00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What is divided by the fissure of Rolando? ...

    Correct

    • What is divided by the fissure of Rolando?

      Your Answer: The frontal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex

      The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - How can confounding be controlled during the analysis stage of a study? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can confounding be controlled during the analysis stage of a study?

      Your Answer: Randomization

      Correct Answer: Stratification

      Explanation:

      Stratification is a method of managing confounding by dividing the data into two or more groups where the confounding variable remains constant of varies minimally.

      Types of Bias in Statistics

      Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.

      There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the probability of an offspring being an asymptomatic carrier if both...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probability of an offspring being an asymptomatic carrier if both parents are heterozygous for an autosomal recessive trait?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      When two individuals who are heterozygous for an autosomal recessive condition have a child, there is a 25% chance that the child will be affected by the condition, a 50% chance that the child will be a carrier of the condition but not show any symptoms, and a 25% chance that the child will not carry the condition and will be completely normal.

      Inheritance Patterns:

      Autosomal Dominant Conditions:
      – Can be transmitted from one generation to the next (vertical transmission) through all forms of transmission observed (male to male, male to female, female to female).
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Usually, one parent is an affected heterozygote and the other is an unaffected homozygote.
      – If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance that a child will inherit the mutated gene.

      Autosomal Recessive Conditions:
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Two copies of the gene must be mutated for a person to be affected.
      – Both parents are usually unaffected heterozygotes.
      – Two unaffected people who each carry one copy of the mutated gene have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having a child affected by the disorder.

      X-linked Dominant Conditions:
      – Males and females are both affected, with males typically being more severely affected than females.
      – The sons of a man with an X-linked dominant disorder will all be unaffected.
      – A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder has a 50% chance of having an affected fetus.

      X-linked Recessive Conditions:
      – Males are more frequently affected than females.
      – Transmitted through carrier females to their sons (knights move pattern).
      – Affected males cannot pass the condition onto their sons.
      – A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder has a 50% chance of having sons who are affected and a 50% chance of having daughters who are carriers.

      Y-linked Conditions:
      – Every son of an affected father will be affected.
      – Female offspring of affected fathers are never affected.

      Mitochondrial Inheritance:
      – Mitochondria are inherited only in the maternal ova and not in sperm.
      – Males and females are affected, but always being maternally inherited.
      – An affected male does not pass on his mitochondria to his children, so all his children will be unaffected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following neurotransmitters is considered a monoamine?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is a major neurotransmitter in the peripheral nervous system. Monoamine neurotransmitters contain only one amino group joined to an aromatic ring. Acetylcholine is produced from acetyl-CoA and choline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia?

      Your Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - How can we identify typical developmental milestones in children? ...

    Correct

    • How can we identify typical developmental milestones in children?

      Your Answer: Able to babble at the age of 6 months

      Explanation:

      The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants

      Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.

      Child Development Milestones:
      4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
      6 weeks Begins social smiling*
      3 months Holds head steady on sitting
      6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
      7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
      9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
      12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
      18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
      2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
      3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
      4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
      5 years Copies a triangle, skips

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns and Examples

      Autosomal Dominant:
      Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, and Noonan’s syndrome are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the condition.

      Autosomal Recessive:
      Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, and cystic fibrosis are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. This means that two copies of the mutated gene are needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Dominant:
      Vitamin D resistant rickets and Rett syndrome are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Recessive:
      Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and two copies of the gene are needed to cause the condition.

      Mitochondrial:
      Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and Kearns-Sayre syndrome are examples of conditions that follow a mitochondrial inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located in the mitochondria and is passed down from the mother to her offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What ECG alterations are commonly observed in patients who are administered lithium at...

    Correct

    • What ECG alterations are commonly observed in patients who are administered lithium at therapeutic doses?

      Your Answer: Sinus bradycardia

      Explanation:

      When lithium levels become toxic, which is defined as being greater than 1.5 mEq/L, more serious ECG changes can occur. These include sinoatrial block, intraventricular conduction delay, ST depressions of elevations, the Brugada pattern, and atrioventricular conduction delays.

      ECG Changes Associated with Chlorpromazine

      Chlorpromazine is a psychotropic medication that has been associated with various ECG changes. One of the most notable changes is repolarization changes, which can be seen as ST segment and T wave changes. Additionally, chlorpromazine has been linked to heart blocks, which can be detected by a prolonged PR interval.

      Another significant ECG finding associated with chlorpromazine is QTc prolongation. This is a potentially dangerous condition that can lead to torsades de pointes, a type of ventricular tachycardia that can be life-threatening. Other medications that have been linked to QTc prolongation include a wide range of antipsychotics and antidepressants.

      It is important to note that not all patients who take chlorpromazine will experience ECG changes. However, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risks and monitor patients closely for any signs of cardiac abnormalities. If ECG changes are detected, the medication may need to be adjusted of discontinued to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is an uncommon side-effect of valproate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an uncommon side-effect of valproate?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Microcytic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Macrocytic anaemia is the type that is commonly associated with valproate.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What statement accurately describes Eugen Bleuler? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes Eugen Bleuler?

      Your Answer: He coined the term dementia praecox

      Correct Answer: He introduced the concept of accessory symptoms in schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Historical Classification of Schizophrenia

      The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.

      In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’

      Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.

      In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The theorist who proposed the existence of the language acquisition device (LAD) in...

    Correct

    • The theorist who proposed the existence of the language acquisition device (LAD) in humans is:

      Your Answer: Chomsky

      Explanation:

      Chomsky is known for his nativist theory and introduction of the language acquisition device (LAD) in the 1960s. Empiricism theory is often attributed to Locke, while parsing was described by Saffran. Skinner is associated with behaviourism, and Werker studied how infants distinguish between phonemes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which individual is recognized for proving the efficacy of lithium in the field...

    Incorrect

    • Which individual is recognized for proving the efficacy of lithium in the field of psychiatry?

      Your Answer: Kline

      Correct Answer: Cade

      Explanation:

      Imipramine antidepressant effect is credited to Roland Kuhn, while John Cade is known for introducing lithium to psychiatry in 1948. Chlorpromazine development is associated with chemist Paul Charpentier, and Nathan S Kline is known for introducing and using monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). Freud is famously associated with psychoanalysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman walking home late at night notices someone beckoning to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman walking home late at night notices someone beckoning to her from a distance in the darkness. As she approaches, she realizes it's just a tree branch swaying in the wind. What is this occurrence called?

      Your Answer: Pareidolic illusion

      Correct Answer: Affect illusion

      Explanation:

      Affect illusions occur when a person’s mood affects their perception of everyday objects, leading to misinterpretation. These illusions are temporary and can be dispelled with increased attention. Completion illusions occur when the brain fills in incomplete perceptions with extrapolation from previous experiences to create meaning. An example is reading misprints in newspapers as if they were written correctly. Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one modality produces a hallucination in another modality. Pareidolic illusions involve a mixture of sensory perceptions and imagination, such as seeing faces in clouds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Who is the neurologist that created a map of the cortex surface with...

    Correct

    • Who is the neurologist that created a map of the cortex surface with specific areas?

      Your Answer: Korbinian Brodmann

      Explanation:

      The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex

      The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Can you provide an example of a drug interaction that affects the way...

    Correct

    • Can you provide an example of a drug interaction that affects the way a drug works in the body?

      Your Answer: Competition at a receptor

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types

      Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the most common side-effect of clonidine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common side-effect of clonidine?

      Your Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon

      Correct Answer: Orthostatic hypotension

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - If a patient suspected of having a stroke presents with a deviation of...

    Correct

    • If a patient suspected of having a stroke presents with a deviation of the tongue towards the right, which nerve is likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Right hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The hypoglossal nerve (nerve XII) is responsible for controlling the motor functions of the tongue and the muscles surrounding the hyoid bone. As a result, when there is a lesion on the right side, the tongue will tend to deviate towards that side. It is important to note that the hypoglossal nerve is purely a motor nerve and does not have any sensory component.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old female with long-standing epilepsy experiences severe hyponatremia. What medication is the...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female with long-standing epilepsy experiences severe hyponatremia. What medication is the probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug that is used to treat seizures and nerve pain. However, it can also cause some major systemic side effects. These include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can be quite severe in some cases. Another potential side effect is hyponatremia, which is a condition where the blood sodium levels become too low. This can cause symptoms such as confusion, seizures, and even coma in severe cases.

      Carbamazepine can also cause skin reactions such as rash and pruritus (itching). These can range from mild to severe and may require medical attention. Finally, fluid retention is another potential side effect of carbamazepine. This can cause swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet, and may also lead to weight gain.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes carbamazepine will experience these side effects. However, if you do experience any of these symptoms, it is important to speak with your doctor right away. They may be able to adjust your dosage of switch you to a different medication to help alleviate these side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the term used to describe the process of translating a segment...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the process of translating a segment of genetic information from DNA to RNA?

      Your Answer: Transcription

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man with a mild depressive disorder currently taking an SSRI reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a mild depressive disorder currently taking an SSRI reports worsening tiredness. His blood test shows a sodium level of 122 mmol/L.
      Which antidepressant would be more suitable in this situation?

      Your Answer: Trimipramine

      Correct Answer: Agomelatine

      Explanation:

      Unlike other antidepressants, agomelatine (Valdoxan) does not affect serotonin transmission and is a melatonin agonist. It has a good safety profile and there have been no reported cases of hyponatraemia associated with its use. On the other hand, the other listed antidepressants have been linked to hyponatraemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the term used to describe the experience of a male patient...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the experience of a male patient withdrawing from alcohol who sees small people walking on top of his bed sheets?

      Your Answer: Lilliputian hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Lilliputian hallucinations are commonly observed in conditions caused by organic factors, such as withdrawal and intoxication.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which statement accurately describes the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) as an assessment tool...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) as an assessment tool for depression?

      Your Answer: Includes questions about thoughts of self-harm

      Explanation:

      Depression screening can be done using two questions that ask about feeling down, depressed, of hopeless and having little interest of pleasure in doing things. A ‘yes’ answer to either question prompts a more in-depth assessment using tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale of the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9). The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, while the PHQ-9 asks about 9 problems over the last 2 weeks. NICE grades depression into ‘less severe’ and ‘more severe’ based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and >16, respectively. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold and mild to moderate and severe. It is important to assess depression severity to determine appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is categorized as a projection tract in relation to...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is categorized as a projection tract in relation to white matter?

      Your Answer: Uncinate fasciculus

      Correct Answer: Geniculocalcarine tract

      Explanation:

      White matter is the cabling that links different parts of the CNS together. There are three types of white matter cables: projection tracts, commissural tracts, and association tracts. Projection tracts connect higher centers of the brain with lower centers, commissural tracts connect the two hemispheres together, and association tracts connect regions of the same hemisphere. Some common tracts include the corticospinal tract, which connects the motor cortex to the brainstem and spinal cord, and the corpus callosum, which is the largest white matter fiber bundle connecting corresponding areas of cortex between the hemispheres. Other tracts include the cingulum, superior and inferior occipitofrontal fasciculi, and the superior and inferior longitudinal fasciculi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which statement about modafinil is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about modafinil is accurate?

      Your Answer: It does not tend to lead to dependence

      Explanation:

      Modafinil shares similarities in its mechanism of action with amphetamine, and its effects are relatively brief with a half-life of approximately 8-12 hours. Additionally, the side effects of modafinil are comparable to those of amphetamine.

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the primary neurotransmitter in the brain that has an inhibitory effect?...

    Correct

    • What is the primary neurotransmitter in the brain that has an inhibitory effect?

      Your Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works?

      Your Answer: Inhibits butyrylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as galantamine are utilized to enhance central acetylcholine levels. Although they share this common mechanism of action, there are variations in how they function. Unlike galantamine, rivastigmine has the ability to inhibit butyrylcholinesterase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following best describes the symptoms of the woman who visited...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the symptoms of the woman who visited A&E claiming that she had a chip implanted in her head by CIA and could hear voices reporting her every move back to headquarters?

      Your Answer: Thought broadcast

      Correct Answer: Running commentary

      Explanation:

      The women’s movements are being narrated in real-time by the voices, which is known as ‘running commentary’. It does not appear that the voices are affecting her thoughts in any way.

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The spinothalamic tracts are particularly concerned with… ...

    Correct

    • The spinothalamic tracts are particularly concerned with…

      Your Answer: Pain and temperature sensations

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tracts are ascending or sensory tracts, responsible for transmission of pain and temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which statement about normal pressure hydrocephalus is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about normal pressure hydrocephalus is incorrect?

      Your Answer: CSF pressure is usually raised

      Explanation:

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.

      The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is an example of a compound question? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of a compound question?

      Your Answer: Do you limit what you eat and exercise to keep thin?

      Explanation:

      Understanding Compound Questions in Interview Techniques

      When conducting interviews, it is important to be aware of compound questions. These are questions that combine multiple inquiries into what appears to be a single question. Compound questions can be confusing for the interviewee and may lead to inaccurate of incomplete responses.

      To avoid compound questions, it is important to break down inquiries into separate, clear questions. This allows the interviewee to fully understand what is being asked and provide a thoughtful response. Additionally, it is important to avoid using conjunctions such as and of of when asking questions, as this can create compound questions.

      By using clear and concise language and avoiding compound questions, interviewers can ensure that they are receiving accurate and complete responses from their interviewees. This can lead to a more successful and informative interview process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (6/7) 86%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (0/1) 0%
Genetics (2/3) 67%
Neuro-anatomy (2/2) 100%
Psychological Development (1/1) 100%
Classification And Assessment (4/6) 67%
Psychopharmacology (4/7) 57%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/1) 100%
History Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Passmed