at birth and are characterized by very slow growth with persistence into adult life. The indications for treatment can be divided into systemic, ophthalmic, and dermatologic reasons. Systemic reasons for intervention include congestive heart failure, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, and nasopharyngeal obstruction. Ophthalmic indications for intervention include occlusion of the visual axis, optic nerve compression, severe proptosis, and anisometropia. Dermatologic indications for intervention include maceration and erosion of the epidermis, infection, and cosmetic disfigurement.The first-line treatment of capillary haemangiomas is simple observation. Since most of these lesions regress on their own, there is no need to intervene unless one of the above criteria is met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a large swelling on the side of her neck with associated lymph node swellings in her neck and axilla. Which if the following investigations will you order next?

      Your Answer: CT of the neck

      Correct Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      As there is lymphadenopathy already present in this patient, doing a biopsy of the lymph nodes will rule out metastasis of any underlying tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following features is least likely to be present in a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is least likely to be present in a 14-year-old girl with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      A patient with Down’s syndrome is likely to be subfertile rather than infertile.Down’s syndrome:The clinical features of Down’s syndrome include:- Face: upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in iris, protruding tongue, small ears, and round/flat face- Flat occiput- Single palmar crease, pronounced ‘sandal gap’ in the first interdigital space of the feet.- Hypotonia- Congenital heart defects (40-50%)- Duodenal atresia- Hirschsprung’s diseaseThe cardiac complications in these patients include:- Endocardial cushion defect (40%)- Ventricular septal defect (30%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (5%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (5%)The complications that occur later in the life of the patient include:- Subfertility: Males are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis. Females, however, are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.- Learning difficulties- Short stature- Repeated respiratory infections (+hearing impairment from glue ear)- Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia- Hypothyroidism- Alzheimer’s disease- Atlantoaxial instability

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A neonate of Asian parents presents with jaundice appearing less than 24 hours...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate of Asian parents presents with jaundice appearing less than 24 hours after birth. You are concerned about glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. What is the mode of inheritance of this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Correct Answer: X-linked

      Explanation:

      Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is the most common enzyme deficiency in humans.It has a high prevalence in persons of African, Asian, and Mediterranean descent. It is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder.G6PD deficiency is polymorphic, with more than 300 variantsG6PD deficiency can present as neonatal hyperbilirubinemia. Besides, persons with this disorder can experience episodes of brisk haemolysis after ingesting fava beans or being exposed to certain infections or drugs. Less commonly, they may have chronic haemolysis. However, many individuals with G6PD deficiency are asymptomatic.Most individuals with G6PD deficiency do not need treatment. However, they should be taught to avoid drugs and chemicals that can cause oxidant stress. Infants with prolonged neonatal jaundice as a result of G6PD deficiency should receive phototherapy with a bili light.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes not require annually?

      Your Answer: Blood test to look for dyslipidaemia

      Correct Answer: Retinopathy screening

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy screening need not be done on an annual basis for a 9-year-old child. Screening for diabetic retinopathy should begin at the age of 12.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike. Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking. Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?

      Your Answer: Adrenocorticotropic hormone

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following findings would be NOT be expected in a child...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings would be NOT be expected in a child with kernicterus?

      Your Answer: Upward gaze

      Correct Answer: Learning disability

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin encephalopathy (BE), also known as kernicterus is a preventable complication of neonatal jaundice. Bilirubin deposits in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, geniculate bodies and cranial nerve nuclei, exerting direct neurotoxic effects and causing mass-destruction of neurons by apoptosis and necrosis.The clinical features of this diagnosis have been well described and can be divided into 3 stages:Phase 1 (first few days of life): Decreased alertness, hypotonia, and poor feeding are the typical signs. Obviously, these are quite nonspecific and could easily be indicative of a multitude of neonatal abnormalities. A high index of suspicion of possible BIND at this stage that leads to prompt intervention can halt the progression of the illness, significantly minimizing long-term sequelae. Of note, a seizure is not typically associated with acute bilirubin encephalopathy.Phase 2 (variable onset and duration): Hypertonia of the extensor muscles is a typical sign. Patients present clinically with retrocollis (backward arching of the neck), opisthotonos (backward arching of the back), or both. Infants who progress to this phase develop long-term neurologic deficits. Phase 3 (infants aged >1 wk): Hypotonia is a typical sign.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot form a sentence. What is the best management strategy?

      Your Answer: Refer to speech therapist

      Correct Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      Not being able to form a sentence at the age of 18 months is quite normal. A combination of two words to form a sentence can be done by 2 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
      The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neonatology (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (3/3) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Emergency Medicine (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (3/4) 75%
Epidemiology And Statistics (2/2) 100%
Nephro-urology (3/3) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/1) 100%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
Passmed