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Question 1
Correct
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Post-total gastrectomy, there will be a decreased production of which of the following enzymes?
Your Answer: Pepsin
Explanation:Pepsin is a protease that is released from the gastric chief cells and acts to degrade proteins into peptides. Released as pepsinogen, it is activated by hydrochloric acid and into pepsin itself. Gastrin and the vagus nerve trigger the release of pepsinogen and HCl when a meal is ingested. Pepsin functions optimally in an acidic environment, especially at a pH of 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Driving pressure is considered to be a strong predictor of mortality in patients with ARDS. What is the normal mean intravascular driving pressure for the respiratory circulation?
Your Answer: 30 mmHg
Correct Answer: 10 mmHg
Explanation:Driving pressure is the difference between inflow and outflow pressure. For the pulmonary circulation, this is the difference between pulmonary arterial (pa) and left atrial pressure (pLA). Normally, mean driving pressure is about 10 mmHg, computed by subtracting pLA (5 mmHg) from pA (15 mmHg). This is in contrast to a mean driving pressure of nearly 100 mmHg in the systemic circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant mesothelioma. Exposure to which substance increased his risk in developing mesothelioma?
Your Answer: Silica
Correct Answer: Asbestos
Explanation:Mesothelioma is a rare, aggressive form of cancer that develops in the lining of the lungs, abdomen or heart. It is linked to inhalation of asbestos commonly used in ship building and the insulation industry. It has no known cure and has a very poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves has its terminal branch at the supratrochlear nerve?
Your Answer: Ophthalmic
Correct Answer: Frontal
Explanation:The supratrochlear nerve is a branch of the frontal nerve which comes from the ophthalmic division of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). It passes above the superior oblique nerve and its descending filaments join the infratrochlear branch of the nasociliary nerve. From the orbit, it exits between the supraorbital foramen and the pulley of the superior oblique. It then curves up to the forehead beneath the corrugator supercilli and frontalis muscle. It further divides into branches that supply sensory innervation to the bridge of the nose, medial part of the upper eyelid and medial forehead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer: The adductor part of the adductor magnus muscle would be affected
Correct Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected
Explanation:As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 7
Correct
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The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?
Your Answer: Level of the umbilicus
Explanation:The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the registrar conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lies immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was likely punctured?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured.
The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured.
The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen.
Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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The muscle that forms the posterior wall of the axilla along with the scapula, subscapularis muscle and teres major muscle is the?
Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:The latissimus dorsi forms the posterior wall of the axilla along with the scapula. It is responsible for extension, adduction, transverse extension also known as horizontal abduction, flexion from an extended position, and (medial) internal rotation of the shoulder joint. It also has a synergistic role in extension and lateral flexion of the lumbar spine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 10
Correct
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A patient presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation in the left leg. He is likely to have a lesion involving:
Your Answer: Right lateral spinothalamic tract
Explanation:The spinothalamic tract is a sensory pathway originating in the spinal cord that transmits information to the thalamus. There are two main parts of the spinothalamic tract: the lateral spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature and the anterior spinothalamic tract transmits touch (crude touch). The decussation of this pathway occurs at the level of the spinal cord. Hence, a unilateral lesion of the lateral spinothalamic tract causes contralateral loss of pain and temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered that the victim had lost sense of touch to the skin over her cheek and chin (maxilla and mandible region). Where are the cell bodies of the nerve that is responsible for touch sensations of this region located?
Your Answer: Cranial nerve VII ganglion
Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V ganglion
Explanation:The skin over the cheek and the maxilla are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V). The trigeminal nerve has three major branches and it is the largest cranial nerve. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve are; the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve and the mandibular nerve. The trigeminal nerves ganglion is a sensory nerve ganglion know as the trigeminal ganglion (also referred to as the Gasser’s ganglion or the semilunar ganglion). It is contained in the dura matter in a cavity known as the Meckel’s cave, which covers the trigeminal impression near the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 12
Correct
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A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of the prostate for malignant growth, which of the following structures is directly related to the base of the prostate?
Your Answer: Urinary bladder
Explanation:The prostate is situated in the pelvic cavity and is also located immediately below the internal urethral orifice at the commencement of the urethra. It is held in position by the puboprostatic ligaments, the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm and the anterior portions of the levatores ani. The base of the prostate is directed upward and is attached to the inferior surface of the urinary bladder while the apex is directed downward and is in contact with the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 13
Correct
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Linezolid is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be effectively treated by linezolid?
Your Answer: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Linezolid is a synthetic antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by multiresistant bacteria, including streptococci and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Linezolid is effective against Gram-positive pathogens, notably Enterococcus faecium, S. aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus pyogenes. It has almost no effect on Gram-negative bacteria and is only bacteriostatic against most enterococci.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Production of pain is most likely associated with:
Your Answer: Substance P
Explanation:Substance P is a short-chain polypeptide that functions as a neurotransmitter and as a neuromodulator, and is thus, a neuropeptide. It has been linked with pain regulation, mood disorders, stress, reinforcement, neurogenesis, respiratory rhythm, neurotoxicity, nausea and emesis. It is also a potent vasodilator as it brings about release of nitric oxide from the endothelium. Its release can also cause hypotension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure that articulates with the tubercle of the 7th rib. Which structure is fractured?
Your Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T7
Explanation:A rib tubercle is a projection that is postero-inferior and lateral to the neck of a rib which articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebra i.e. of the same number. Therefore, the tubercle of rib 7 articulates with the transverse process of T7 vertebra. The head of the rib 7, on the other hand, articulates with the 6th vertebra superiorly and the 7th vertebra inferiorly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 16
Correct
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If a tumour is found in both lobes of the prostate, without nodal involvement or metastases, a histological grade of G2 and elevated PSA, what is the overall prostatic cancer stage?
Your Answer: Stage II
Explanation:The AJCC uses the TNM, Gleason score and PSA levels to determine the overall stage of prostatic cancer. This staging is as follows:
Stage I: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10; or T2a, N0, M0, Gleason score 6 or less, PSA less than 10
Stage IIa: T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7, PSA less than 20; or T1, N0, M0, Gleason score of 6 or less, PSA at least 10 but less than 20; or T2a or T2b, N0, M0, Gleason score of 7 or less, PSA less than 20
Stage IIb: T2c, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, any Gleason score PSA of 20 or more; or T1 or T2, N0, M0, Gleason score of 8 or higher, any PSA
Stage III: T3, N0, M0, any Gleason score, any PSA Stage IV: T4, N0, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or any T, N1, M0,any Gleason score, any PSA; or Any T, any N, M1, any Gleason score, any PSA.
The patient in this case has a T2 N0 M0 G2 tumour, meaning it belongs in stage II
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following coagulation factors is responsible for the formation of a complex with tissue factor to activate factors IX and X?
Your Answer: Factor XI
Correct Answer: Factor VII
Explanation:Factor VII, also known as proconvertin or stable factor, is a vitamin K–dependent protein that plays a central role in haemostasis and coagulation. Tissue factor is a protein that is normally not exposed on the surface of intact blood vessels. Damage to the vascular lumen leads to tissue factor exposure. The exposed tissue factor binds to factor VII. This facilitates the activation of factor VII to factor VIIa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 47 year-old woman was admitted for elective cholecystectomy, with a past history of easy bruising and heavy menstrual periods. The patient was also diagnosed with Willebrand's disease. Willebrand's disease is:
Your Answer: Characterised by decreased factor VII
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:von Willebrand disease is an autosomal dominant disorder marked by the deficiency of vWF, a large protein synthesized by the endothelial cells and megakaryocytes. It mediates adhesion of platelets to the subendothelium at site of vascular injury. Disease characteristics include impaired platelet adhesion, prolonged bleeding time and a functional deficiency of factor VIII (vWF is its carrier protein).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A young 16 year old boy presented to the ENT clinic with a history of sore throat for the past 1 day. On examination there was a pharyngeal purulent discharge. Which of the following types of inflammation is seen in this boy?
Your Answer: Chronic inflammation
Correct Answer: Acute inflammation
Explanation:A 1 day history suggests the purulent discharge is due to acute inflammation. Acute inflammation has 3 features:
1) the affected area is occupied by a purulent discharge composed of proteins, fluids and cells from local blood vessels
2) the infective agent i.e. bacteria is present in the affected area
3) the damaged tissue can be liquified and the debris removed from the site.
If the inflammation lasts over weeks or months, then it is termed as chronic inflammation.
Granulomatous inflammation is characterised by the presence and formation of granulomas.
Exudate is not a feature of resolution or a complication of inflammation.
Abscess formation takes more than 1 day to form and is usually within a capsule/cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
- Pathology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure, is likely to eventually present with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Hypopituitarism
Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:When the parathyroid glands secrete excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to hypocalcaemia, it is known as Secondary hyperparathyroidism and is often seen in patients with renal failure. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys fail to excrete adequate phosphorus and also fail to convert enough vitamin D to its active form. This leads to formation of insoluble calcium phosphate in the body which ultimately causes hypocalcaemia. The glands then undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Symptoms include bone and joint pains, along with limb deformities. The raised PTH also results in pleiotropic effects on blood, the immune system and nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pathology
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Question 21
Correct
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The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Middle meatus
Explanation:The maxillary sinuses usually develop symmetrically. The maxillary sinus ostium drains into the infundibulum which joins the hiatus semilunaris and drains into the middle meatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in colorectal cancer?
Your Answer: FOLFOX
Explanation:Chemotherapy regimens are often identified by acronyms, identifying the agents used in the drug combination. However, the letters used are not consistent across regimens. FOLFOX is a chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer, made up of the following drugs: • FOL: fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil or 5-FU) • F: folinic acid (leucovorin) • OX: oxaliplatin (Eloxatin®).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage:
Your Answer: The right ovarian vein drains into the right renal vein
Correct Answer: The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein
Explanation:Spermatic or testicular veins arise from the posterior aspect of the testis and receive tributaries from the epididymis. Upon uniting, they form the pampiniform plexus that makes up the greater mass of the spermatic cord. The vessels that make up this plexus rise up the spermatic cord in front of the ductus deferens. They then unite, below the superficial ring, to form three or four veins that traverse the inguinal canal and enter the abdomen through the deep inguinal ring. They further unite to form 2 veins that ascend up the psoas major muscle behind the peritoneum each lying on either side of the testicular artery. These further unite to form one vein that empties on the right side of the inferior vena cava at an acute angle and on the left side into the renal vein, at a right angle. The left testicular vein courses behind the iliac colon and is thus exposed to pressure from the contents of this part of the bowel. The ovarian vein is the equivalent of the testicular vein in women. They form a plexus in the broad ligament near the ovary and uterine tube and communicate with the uterine plexus. They drain into similar vessels as in a man.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Calculate the stroke volume in an adult male with the following parameters:
Heart rate 70 beats/min
Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min
Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi
Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min
Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg
Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg
Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.Your Answer: 75 ml
Correct Answer: 90 ml
Explanation:Fick’s principle states that, VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. Cardiac output is also given by product of stroke volume and heart rate. Thus, stroke volume = cardiac output / heart rate = 6.25/70 × 1000 stroke volume = 90 ml approximately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 25
Correct
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A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria for the past 3 days. Urine culture confirmed Neisseria gonorrhoeae and smear showed abundant neutrophils. Which of the following mediators is responsible for causing diapedesis of the neutrophils to reach the site of infection?
Your Answer: Complement C5a
Explanation:C5a is part of the complement cascade and is released frim the complement C5. It acts as a chemotactic factor for neutrophils. Other chemotactic mediators are TNF, leukotrienes and bacterial products.
Bradykinin is associated with the production of pain and vasodilation.
Hageman factor is a clotting factor.
Histamine causes vasodilation.
C3B causes opsonisation.
IL-6 and IL-12 are inflammatory mediators causing B cell maturation and mediating inflammation and prostaglandins are involved with pain, increasing cell permeability and vasodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology; Urology
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the percentage of bone calcium that is freely exchangeable with the extracellular fluid that is available for buffering changes in the calcium ion balance?
Your Answer: 80%
Correct Answer: 1%
Explanation:Around 1% of calcium in the body is available for buffering changes in calcium ion balance. These are mainly derived from the bone that are freely exchangeable with extracellular fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a vehicular accident. A skull x-ray was done which revealed a fracture along the base of the middle cranial fossa. The patient has no sense of touch over the skin over his cheek and chin. Injury to the maxillary and the mandibular nerves is suspected. In which foramina do these two affected sensory branches leave the cranial cavity.
Your Answer: Superior orbital fissure and foramen rotundum
Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum and foramen ovale
Explanation:The patient’s clinical manifestations suggests an injury to the maxillary and mandibular nerves. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum. At the base of the skull the foramen ovale (Latin: oval window) is one of the larger of the several holes (the foramina) that transmit nerves through the skull. The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the foramen rotundum. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery (small meningeal or paradural branch, sometimes derived from the middle meningeal artery), lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve and an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins. Occasionally it will also carry the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The muscle that stabilizes the stapes is innervated by which of the following nerves?
Your Answer: Chorda tympani nerve
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The stapedius is the smallest skeletal muscle in the human body. At just over one millimetre in length, its purpose is to stabilize the smallest bone in the body, the stapes and is innervated by a branch of the facial nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 29
Incorrect
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During strenuous exercise, what else occurs besides tachycardia?
Your Answer: No change to blood pressure
Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume
Explanation:During strenuous exercise there is an increase in:
– Heart rate, stroke volume and therefore cardiac output. (CO = HR x SV)
– Respiratory rate (hyperventilation) which will lead to a reduction in Paco2.
– Oxygen demand of skeletal muscle, therefore leading to a reduction in mixed venous blood oxygen concentration.
Renal blood flow is autoregulated, so renal blood flow is preserved and will tend to remain the same. Mean arterial blood pressure is a function of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance and will increase with exercise, mainly as a result of the increase in cardiac output that occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the nerve supply to the muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation:The peroneus longus and peroneus brevis in the lateral compartment of the leg take nerve supply from the superficial peroneal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
