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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below:
- Right atrium 7 mmHg; Saturation 60 %
- Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
- Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
- Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg; Saturation 98 %
- Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 87 %
- Aorta 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 76 %
Your Answer: Over-riding aorta
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Explanation:Key Observations:
- Cyanosis and Low Oxygen Saturation:
- Central cyanosis indicates mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
- The aortic oxygen saturation is low (76%), indicating a significant amount of deoxygenated blood entering systemic circulation.
- Pressure Analysis:
- The right ventricle pressure is significantly elevated (110/6 mmHg), suggesting an obstructive lesion like pulmonary stenosis or an increased volume load due to a shunt.
- The pulmonary artery pressure is low (20/5 mmHg) despite the high right ventricular pressure, suggesting an obstruction to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, consistent with pulmonary stenosis.
- Oxygen Saturation Analysis:
- There is a notable drop in oxygen saturation from the left ventricle (87%) to the aorta (76%), indicating a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation, suggestive of a right-to-left shunt.
Differential Diagnosis:
- Pulmonary Stenosis:
- Supported by elevated right ventricular pressure and low pulmonary artery pressure.
- Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):
- Would typically cause left-to-right shunting, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and higher oxygen saturation in the right ventricle and pulmonary artery, which is not observed here.
- Over-riding Aorta:
- Seen in conditions like Tetralogy of Fallot where the aorta receives blood from both the right and left ventricles, leading to mixed oxygen saturation.
- Right-to-Left Shunt:
- The data indicates a right-to-left shunt, with low oxygen saturation in the aorta, suggesting that deoxygenated blood is bypassing the lungs and entering systemic circulation.
- Aortic Stenosis:
- Typically presents with high left ventricular pressure and a pressure gradient between the left ventricle and the aorta, which is not observed here.
Conclusion:
Given the data, the most likely abnormalities present in this patient are Pulmonary Stenosis, Right-to-Left Shunt, and Over-riding Aorta. These findings are consistent with a condition like Tetralogy of Fallot, where all these features are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer: Tall T waves
Explanation:On electrocardiography (ECG), characteristic changes in patients with hypercalcemia include:Tall T wavesReduced QTProlonged and depressed STArrhythmiaOther electrolyte disturbances:Hypokalaemia:Flat T wavesST depressionU waveAtrial and ventricular ectopicsVF and VTHyperkalaemia:Tall T wavesST- changesReduced QT intervalIncreased PR intervalSmaller or absent P wavesWidened QRS, broadening to VFHypocalcaemia:Prolonged QTProlonged STFlat or absent T wavesU waves
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?
Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction
Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia
Explanation:Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Correct
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All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome
Explanation:Cyanotic congenital heart disease (CCHD) is a common cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. They can be classified as CCHD due to:- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased pulmonary flow, e.g., tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), pulmonary atresia, right-sided hypoplastic heart,- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased aortic flow, e.g., left-sided hypoplastic heart, interrupted arch, severe coarctation| – Bidirectional shunt, e.g., TGA, DORV, TA, etc. Eisenmenger syndrome is not a neonatal CCHD| rather it develops later in young adulthood secondary to various CHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the given features is correct regarding coarctation of aorta?
Your Answer: 70% of patients have bicuspid aortic valves
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases Occurring in about 1 in 2,500 births. It is characterized by a congenitally narrowed proximal thoracic aorta. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve in 70% of the cases and berry aneurysms in 10% of the cases. Coarctation of the aorta is commonly found in association with Turner’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, and Patau syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Correct
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A 13-year-old male with epilepsy presents to the emergency department. On examination, he is found to have a prominent carotid pulse but a feeble femoral pulse. He was also found to be hypertensive with blood pressure in his upper limbs found to be 40 mmHg more than that of the lower limbs.Auscultation reveals an ejection-systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge and the left interscapular area and an audible ejection click at the apex.An ECG reveals features suggestive of mild left ventricular hypertrophy and a chest X-ray reveals mild cardiomegaly with notches on the lower surface of the 3rd, 4th and 5th ribs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the clinical scenario provided is coarctation of the aorta. It contributes to about 4% of all congenital heart disease and is more prominent in males than females.It is associated with trisomy 13 and 18, Turner syndrome, valproate toxicity as well as ventricular septal defects, persistent ductus arteriosus, mitral valve abnormalities and berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis. Other associated cardiac abnormalities include a bicuspid aortic valve (50%), mitral valve disease, aortic regurgitation (20%) and subaortic stenosis. Ninety-eight per cent of coarctations occur at the level of the pulmonary artery after the subclavian artery. It is for this reason that, on observation, the proximal blood pressure varies compared with the distal blood pressure. The blood pressure in the right arm is often higher than that in the left arm. Clinically, these children present with hypertension, prominent carotid pulses, radio-femoral delay, left ventricular hypertrophy and an ejection systolic murmur maximum over the posterior left interscapular area. An apical click over the aortic valve may be heard. Coarctation of the aorta may be simple (post-ductal), or complex (pre-ductal or with a septal defect), and may be associated with aortic stenosis, transposition of the great arteries or a bicuspid aortic valve. The ECG and chest radiograph may be normal. However, as the child enters the first decade, evidence of cardiomegaly, congestive heart failure, post-stenotic dilatation with a dilated subclavian artery and rib notching may be noticed. The ECG may show right ventricular hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy in infancy and right axis deviation. Complications of coarctation of the aorta include left ventricular failure, cerebral haemorrhage, aortic dissection, renal vascular stenosis and infective endocarditis. This condition may result in death due to an aortic aneurysm or rupture in the third or fourth decade of life. It may also cause premature ischaemic heart disease as a result of hypertension. If left untreated, 20% of individuals die before 20 years of age and 80% before 50 years of age. Treatment options include surgical balloon dilatation or the grafting of a subclavian flap, and should surgical correction not normalise the blood pressure, further medical management is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?
Your Answer: Romano-Ward syndrome
Correct Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome
Explanation:Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Correct
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A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of persistent palpitations. The ECG shows a regular rhythm with a rate of 200 beats/min and QRS duration of 80ms. The tachycardia spontaneously resolves and presents in sinus rhythm. The PR interval is 60 ms and QRS duration is 120 ms, there is a positive delta wave in V1. Regarding the boy's tachycardia, which of the following statements holds true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil is contraindicated
Explanation:Although WPW syndrome is a type of supraventricular re-entrant tachycardia, CCBs are contraindicated in its management. This is because CCBs depress AVN conduction| the current then passes through the accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) instead, causing ventricular tachycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The clinical findings in infective endocarditis do NOT include which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beau's lines
Explanation:Infective endocarditis (IE) is an acute infective pathology of the endocardium secondary to some underlying cardiac pathology like VSD and TOF. Most commonly, it is bacterial in origin, caused by staphylococcus aureus in the majority of cases. Clinical features include fever, arthralgias, weight loss, anorexia, new-onset, or changing existing murmur. Skin manifestations include Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, splinter haemorrhages, and clubbing. Roth spots are conjunctival haemorrhages found in IE. Beau’s lines are not found in IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after birth. Which of the following heart conditions might the baby have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a common congenital heart lesion that presents with severe cyanosis that is likely to appear in the first day of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Explanation:Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad| patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with erythema of the palms and soles and maculopapular rash. His eyes and tongue were red. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki Disease
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is an acute febrile illness of early childhood characterized by vasculitis of the medium-sized arteries. Diagnostic criteria include fever of at least 5 days duration along with 4 or 5 of the principal clinical features – extremity changes, polymorphous rash, oropharyngeal changes, conjunctival injection and unilateral nonpurulent cervical lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A child is admitted due to potassium supplement overdose. What of the following do you expect to see?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High voltage T waves in the electrocardiogram
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia presents with high voltage (peaked) T waves on ECG. Other features on ECG include smaller p-waves and wider QRS complexes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 8 year old girl with suspected patent foramen ovale, presented with her parents for the confirmation of the diagnosis. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transoesophageal Echocardiography
Explanation:A 3-dimensional transoesophageal echocardiography (3D TEE) provides direct visualization of the entire PFO anatomy and surrounding structures. It allows more accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke criteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 major criteria and 3 minor criteria
Explanation:Infective endocarditis (IE) is caused by a bacterial, or fungal infection which damages the heart’s endothelium and can thus lead to changes in heart function, valve incompetencies, possible cardiac failure, as well other associated skin and organ changes. Organisms common in IE include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridians. The HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, and Kingella species) are common in neonates. The Duke criteria uses 2 major, or 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria to diagnose infective endocarditis. Major criteria include:- a positive blood culture and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include: – evidence of predisposition (a heart condition of injection drug use)- a fever- vascular phenomena such as Janeway lesions- immunologic phenomena such as Osler’s nodes and Roth’s spots| and- microbiological or serological evidence of active infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost a month. Physical examination revealed a heart murmur, which however was not present at discharge. What is the most probable cause of this murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PDA
Explanation:PDA is particularly common in premature babies and it is managed by indomethacin administration. However, if PDA is not the only defect, prostaglandin E1 can be administered in order to keep the ductus open until the surgery takes place.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old has a right sided aortic arch which is visible on the echocardiography. Which of the following condition most likely predisposes to this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Several types of right-sided aortic arch exist, the most common ones being right-sided aortic arch with aberrant left subclavian artery and the mirror-image type. The variant with aberrant left subclavian artery is associated with congenital heart disease in only a small minority of affected people. The mirror-image type of right aortic arch is very strongly associated with congenital heart disease, in most cases tetralogy of Fallot. A right-sided aortic arch does not cause symptoms on itself, and the overwhelming majority of people with the right-sided arch have no other symptoms. However when it is accompanied by other vascular abnormalities, it may form a vascular ring, causing symptoms due to compression of the trachea and/or oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space indicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ASD with pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PH) is noted in 9 to 35 % of patient with a secundum type ASD. The haemodynamic definition of PH is a mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) of ≥25 mmHg at rest by means of right heart catheterization. In ASD, The findings on physical examination depend on the degree of left-to-right shunt and its hemodynamic consequences, which, in turn, depends on the size of the defect, the diastolic properties of both ventricles, and the relative resistance of the pulmonary and systemic circulations.Blood flow across the atrial septal defect (ASD) does not cause a murmur at the site of the shunt because no substantial pressure gradient exists between the atria. However, ASD with moderate-to-large left-to-right shunts results in increased right ventricular stroke volume across the pulmonary outflow tract creating a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. This murmur is heard in the second intercostal space at the upper left sternal border.Patients with large left-to-right shunts often have a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border because of increased flow across the tricuspid valve.ASD is an acyanotic lesion. Thus, the patient should be normally saturated. In the rare case of severe pulmonary arterial hypertension, atrial shunt reversal (Eisenmenger syndrome) may occur, leading to cyanosis and clubbing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Short diamond shaped diastolic murmur after the third heart sound
Explanation:Auscultatory findings of VSD vary with the size of the defect. Small VSDs typically produce murmurs ranging from a grade 1 to 2/6 high-pitched, short systolic murmur (due to tiny defects that actually close during late systole) to a grade 3 to 4/6 holosystolic murmur (with or without thrill) at the lower left sternal border| this murmur is usually audible within the first few days of life (see table Heart Murmur Intensity). The precordium is not hyperactive, and the 2nd heart sound (S2) is normally split and has normal intensity.Moderate to large VSDs produce a holosystolic murmur that is present by age 2 to 3 wk| S2 is usually narrowly split with an accentuated pulmonary component. An apical diastolic rumble (due to increased flow through the mitral valve) and findings of heart failure (e.g., tachypnoea, dyspnoea with feeding, failure to thrive, gallop, crackles, hepatomegaly) may be present. In moderate, high-flow VSDs, the murmur is often very loud and accompanied by a thrill (grade 4 or 5 murmur). With large defects allowing equalization of left ventricular and right ventricular pressures, the systolic murmur is often attenuated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy has a history of fever for one week (39C), with no other symptoms leading up to the fever. He recently had a surgical extraction of one of his incisors two weeks before consultation. On examination of CVS, a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur is heard. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infection
Explanation:Tooth extraction or any surgical procedure may introduce bacteria into the blood stream. The most commonly involved organisms include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridans. Once in the blood, these organisms have a very high tendency of attaching to the walls of the heart and causing inflammation known as endocarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation profile is normal. His CBC: Hb 11.8 TLC 7.2*10^9 Plt 286*10^9. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)
Explanation:The best answer is Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP). This patient has a characteristic rash and the labs are consistent with this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 17-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother with complaints of poor feeding and tachypnoea a week after experiencing a coryzal illness. His cardiac examination is unremarkable apart from a third heart sound being present. His chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly and bilateral interstitial shadowing. Blood investigations, renal function, and anti-streptolysin O test (ASCOT) are all within normal limits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coxsackie myocarditis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis based on the clinical presentation is myocarditis secondary to Coxsackie virus infection.Myocarditis is an important cause of acquired heart failure. The other infective causes of myocarditis are influenza and adenoviruses, and bacterial causes as seen with Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease). Rheumatic fever is unlikely if the ASO titres are within normal limits. While pancarditis may occur as part of Kawasaki disease| the patient is unlikely to present in failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not associated with DiGeorge syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal IQ
Explanation:DiGeorge syndrome is one of the most common microdeletion syndromes, resulting from 22q11 deletion. 10% of the cases can be inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, while 90% are sporadic. The syndrome is characterized by a deficiency of both T and B-cell lines along with hearing loss, 20-fold increased lifetime chances of developing schizophrenia, renal abnormalities, congenital heart defects, and a borderline or low IQ. Distinctive facial features include micrognathia, long face, short philtrum, cleft palate, and small teeth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splinter haemorrhages
Explanation:Infective endocarditis (IE) is defined as an infection of the endocardial surface of the heart.Fever, possibly low-grade and intermittent, is present in 90% of patients with IE. Heart murmurs are heard in approximately 85% of patients.One or more classic signs of IE are found in as many as 50% of patients. They include the following:- Petechiae: Common, but nonspecific, finding- Subungual (splinter) haemorrhages: Dark-red, linear lesions in the nail beds -Osler nodes: Tender subcutaneous nodules usually found on the distal pads of the digits- Janeway lesions: Nontender maculae on the palms and soles- Roth spots: Retinal haemorrhages with small, clear centres| rareSigns of neurologic disease, which occur in as many as 40% of patients, include the following:- Embolic stroke with focal neurologic deficits: The most common neurologic sign- Intracerebral haemorrhage- Multiple microabscessesOther signs of IE include the following:- Splenomegaly- Stiff neck- Delirium- Paralysis, hemiparesis, aphasia- Conjunctival haemorrhage- Pallor- Gallops- Rales- Cardiac arrhythmia- Pericardial rub- Pleural friction rub
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A new-born infant deteriorates on the postnatal ward. The child is breathless with no murmurs, 3 cm liver edge, and poor femoral pulses. She is acidotic with elevated lactate. Mum did not attend the antenatal screening. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta may be defined as a constricted aortic segment that comprises localized medial thickening, with some infolding of the medial and superimposed neointimal tissue.The presence of associated defects and aortic arch anomalies, the extent of patency of the ductus arteriosus, the rapidity of the process of closure of the ductus arteriosus, and the level of pulmonary vascular resistance determine the timing of clinical presentation and the severity of symptoms. Young patients may present in the first few weeks of life with poor feeding, tachypnoea, and lethargy and progress to overt CHF and shock. These patients may have appeared well before hospital discharge, and deterioration coincides with closure of the patent ductus arteriosus. Presentation may be abrupt and acute with ductal closure.Neonates may be found to have tachypnoea, tachycardia, and increased work of breathing and may even be moribund with shock. Keys to the diagnosis include blood pressure (BP) discrepancies between the upper and lower extremities and reduced or absent lower extremity pulses to palpation. However, when the infant is in severe heart failure, all pulses are diminished.The murmur associated with coarctation of the aorta may be nonspecific yet is usually a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area and under the left scapula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A new-born baby is found to have a loud heart murmur but is otherwise well 6-hour baby after birth.Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Tetralogy of Fallot usually is diagnosed after a baby is born, often after the infant has an episode of turning blue during crying or feeding (a tet spell). A loud heart murmur is usually present.An atrial septal defect is present at birth, but many babies do not have any signs or symptoms.Coarctation of the aorta is usually diagnosed after the baby is born. How early in life the defect is diagnosed usually depends on how mild or severe the symptoms are. New-born screening using pulse oximetry during the first few days of life may or may not detect coarctation of the aorta.In babies with a more serious condition, early signs usually include:pale skinirritabilityheavy sweatingdifficulty breathingBabies born with pulmonary atresia will show symptoms at birth or very soon afterwards. They may be cyanotic. However, it is not uncommon for a heart murmur to be absent right at birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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