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  • Question 1 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer: A type III hypersensitivity reaction can be seen after several weeks of infestation

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Tall stature is NOT a characteristic finding in which of the following conditions?...

    Incorrect

    • Tall stature is NOT a characteristic finding in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Weaver syndrome

      Correct Answer: Laurence-Moon Syndrome

      Explanation:

      A height that is above the 97th percentile for age and sex is described as a tall stature. The most common cause of tall stature is constitutional or familial, followed by nutritional causes. Hormonal causes of tall stature include hyperthyroidism, growth hormone excess, and precocious puberty. Some important chromosomal and syndromic causes of tall stature are Klinefelter’s syndrome, homocystinuria, Marfan’s syndrome, Sotos syndrome, Beckwith-Weidman syndrome, and Weaver syndrome. Laurence-Moon syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by short stature, retinitis pigmentosa, and spastic paraplegia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4119.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine transmission of HIV occurs in up to 40% of untreated maternal infections

      Correct Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur...

    Incorrect

    • Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur in anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Salivary gland hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Hepatosplenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious, psychiatric eating disorder characterized by distorted self-image due to which abnormal eating behaviours are adopted. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the gastrointestinal system. The GI manifestations of anorexia are enlarged salivary glands due to purging behaviour, gastritis, gastroparesis, acute gastric dilatation, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, elevated liver transaminases, which cause hepatocyte apoptosis leading to cirrhosis, and steatosis leading to fatty liver. Hepatosplenomegaly is not a recognized complication of anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of fever, lethargy and a reduction in feeds. On examination, the infant is hypotonic, tachypnoeic and has a CRT of 4 seconds, with the femoral pulse being barely palpable. Venous access is obtained with difficulty by inserting an interosseous needle and blood sugar level is 13. His saturation is found to be 98%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duct dependent lesion

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Sepsis is a medical emergency that describes the body’s systemic immunological response to an infectious process that can lead to end-stage organ dysfunction and death. The fever, alongside the clinical presentation, make sepsis the likely diagnosis. A temperature >38 degrees in an infant <3months of age warrants investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14 year-old is brought to the ED after being hit on the...

    Correct

    • A 14 year-old is brought to the ED after being hit on the head with a cricket ball during a match. His teacher describes that he initially collapsed on the ground and complained of a sore head. Two minutes later, he got up and said he felt OK and continued playing. However, 30 minutes later he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What injury is he most likely to have sustained?

      Your Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      A lucid interval, in which the patient portrays a temporary improvement in condition after a traumatic brain injury, is especially indicative of an epidural haematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach. Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue. Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:- Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage- Ecchymosis- Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums- Sjogren’s syndrome- Arthralgia- Oedema- Impaired wound healing- Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was...

    Incorrect

    • A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium TB

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas

      Explanation:

      History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old child.Which of the following could cause low calcium levels due to an artefact?

      Your Answer: Potassium

      Correct Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      The accuracy of the test for calcium levels in the blood is affected by the blood level of albumin. If albumin levels are low, the calcium level can also appear low.This is termed as pseudohypocalcemia.Hypocalcaemia usually presents with muscle spams. These can include spasms of voluntary muscle but also smooth muscle such as in the airways (causing bronchospasm) and in the heart (causing angina).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following features is not associated with Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is not associated with Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hemivertebrae

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue in many parts of the body. Connective tissue provides strength and flexibility to structures such as bones, ligaments, muscles, blood vessels, and heart valves. The signs and symptoms of Marfan syndrome vary widely in severity, timing of onset, and rate of progression.This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder.At least 25 percent of Marfan syndrome cases result from a new mutation in the FBN1 gene. These cases occur in people with no history of the disorder in their family.The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and defects in the large blood vessel that distributes blood from the heart to the rest of the body (the aorta).Associations include:Tall statureLearning disability (50%)Lens subluxation (usually upwards)Femoral herniaHemivertebraeCardiac problems (Aortic/mitral regurgitation, aneurysms)Joint hypermobilityArachnodactyly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after developing severe shortness of breath and chest pain at the gym. She has a history of asthma since childhood. Her skin colour looked normal| however, breath sounds were found to be diminished on auscultation of the right lung. Which investigation will you order first?

      Your Answer: MRI of the chest

      Correct Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Asthma patients have an increased risk of developing complications like pneumonia or collapsed lung. A clear visualization of the lungs through a CXR will define the management necessary for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age....

    Correct

    • A well, breastfed term infant presented with jaundice at 36 hours of age. The serum bilirubin was 286 µmol/L, direct Coombs test negative, blood film showed spherocytes and reticulocytes. The baby’s blood group was A rhesus negative and mother’s blood group O Rhesus negative.Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ABO incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic disease of the new-born due to ABO incompatibility is usually less severe than Rh incompatibility. One reason is that fetal RBCs express less of the ABO blood group antigens compared with adult levels. In addition, in contrast to the Rh antigens, the ABO blood group antigens are expressed by a variety of fetal (and adult) tissues, reducing the chances of anti-A and anti-B binding their target antigens on the fetal RBCs.ABO HDN occurs almost exclusively in the offspring of women of blood group O, although reports exist of occasional cases in group A mothers with high‐titre anti‐(group B) IgG

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 11-year-old boy is undergoing a wedge excision of his great toenail. As...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy is undergoing a wedge excision of his great toenail. As the surgeon passes a needle into the area to administer a local anaesthetic, the patient experiences a sharp pain.Which of the following pathways conveys pain sensations to the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Cuneate fasciculus

      Correct Answer: Spinothalamic tract

      Explanation:

      The lateral spinothalamic tracts carry pain and temperature sensations from the peripheries to the central nervous system.Note:The spinothalamic tract transmits impulses from receptors which measure crude touch, pain and temperature. The spinothalamic tract comprises the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts.The former typically transmits pain and temperature while the latter transmits crude touch and pressure. Neurones transmitting these signals will usually ascend by one or two vertebral levels in the Lissauer tract before decussating in the spinal cord itself. Neurones then pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking of one arm followed by generalised shaking. A flat erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid, which has not changed in size or appearance, has been present since birth.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Correct Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS), also called encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis, is a neurocutaneous disorder with angiomas that involve the leptomeninges (leptomeningeal angiomas [LAs]) and the skin of the face, typically in the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) distributions of the trigeminal nerve. The hallmark of SWS is a facial cutaneous venous dilation, also referred to as a nevus flammeus or port-wine stain (PWS).Signs and symptoms:SWS is generally diagnosed clinically, based on the typical cutaneous, central nervous system (CNS), and ocular abnormalities associated with it.Neurological signs include the following:Developmental delay/intellectual disabilityLearning problemsAttention deficit-hyperactivity disorderInitial focal seizures progressing to frequent, secondarily generalized seizuresIncreasing seizure frequency and duration despite the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)Increasing duration of a transient postictal deficitIncrease in focal or diffuse atrophy – Determined by serial neuroimagingProgressive increase in calcificationsDevelopment of hemiparesisDeterioration in cognitive functioningPhysical signs of SWS are as follows:Port-wine stainMacrocephalyOcular manifestationsSoft-tissue hypertrophyHemiparesisVisual lossHemianopsiaOcular involvement in SWS may include the following signs:BuphthalmosGlaucomaTomato-catsup colour of the fundus (ipsilateral to the nevus flammeus) with glaucomaConjunctival and episcleral haemangiomasDiffuse choroidal haemangiomasHeterochromia of the iridesTortuous retinal vessels with occasional arteriovenous communications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Causes fallopian tube dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation| they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decreases the pulse frequency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will decrease the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decreases the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, then there is no increase in the oestradiol levels (the follicle makes oestradiol). The progestogen negative feedback and lack of oestrogen positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, there is the prevention of ovulation. Oestrogen has some effect with inhibiting follicular development because of its negative feedback on the anterior pituitary with slows FSH secretion| it’s just not as prominent as the progesterone’s effect. Another primary mechanism of action is progesterone’s ability to inhibit sperm from penetrating through the cervix and upper genital tract by making the cervical mucous unfriendly. Progesterone induced endometrial atrophy should deter implantation, but there is no proof that this occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints of a 0.5 cm cystic lump on the lateral aspect of her eyebrow. It has been present since birth but is slowly increasing in size. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphatic malformation

      Correct Answer: External angular dermoid

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be external angular dermoid.External angular dermoids typically form where there are overlapping tissue planes such as the midline. They contain a caseous material. The cysts are essentially benign in nature and are excised for cosmetic purposes or when they encroach on vision.Other options:- Branchial remnant typically presents as a supraclavicular pit.- Sebaceous cysts tend to be present on the scalp.- There is nothing in the clinical scenario to suggest a vascular malformation such as pigment change or ‘bag of worms’.- Lymphatic malformations are typically found in the neck or under the axilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone| however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-Mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors. The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed...

    Correct

    • A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Foreign body

      Explanation:

      Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      119.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15-year-old girl presents with mild abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with mild abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant for the last four months. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a 7cm simple ovarian cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Functional ovarian cyst. Ovary sparing cystectomy

      Explanation:

      The most prudent course of action in the given clinical scenario is an ovary-sparing cystectomy. The history is 3-months and is already chronic. Furthermore, the cyst is greater than 5cm in size and at risk of torsion. This will relieve the cause of pain, reduce the risk of torsion and save ovarian function.Other options:- This is a simple cyst and not a malignancy, so imaging and referral are not indicated.- Open oophorectomy was done in the past. However, this is very aggressive, and the modern approach is ovary-sparing.- As the cyst is 7cm and at risk of torsion, conservative management is not appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following facts and figures is true regarding vitamin A? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following facts and figures is true regarding vitamin A?

      Your Answer: Most of the body's vitamin A is stored in the kidneys

      Correct Answer: Children with measles should receive additional vitamin A supplementation

      Explanation:

      Vitamin A is a fat-soluble compound occurring in various forms. The RDA for 0-12 months old babies is 400-600micrograms/day. Most of the vitamin A is stored in the liver, making animal liver an excellent source of vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency is characterized by the deposits of keratin in the conjunctiva, known as Bitot’s spots, keratomalacia, night blindness, and anaemia.Vitamin A toxicity or excess is characterized by hyperkeratosis, hypothyroidism, hypo/hyperpigmentation, etc.According to WHO guidelines, children under two years of age who develop measles should be given two additional doses of vitamin A supplementation 24 hours apart, which is necessary for preventing eye damage, blindness, and reducing mortality by 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Correct

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epididymo-orchitis

      Correct Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      Explanation:

      Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatidThe appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion| a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?

      Your Answer: Dentate nucleus

      Correct Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC)....

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?

      Your Answer: Abdominal trauma

      Explanation:

      Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The merlin gene is implicated in the Neurofibromatosis type 2 phenotype. On which...

    Incorrect

    • The merlin gene is implicated in the Neurofibromatosis type 2 phenotype. On which chromosome is merlin located?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 15

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 22

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 2, also known as schwannomin, is an autosomal dominant genetic disease caused by mutation of the merlin gene located on chromosome 22. Merlin is a tumour suppressor protein, which is responsible for controlling cell shape, growth and adhesion, and is predominantly found in nervous tissue. Its mutation increases the risk of tumour development especially bilateral vestibular schwannomas, the hallmark of neurofibromatosis 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A term baby with a birth weight of 4.5 kg with meconium aspiration...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 4.5 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Settings are mean airway pressure 14 cmH2O, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 1.0. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 84%. Blood gas shows pH 7.32, CO2 6.5 kPa, BE –4. Chest X-ray shows poorly inflated lungs.What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer: Decrease delta P

      Correct Answer: Increase mean airway pressure

      Explanation:

      The baby needs more oxygen saturation which could be attempted by increasing the mean airway pressureAfter initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      152.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Methicillin

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment: ...

    Incorrect

    • In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment:

      Your Answer: Calcipotriol is available topically, orally, and subcutaneously

      Correct Answer: Topical corticosteroid associated side effects include striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising

      Explanation:

      Topical treatments are useful in the treatment of mild Psoriasis, or as adjuvant therapy in ultraviolet and systematic treatments. These treatments include moisturisers, dithranol, coal tar, salicylic acid, topical immunomodulators such as calcineurin, topical retinoids, Vitamin D analogues and topical steroids. Topical steroids are known to have a number of side effects such as striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising. Localised pustular psoriasis is also associated with topical steroids in higher doses. Use of more than 500 g of hydrocortisone or 50 g clobetasol propionate have been shown to suppress adrenal function. Calcitriol, a vitamin D analogue, is only available as an ointment and does not stain clothes and skin the way dithranol and coal tar are known to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is receiving IV fluids and a routine blood test is done to evaluate kidney function and look for signs of acute kidney injury. All of the following are being used to evaluate for kidney injury, except:

      Your Answer: Rise in creatinine of >25micromol/l in 48 hours

      Correct Answer: Potassium >6mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is not to evaluate or detect AKI but rather the result of it. If one of the rest of the options is present, then AKI would be suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhagic Disease of the New-born (HDN)

      Correct Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Explanation:

      In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?

      Your Answer: Gives rise to the muscles of facial expression

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer: t(9|22)

      Correct Answer: t(8|14)

      Explanation:

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8|14). Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:1. t(9|22)—Chronic myeloid leukaemia2. t(15|17)—Acute promyelocytic leukaemia3. t(14|18)—Follicular Lymphoma4. t(11|14)—Mantle Cell Lymphoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A new-born has a reduced red reflex in his left eye. Which of...

    Correct

    • A new-born has a reduced red reflex in his left eye. Which of the following should be the main differential diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital cataract

      Explanation:

      Cataracts in infants are most commonly identified by an abnormal red reflex. Due to the high risk of amblyopia in unilateral cataracts, prompt referral to a paediatric ophthalmologist is indicated. Bilateral cataracts may occur in association with several syndromes or diseases, and these children require evaluation for these systemic disorders.Retinoblastoma is rare, but it is the most common primary intraocular tumour in children. About 80% of cases are diagnosed before age 4, with a median age at diagnosis of 2 years. It most frequently presents due to an abnormal red reflex. It is one of the few life-threatening disorders encountered in paediatric ophthalmology. Intraocular retinoblastoma is very treatable, but the mortality for metastatic disease is high. Identification of tumours before systemic spread is critical. Most children with large unilateral tumours will require enucleation (surgical removal of the eye), but the eye and vision may sometimes be preserved if the tumours are identified when they are small.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      258.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 5 week old boy presents with a history of jerky movements involving...

    Correct

    • A 5 week old boy presents with a history of jerky movements involving both upper and lower limbs. The parents admit that this happens 2-3 times during sleep, without waking him up. He feeds well and doesn’t seem to cry more than normally. He was a term baby, born without any perinatal complications. The neurological examination turns out normal. Parents worry he has seizures as they have a 3 year old nephew with epilepsy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus

      Explanation:

      Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus is a condition characterised by neonatal onset myoclonic jerks during NREM. Characteristic for this disorder is the absence of electroencephalographic findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of...

    Correct

    • Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of the following conditions is metabolic alkalosis caused by this mechanism ?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in the concentration of serum bicarbonate ions. This may occur as a consequence of a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain in bicarbonate. Hydrogen ions may be lost through the kidneys or the GI tract, as for example during vomiting, nasogastric suction or use of diuretics. Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions develops mainly during hypokalaemia to maintain neutrality. Gain in bicarbonate ions may develop during administration of sodium bicarbonate in high amounts or in amounts that exceed the capacity of excretion of the kidneys, as seen in renal failure. Fluid losses may be another cause of metabolic alkalosis, causing the reduction of extracellular fluid volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2–3 white blood cells/mm3. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pyelonephritis

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following skin conditions is matched correctly with its treatment?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome and Retinoids

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis and Vitamin D analogues

      Explanation:

      One of the options of Psoriasis treatment is vitamin D analogues i.e. calcipotriol. Acne is exacerbated by steroids. Erythema nodosum can be caused by various diseases and the treatment of the primary condition resolves the symptoms. Lipomas requires surgery, whereas Steven-Johnson syndrome requires use of steroids and eliminating the culprit drug, which is one of the most common causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Fabry's disease is a rare genetic disorder that leads to excessive deposition of...

    Incorrect

    • Fabry's disease is a rare genetic disorder that leads to excessive deposition of neutral glycosphingolipids in the vascular endothelium of several organs and in epithelial and smooth muscle cells. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Fabry's disease?

      Your Answer: Pain is the most debilitating symptom in childhood

      Correct Answer: Inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion

      Explanation:

      Fabry disease (Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum) is an X-linked lysosomal disorder which occurs due to deficiency or absence of alpha-galactosidase A (α-GAL A) activity as a result of a genetic mutation in the GLA gene. As Fabry’s disease follows X-linked genetics it manifestis predominantly in men. Ongoing burning, tingling pain and discomfort, known as acroparesthesia, mainly affecting the hands and feet is the most debilitating symptom in childhood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 8 year old boy presented with acute onset of nasal obstruction. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old boy presented with acute onset of nasal obstruction. His parents gave a recent history of nasal trauma. On examination he was febrile and his nasal bones were straight. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Septal hematoma

      Correct Answer: Septal abscess

      Explanation:

      History of fever is suggestive of an infective focus. A straight nasal bones excludes a nasal bone fracture. A nasal septal abscess is defined as a collection of pus between the cartilage or bony septum and it is an uncommon disease which should be suspected in a patient with acute onset of nasal obstruction and recent history of nasal trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

      Your Answer: Small for dates baby

      Correct Answer: Breech presentation

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip refers to patients who are born with a dislocated or unstable hip due to abnormal development of the hip. Female infants and first born infants are most likely to present with DDH. Other risk factors for DDH include, breech positioning, oligohydramnios, high birth weight or post date babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration...

    Correct

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest “wobble” on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE –5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer: Increase delta P

      Explanation:

      The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
    Given the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
      Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      78.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A patient has been diagnosed with severe haemophilia B (factor IX level <1%).What...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with severe haemophilia B (factor IX level <1%).What is the mode of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Y-linked

      Correct Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A and haemophilia B are inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The genes associated with these conditions are located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. In males (who have only one X chromosome), one altered copy of the gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - In women undergoing breast augmentation, what is the percentage reduction with respect to...

    Correct

    • In women undergoing breast augmentation, what is the percentage reduction with respect to successful breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: 0.25

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding may be significantly impaired (up to 25%) by breast augmentation. Equally, breast engorgement, which occurs due to vascular congestion, reduces nipple protrusion and subsequent ability to breastfeed successfully. In the latter, regular feeding or expressing is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      212.9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A new-born baby has a loud murmur, grade 3/6, at the upper left...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby has a loud murmur, grade 3/6, at the upper left sternal edge. Which one of the following statements about examination techniques is correct?

      Your Answer: Feeling femoral pulses is mandatory

      Explanation:

      Heart murmurs are common in healthy infants, children, and adolescents. Although most are not pathologic, a murmur may be the sole manifestation of serious heart disease. Historical elements that suggest pathology include family history of sudden cardiac death or congenital heart disease, in utero exposure to certain medications or alcohol, maternal diabetes mellitus, history of rheumatic fever or Kawasaki disease, and certain genetic disorders. Physical examination should focus on vital signs| age-appropriate exercise capacity| respiratory or gastrointestinal manifestations of congestive heart failure| and a thorough cardiovascular examination, including features of the murmur, assessment of peripheral perfusion, and auscultation over the heart valves. Red flags that increase the likelihood of a pathologic murmur include a holosystolic or diastolic murmur, grade 3 or higher murmur, harsh quality, an abnormal S2, maximal murmur intensity at the upper left sternal border, a systolic click, or increased intensity when the patient stands. Electrocardiography and chest radiography rarely assist in the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl with a history of polyuria and polydipsia undergoes a water deprivation test. Previous urine dipstick results were negative for blood, glucose, or protein. The test is started and once the girl loses 3% of her body weight, her serum osmolarity is more than 300 whereas her urine osmolarity is less than 300. Doctors administer desmopressin but osmolarity levels do not change. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetes Mellitus

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

      Explanation:

      Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus is an acquired or hereditary condition that affects the water balance. It presents with polyuria and polydipsia, leading commonly to dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 10-year-old newly diagnosed epileptic boy presents with pyrexia and a confluent, blistering...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old newly diagnosed epileptic boy presents with pyrexia and a confluent, blistering rash affecting his torso, arms, and legs. On examination, there are lesions on his mucous membranes also. On palpating the skin overlying the medial malleolus, it shears off with minimal force. What is the sign being elicited?

      Your Answer: Gottron's sign

      Correct Answer: Nikolsky's sign

      Explanation:

      The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorders, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 12-year-old girl is recovering from bilateral parotitis. She complains of a continuous...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is recovering from bilateral parotitis. She complains of a continuous headache and drowsiness. A CT brain is done which is normal. What is the best definitive investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      This patient might have viral meningitis as he recently suffered viral parotitis(Mumps). Microscopy and culture of the CSF would show a CSF lymphocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome?

      Your Answer: Infants are usually large for dates

      Correct Answer: Fetal loss in the first trimester is common

      Explanation:

      Turners syndrome is a chromosomal syndrome affecting the development of females. In this condition, all or part of the X chromosome gets deleted, producing the Karyotype 45 XO or 45XO/46XX. Spontaneous foetal loss is common in the first trimester, but foetuses which survive are born small for date, and may have lymphedema, and poor feeding in the neonatal period. These patients face numerous medical and developmental problems throughout their lifetimes including growth and puberty failure due to premature ovarian failure/ hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. However spontaneous puberty can be seen in up to 20% of females with Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?

      Your Answer: Hair dye

      Correct Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %–85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %–13 % and medications account for 5 %–12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Which of the following maternal factors is associated with oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following maternal factors is associated with oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: Polycystic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Maternal thrombotic disorder

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is a deficiency in the amniotic fluid volume, measured via ultrasound. Maternal factors associated with oligohydramnios include conditions where there is placental insufficiency such as chronic hypertension, preeclampsia or a thrombotic disorder, post-term pregnancy, premature rupture of membranes, certain chromosomal abnormalities, and obstructions of the foetal urinary tract. On the other hand conditions that are associated with polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid) include maternal diabetes, multiple gestations, Rh incompatibility and pulmonary abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following is the first sign of the onset of puberty?

      Your Answer: Breast-bud development

      Explanation:

      The first sign of pubarche in females is breast-bud development (thelarche).This begins between the ages of 9 and 12 years and continues to 12–18 years. Pubic hair growth occurs next (said to occur in stage 3), at ages 9–14 years, and is complete at 12–16 years. Menarche occurs relatively late in stage 4 (age 11–15 years) and is associated with a deceleration in growth. The peak height velocity is reached earlier (10–13 years) and growth is completed much earlier than in boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following does NOT cause benign intracranial hypertension? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does NOT cause benign intracranial hypertension?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Benign intracranial hypertension is characterized by an elevation of the CSF pressure that is not caused by hydrocephalus or any space-occupying lesion. The cause is most likely the decreased absorption of CSF into the dural sinuses. The main symptoms are headache and visual abnormalities. It can lead to blindness if not managed on time. The most important risk factors for BIH are female gender and obesity. The causes of BIH include iron deficiency anaemia, sarcoidosis, Lyme disease, SLE, polycythaemia vera, chronic kidney disease, meningitis, and sleep apnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50. His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HIV with chest infection

      Correct Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis

      Explanation:

      The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer: Curschmann's spirals

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 3 year old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to burning micturition, frequency and urgency. She is also experiencing some suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following investigations should be done initially?

      Your Answer: MCUG

      Correct Answer: Clean catch of urine for Culture &Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?

      Your Answer: Surgery

      Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a consult with a dietician, a decision was made to supplement her nutrition through total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. Which of the following is a common complication associated with TPN?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Correct Answer: Deranged liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) frequently causes derangement of liver function in children. Other options:- While line sepsis and thromboembolism are recognised complications of TPN, they do not occur frequently. – A child who is on TPN will require regular blood tests because of the potential for the development of electrolyte abnormalities. Need to observe their liver function, in order to provide TPN more accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      0
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