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  • Question 1 - A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops new-onset bradycardia and hypertension.Which of the following can improve his current condition?

      Your Answer: Mannitol 20%

      Explanation:

      All of the presenting features of the child are suggestive raised intracranial pressure. Thus, urgent treatment with 20% Mannitol can improve the child’s condition. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used in the treatment of raised intracranial pressure. It should be avoided in hypovolaemia because of its diuretic effects. Other options:- Head up at 15°: Keeping the head up at 20° in the midline will aid venous drainage. – Maintain CO2 at 5 kPa: If there is an acute rise in intracranial pressure, then lowering the CO2 to 4–4.5 kPa as a temporary measure can be beneficial. However, this must be only short-lived since it causes vasoconstriction and can impair cerebral blood flow. – 10% glucose bolus: Maintaining normoglycemia in traumatic brain injury is important. – 0.9% saline infusion: Hypertonic saline infusion of 3% can reduce intracranial pressure. 0.9% saline as a bolus could be beneficial if there were hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: More than 2% of girls affected by precocious puberty have inherited the condition from their mother

      Correct Answer: In about 5% of boys, precocious puberty is inherited from the father

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally earlier age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. The onset of normal puberty is triggered by gonadotropic-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.In most of the familial cases, the condition is transmitted by affected father. In boys, this makes up about 5% of the cases.Full adult height potential is not achieved in patients of precious puberty, although there is an advanced bone maturation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?...

    Correct

    • Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Erythema nodosum is NOT caused by which one of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema nodosum is NOT caused by which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Infection

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), and drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides. Coeliac disease is not linked with the formation of erythema nodosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following movements will most likely be lost following an injury...

    Correct

    • Which of the following movements will most likely be lost following an injury to the spinal part of the accessory nerve?

      Your Answer: Upward rotation of the scapula

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve XI is also known as the accessory nerve. The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle which retracts the scapula. The upper and lower fibres act together to also upwardly rotate it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Severe neonatal thrombocytopaenia

      Correct Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Explanation:

      In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 2-month-old infant was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old infant was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of excessive crying during urination. The urine culture of the infant revealed E.coli. Which of the following investigations should be done next?

      Your Answer: X ray KUB

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      Urine culture confirms a diagnosis of a UTI. A kidney ultrasound will be the next best investigation because it will help us to visualise the bladder, kidneys, and ureters to rule out any congenital obstruction in the urinary tract that might be the actual cause of infection in this 2-month old girl.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the conditions, mentioned below, result in a continuous murmur? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the conditions, mentioned below, result in a continuous murmur?

      Your Answer: Blalock- Taussig shunt

      Explanation:

      Blalock-Thomas-Taussig shunt is a surgical procedure done to increase pulmonary blood flow in cases like pulmonary atresia and results in a continuous murmur.The type of murmur which is heard during the systole and remains continuous till the second heart sound is known as a continuous murmur. This murmur is often intense and considered rough. It can also be accompanied by quivering. There are numerous causes of a continuous murmur that differ depending on the location and components of this murmur. It is caused by the shunting of blood from a high-pressure circulation to a low-pressure circulation. Pathological causes of a continuous murmur include patent ductus arteriosus, aortopulmonary window, AV malformation, coarctation of aorta, any acquired trauma, and iatrogenic cause like interventional or surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old girl presents with mild abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with mild abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant for the last four months. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a 7cm simple ovarian cyst. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Functional ovarian cyst. Ovary sparing cystectomy

      Explanation:

      The most prudent course of action in the given clinical scenario is an ovary-sparing cystectomy. The history is 3-months and is already chronic. Furthermore, the cyst is greater than 5cm in size and at risk of torsion. This will relieve the cause of pain, reduce the risk of torsion and save ovarian function.Other options:- This is a simple cyst and not a malignancy, so imaging and referral are not indicated.- Open oophorectomy was done in the past. However, this is very aggressive, and the modern approach is ovary-sparing.- As the cyst is 7cm and at risk of torsion, conservative management is not appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 3-year-old girl presented with rhinorrhoea, barking cough and inspiratory stridor. She was...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl presented with rhinorrhoea, barking cough and inspiratory stridor. She was diagnosed with laryngotracheobronchitis. If untreated at this stage which of the following would be the most probable outcome?

      Your Answer: Complete resolution

      Explanation:

      The prognosis for croup is excellent, and recovery is almost always complete with complications being quite rare. The possible complications are pneumonia, bacterial tracheitis, pulmonary oedema, pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, lymphadenitis or otitis media. Bacterial tracheitis is a life-threatening infection that can arise after the onset of an acute viral respiratory infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of noisy breathing and difficulty feeding. On examination, the baby had a mild inspiratory stridor, and subsequent laryngoscopy reveals an omega-shaped epiglottis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Omega-shaped epiglottis is a characteristic feature in the X-ray of a patient with laryngomalacia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      105
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 8 year old boy presented with easy bruising following falls. FBC showed...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old boy presented with easy bruising following falls. FBC showed leucocytosis and thrombocytopenia with normal haemoglobin levels. His ESR was high and Paul-Bunnell test was positive. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Glandular fever (Infectious Mononucleosis) is caused by Epstein–Barr virus (EBV). Leucocytosis rules in infectious mononucleosis and thrombocytopenia is not an uncommon association. ESR is elevated in most of the cases. Paul-Bunnell test is a rapid test for infectious mononucleosis due to Epstein–Barr virus (EBV).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      327.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?

      Your Answer: t(8|14)

      Explanation:

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8|14). Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:1. t(9|22)—Chronic myeloid leukaemia2. t(15|17)—Acute promyelocytic leukaemia3. t(14|18)—Follicular Lymphoma4. t(11|14)—Mantle Cell Lymphoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Choose the karyotype associated with short stature: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:

      Your Answer: 46,XO

      Correct Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders| occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: Foetal hydrops

      Correct Answer: A single umbilical artery

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include: premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. Foetal hydrops, developmental dysplasia of the hip and, macrosomia lead to polyhydramnios. Cleft palate is not associated with any of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of...

    Correct

    • A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of the following statements concerning the gluten-free diet is correct?

      Your Answer: Buckwheat is suitable in a gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Buckwheat is not wheat. It’s a seed rather than a grain, which means it’s gluten-free and safe for people with celiac disease and non-celiac gluten sensitivity. It is an excellent source of fibre and nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?

      Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal

      Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal

      Explanation:

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body.Functions of cortisol:- Increases blood pressure: permits normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles.- Inhibits bone formation: decreases osteoblasts, type 1 collagen and absorption of calcium from the gut, and increases osteoclastic activity.- Increases insulin resistance.- Increases gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.- Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses.- Maintains function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.An excess of corticosteroids in the body causes various symptoms that are a part of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 2-day old neonate is brought to the hospital with complaint of not...

    Correct

    • A 2-day old neonate is brought to the hospital with complaint of not having opened his bowels. On examination, the anus is not visible, and meconium is coming out of the urethra. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is most accurate?

      Your Answer: This is an anorectal malformation with a recto urethral fistula, urgent defunctioning colostomy needed

      Explanation:

      Anorectal malformations (ARMS) are also known as imperforate anus (IA). This is an umbrella term for a group of birth defects which affect the anorectal area.During a normal bowel movement, solid waste passes from the colon (large intestine) to the rectum (the final section the colon) and through the anus. When a child has an ARM, the rectum and the anus do not develop properly.Some types of ARM can cause constipation, faecal and / or urinary incontinence, infections and other problems. Some of these problems are very minor and easy to treat, with great long-term prognosis. Others are complex and affect multiple areas of life, such as sexual function and urinary and bowel control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb...

    Correct

    • A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb but can sit briefly supported by leaning forward on her hands. She can reach and grasp objects with the whole hand and then pass it from one hand to the other and is babbling. What is her expected age?

      Your Answer: 7 months

      Explanation:

      At 7 months, children are expected to sit briefly leaning forward on their hands, reach and grasp objects, transfer objects from hand to hand, and babble. Children are usually expected to wave goodbye or grasp objects with their fingers or thumb at around 10 months and older.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and crying. A diagnosis of congenital heart disease is suspected by the team of doctors. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Answer: Transposition of the great arteriesTransposition of the great arteries (TGA) is the most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion that presents in neonates. The hallmark of transposition of the great arteries is ventriculoarterial discordance, in which the aorta arises from the morphologic right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the morphologic left ventricle.Infants with transposition of the great arteries (TGA) are usually born at term, with cyanosis apparent within hours of birth.The clinical course and manifestations depend on the extent of intercirculatory mixing and the presence of associated anatomic lesions. Note the following:Transposition of the great arteries with intact ventricular septum: Prominent and progressive cyanosis within the first 24 hours of life is the usual finding in infants if no significant mixing at the atrial level is evident.Transposition of the great arteries with large ventricular septal defect: Infants may not initially manifest symptoms of heart disease, although mild cyanosis (particularly when crying) is often noted. Signs of congestive heart failure (tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and failure to gain weight) may become evident over the first 3-6 weeks as pulmonary blood flow increases.Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and left ventricular outflow tract obstruction: Infants often present with extreme cyanosis at birth, proportional to the degree of left ventricular (pulmonary) outflow tract obstruction. The clinical history may be similar to that of an infant with tetralogy of Fallot.Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and pulmonary vascular obstructive disease: Progressively advancing pulmonary vascular obstructive disease can prevent this rare subgroup of patients from developing symptoms of congestive heart failure, despite a large ventricular septal defect. Most often, patients present with progressive cyanosis, despite an early successful palliative procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Gertrude is an 18 month old child who is developing normally. Which of...

    Correct

    • Gertrude is an 18 month old child who is developing normally. Which of the following should she be able to do?

      Your Answer: Follow commands such as 'give me a doll please'

      Explanation:

      At the age of 18 months, Gertrude should be able to follow a one step command. At this age she would also be capable of putting words together in 1 or 2 word phrases, scribbling, throwing a ball, and building a tower of four cubes. At 2 she should be able to feed herself with a spoon or a fork, copy a vertical line, ride a tricycle, kick a ball and balance on one foot. Activities such as jumping will follow later on in her development at 3 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Neurofibromatosis is characterised by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Scoliosis

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis (aka Von Recklinghausen’s disease) includes: neurofibrosarcomas, pheochromocytoma, optic nerve tumours, scoliosis and acoustic neuromas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is a risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction?

      Your Answer: Maternal age under 18 years

      Correct Answer: Foetal echogenic bowel

      Explanation:

      Intrauterine growth restriction refers to the failure of the fetus to grow in accordance with the weeks of gestation. There are two types of growth restriction, symmetrical and asymmetrical. Causes include various genetic abnormalities, fetal infections, maternal health conditions, etc. Risk factors for the development of IUGR include fetal echogenic bowel, maternal age above 40 years, low PAPP-A levels, maternal smoking or cocaine use, etc. Fetal echogenic bowel implies a brighter than usual fetal intestines on ultrasonography. It is a marker associated with trisomy 21, which is a cause of IUGR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past year. According to the parents, he has episodes in the middle of the night where he sits up in bed, unresponsive, eyes wide open, arms outstretched, and thrashing. During these episodes, he usually looks frightened, will cry out, and then goes back to sleep again. The event lasts for 2–3 minutes and can occur up to three times a night. The following day, he is tired and falls asleep at school. What is the most appropriate next step to be taken for this patient?

      Your Answer: Obtain a multiple sleep latency test for narcolepsy

      Correct Answer: Request an EEG

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step would be to request for an EEG (electroencephalogram).The two primary differential diagnoses for the clinical scenario presented would be night terrors (hypnopompic hallucinations) due to underlying narcolepsy or frontal lobe epilepsy.Though occult airway obstruction and obstructive sleep apnoea can cause sleep disturbances, the clinical scenario presented is more suggestive of neurological disorders.The hyper-motor activity, along with arm posturing (often dystonic in appearance) and multiple occurrences per night would favour epilepsy. The daytime somnolence could be secondary to the nocturnal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 5 year old boy visited Ghana with his family and arrived back...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy visited Ghana with his family and arrived back home 6 weeks ago. 2 days ago he developed neck stiffness, a fever, and vomiting. He did not present with a rash and was treated with malaria prophylaxis. Choose the correct diagnosis from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Cerebral malaria

      Explanation:

      Due to malaria’s incubation period being between 7 and 30 days, malaria prophylaxis cannot provide a patient with confirmed protection. Prophylaxis treatment also often fails. The symptoms such as neck stiffness, fever, and vomiting are also consistent with the cerebral malaria diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?

      Your Answer: 50/60

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What post-birth event encourages closure of the ductus venosus in a new-born baby?...

    Correct

    • What post-birth event encourages closure of the ductus venosus in a new-born baby?

      Your Answer: Umbilical cord clamping and separation from mother

      Explanation:

      After birth, the infant takes its first breath and is exposed to a myriad of stimuli. The pulmonary vessels dilate, and pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) decreases remarkably while the systemic vascular pressure rises above the PVR. This allows blood from the right ventricle to enter the lungs for oxygenation. In most cases, this increased oxygenation, along with other factors, causes the ductal wall to constrict and the ductus arteriosus to close functionally. As left-sided pressures rise higher than right-sided pressures, the foramen ovale functionally closes. With the clamping of the umbilical cord and the cessation of blood flow, pressures in the portal sinus decrease. This causes the muscle in the sinus wall near the ductus venosus to contract. The lumen of the duct becomes filled with connective tissue, and, in two months, the ductus venosus becomes a fibrous strand embedded in the wall of the liver, thus establishing adult circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which...

    Correct

    • A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?

      Your Answer: Perineum

      Explanation:

      Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      31.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (1/4) 25%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (2/2) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/1) 0%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Child Development (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Epidemiology And Statistics (0/1) 0%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Passmed