00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe...

    Correct

    • A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rh incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of easy fatiguability and severe headaches. She...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of easy fatiguability and severe headaches. She also complains of irregular and sporadic periods. During the examination, you notice behavioural traits that suggest a deterioration in peripheral vision. An eye exam confirms bitemporal hemianopia. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain reveals a large non-functional pituitary tumour. Which structure does the tumour exert pressure on to cause her visual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      Bitemporal hemianopia is a characteristic finding seen in patients with optic chiasm lesion.The pituitary gland is situated within the pituitary fossa. Just above the pituitary fossa is the optic chiasm and so any expanding masses from the pituitary gland commonly press on it, causing bitemporal hemianopia.Other options:- Compression of the optic nerve would not cause more severe, generalised visual loss. Also, the optic nerve is not anatomically related to the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour.- The optic tract is again not closely anatomically related with the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour. Also, damage to the optic tract on one side would cause homonymous hemianopia.- The lateral geniculate nucleus is a centre of cells in the thalamus and is unlikely to be compressed by a pituitary tumour. Its function is to convey sensory information from the optic tract to more central parts of the visual pathway.- The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is located at the level of the superior colliculus in the midbrain and so may not be compressed by an enlarging pituitary tumour.Other visual defects:- Left homonymous hemianopia: It is the visual field defect to the left, due to the lesion of the right optic tract.- Homonymous quadrantanopias are seen in parietal (inferior homonymous quadrantopia) and temporal lobe lesions (superior homonymous quadrantopia). Mnemonic: PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, and conversely, an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.Incongruous defects suggest an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest optic radiation or occipital cortex lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?...

    Incorrect

    • Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?

      Your Answer: Fixed splitting of S2

      Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot...

    Correct

    • An 18-month-old girl already speaks ten words but her father says she cannot form a sentence. What is the best management strategy?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      Not being able to form a sentence at the age of 18 months is quite normal. A combination of two words to form a sentence can be done by 2 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome presents with oedema, low serum albumin and proteinuria. In which of the following circumstances is albumin infusion indicated?

      Your Answer: Serum albumin 10 g/l

      Correct Answer: Capillary refill time of 5 seconds

      Explanation:

      In nephrotic syndrome, one of the main pathological processes is the excretion of protein by the kidneys. The resultant signs including| low serum albumin, oedema and hypovolemia all occur as a result of fluid escaping into the extracellular space due to a low oncotic pressure. While an albumin infusion may help to increase oncotic pressure, its indications specifically include hypovolemia, which is assessed by a capillary refill time more than 5 seconds, an elevated haematocrit, or severe symptomatic oedema, such as scrotal oedema. Hypertension not an indication for an infusion, and most patients needing an albumin infusion have oliguria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl is diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus. She has three regular meals daily. Which of the following is the insulin regimen of choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Basal–bolus regimen

      Explanation:

      In older children who are able to have regular meal timings, the insulin regimen of choice is the basal-bolus regimen, which comprises a dose of long-acting insulin in combination with three doses of short-acting insulin. The dosage timings coincide with the meal times, ensuring greater flexibility and feasibility. The long-acting insulin serves to provide a stable glycaemic control. The other given regimens are suitable for younger children with a more irregular meal schedule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?

      Your Answer: Shoulder dystocia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies with respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      A preterm with respiratory distress syndrome presents with the condition as a result of immature lungs and inadequate surfactant production. Management of RDS therefore includes surfactant therapy, oxygen administration and mechanical ventilation, as well as measures such maintaining acid base levels and blood haemoglobin in an intensive care unit. Dexamethasone is not shown to be particularly effective when given to a preterm, but can however be used to prevent or decrease RDS severity when given to the mother before delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child has growth and pubertal delay. His father also had a similar pattern of growth and is as short as a teenager. Currently, he is on the 2nd centile for height, with delayed adrenarche and gonadarche. in order to confirm the most likely diagnosis, which of the following investigations would be the most useful?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Correct Answer: Wrist X-ray for bone age

      Explanation:

      A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child’s skeletal system. It’s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. The bones on the X-ray image are compared with X-rays images in a standard atlas of bone development, which is based on data from large numbers of other kids of the same gender and age. The bone age is measured in years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 15-month-old child is due for his measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccines....

    Correct

    • A 15-month-old child is due for his measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccines. He is feverish due to an acute otitis media and the mother gives a family history of egg allergy. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Defer immunization for two weeks

      Explanation:

      Vaccines should not be given to a feverish child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck...

    Incorrect

    • A nuchal translucency measurement is taken from the nape of the foetus' neck to screen for Down's syndrome.Which of these is the embryological origin of this tissue?

      Your Answer: Endoderm

      Correct Answer: Ectoderm

      Explanation:

      The origins of the neural tube and the nape of the neck where nuchal translucency measurements are taken are from embryonic ectoderm.The structural development of the head and neck occurs between the third and eighth weeks of gestation. The 5 pairs of branchial arches, corresponding to the primitive vertebrae gill bars, that form on either side of the pharyngeal foregut on day 22 are the embryologic basis of all the differentiated structures of the head and neck. Each arch consists of 3 layers: an outer covering of ectoderm, an inner covering of endoderm, and a middle core of mesenchyme. These arches are separated further into external, ectoderm-lined pharyngeal clefts and internal, endoderm-lined pharyngeal pouchesA population of ectodermal cells adjacent to the neural fold and not included in the overlying surface (somatic) ectoderm gives rise to the formation of the neural crest. These neuroectodermal crest cells are believed to migrate widely throughout the developing embryo in a relatively cell-free enriched extracellular matrix and differentiate into a wide array of cell and tissue types, influenced by the local environment. Most connective and skeletal tissues of the cranium and face ultimately come from the derivatives of neural crest cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.Note:Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.- Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve- Lingual nerve- Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection. The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A severe asthma exacerbation according to the British Thoracic Society suggests an oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • A severe asthma exacerbation according to the British Thoracic Society suggests an oxygen saturation that is less than:

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 0.92

      Explanation:

      In an acute and severe asthma attack the child cannot complete sentences in one breath because they are too breathless. The O2 saturation is less than 92% and PEF is between 33-50% best or predicted. In children that are 2-5 years old, HR is more than 140 bpm and more than 125 bpm in those older than 5 years old. The RR in children between 2-5 years old is more than 40/min, and more than 30/min in those older than 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In the treatment of infants with gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is...

    Correct

    • In the treatment of infants with gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is the most accurate one?

      Your Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally

      Explanation:

      The main problem with infants having gastroenteritis is dehydration. So they should be admitted to the hospital for IV fluids if they are not tolerating oral fluids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A short 17-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has pulmonary stenosis.What is the most...

    Correct

    • A short 17-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea has pulmonary stenosis.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Noonan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Noonan syndrome is a condition that affects many areas of the body. It is characterized by mildly unusual facial features, short stature, heart defects, bleeding problems, skeletal malformations, and many other signs and symptoms.People with Noonan syndrome have distinctive facial features such as a deep groove in the area between the nose and mouth (philtrum), widely spaced eyes that are usually pale blue or blue-green in colour, and low-set ears that are rotated backwards. Affected individuals may have a high-arched palate, poor teeth alignment, and micrognathia. Many children with Noonan syndrome have a short neck, and both children and adults may have excess neck skin (also called webbing) and a low hairline at the back of the neck.Between 50 and 70 % of individuals with Noonan syndrome have short stature. At birth, they are usually a normal length and weight, but growth slows over time. Individuals with Noonan syndrome often have either a pectus excavatum or pectus carinatum. Some affected people may also have scoliosis.Most people with Noonan syndrome have some form of critical congenital heart disease. The most common heart defect in these individuals is pulmonary valve stenosis. Some have hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.A variety of bleeding disorders have been associated with Noonan syndrome. Some affected individuals have excessive bruising, nosebleeds, or prolonged bleeding following injury or surgery. Rarely, women with Noonan syndrome who have a bleeding disorder have excessive bleeding during menstruation (menorrhagia) or childbirth.Adolescent males with Noonan syndrome typically experience delayed puberty. They go through puberty starting at age 13 or 14 and have a reduced pubertal growth spurt that results in shortened stature. Most males with Noonan syndrome have undescended testes (cryptorchidism), which may contribute to infertility (inability to father a child) later in life. Females with Noonan syndrome can experience delayed puberty but most have normal puberty and fertility.Most children diagnosed with Noonan syndrome have normal intelligence, but a few have special educational needs, and some have an intellectual disability. Some affected individuals have vision or hearing problems. It has been estimated that children with Noonan syndrome have an eightfold increased risk of developing leukaemia or other cancers over age-matched peers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Combined pill

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?

      Your Answer: L2

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which among the following nerves carries the sensation from the tonsillar fossa?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is the primary sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The lesser palatine nerve makes a smaller contribution. Because of this, otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.Anatomical Rationale:Each palatine tonsil has two surfaces, a medial surface which projects into the pharynx and a lateral surface that is embedded in the wall of the pharynx.The primary arterial supply is from the tonsillar artery, a branch of the facial artery. Its veins pierce the constrictor muscle to join the external palatine or facial veins. The external palatine vein is immediately lateral to the tonsil, which may result in bleeding during a tonsillectomy.Lymphatic drainage is the jugulodigastric node and the deep cervical nodes.TonsillitisThe inflammation of tonsils is usually due to bacterial aetiology (50%) – group A Streptococcus, the remainder of the causes are viral.May be complicated by the development of an abscess (quinsy), which may distort the uvula.Indications for tonsillectomy include recurrent acute tonsillitis, and enlargement causing sleep apnoea.Dissection tonsillectomy is the preferred technique with haemorrhage being the most frequent complication. Delayed otalgia may occur owing to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - When sampling patients for a clinical trial the most important thing is that:...

    Correct

    • When sampling patients for a clinical trial the most important thing is that:

      Your Answer: They are a random and representative sample

      Explanation:

      The selection process is based on five requirements and essentially aims to select a random representative cohort through:1.Isolating a group for which there is a greater or lesser chance of detecting a possible difference between the treatments compared|2.Establishing a homogeneous group in order to reduce the variability of response, thus making statistical comparison more sensitive and decreasing the risk of bias due to the constitution of non-homogeneous groups|3.Obtaining representative samples of the affection studied|4.Defining the rules corresponding to realistic recruitment|5.Respecting ethical obligations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following conditions is due to a deletion of chromosome 15q...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is due to a deletion of chromosome 15q inherited from the father?

      Your Answer: Prader-Willi

      Explanation:

      Most cases of Prader-Willi syndrome are not inherited, particularly those caused by a deletion in the paternal chromosome 15 or by maternal uniparental disomy. These genetic changes occur as random events during the formation of reproductive cells (eggs and sperm) or in early embryonic development. Affected people typically have no history of the disorder in their family.Rarely, a genetic change responsible for Prader-Willi syndrome can be inherited. For example, it is possible for a genetic change that abnormally inactivates genes on the paternal chromosome 15 to be passed from one generation to the next.Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic condition that affects many parts of the body. In infancy, this condition is characterized by weak muscle tone (hypotonia), feeding difficulties, poor growth, and delayed development. Beginning in childhood, affected individuals develop an insatiable appetite, which leads to chronic overeating (hyperphagia) and obesity. Some people with Prader-Willi syndrome, particularly those with obesity, also develop type 2 diabetes (the most common form of diabetes).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground. His friends noted that he lost consciousness for a few seconds. The school nurse sent him to the Emergency Department as he had a small nasal bleed that stopped spontaneously. In the intervening two hours, he has noticed a watery discharge from his nose. On examination, there is considerable bruising on his nose and forehead, he was complaining of a headache. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ethmoid bone fracture

      Correct Answer: Basilar skull fracture

      Explanation:

      Orbital bone fracture: The child has sustained a head injury and subsequently describes a CSF rhinorrhoea (indicating a cerebro-spinal fluid leak). CSF rhinorrhoea can occur in skull or nasal bone fractures. Given the symptoms of loss of consciousness and headache, this child is more at risk of having suffered a skull fracture requiring emergency CT head investigation and specialist neurosurgical management. An ethmoid bone fracture may also present this way. A skull x ray would help to determine an air fluid level and indeed allow some visualisation of the nasal bones, though in children the nasal bones do not visualise well due to lack of fusion. Either way this child would need assessment in the nearest Emergency Department and the school would be expected to follow a ‘head injury’ protocol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to between her scapulae. A radio-femoral delay was also found. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Noonan's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      These cardiovascular findings are suggestive of coarctation of the aorta, which is common among patients with Turner’s syndrome. Physical features of Turner’s syndrome include a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the head, low-set ears, and narrow fingernails and toenails that are turned upward.Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common cardiac anomaly in Down’s syndrome. Structural heart defects at birth (i.e., ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus) are common in Edward’s syndrome. Pulmonary stenosis with or without dysplastic pulmonary valve and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are common in Noonan’s syndrome. Supravalvar aortic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary stenosis are found in William’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to void a full volume bladder. An ultrasound scan shows bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Overactive bladder

      Correct Answer: Duplex kidney with ectopic ureter

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be a duplex kidney with an ectopic ureter inserting below the bladder neck. Rationale: The Weigert-Myer law states that the upper moiety ureter inserts inferior and medial to the lower moiety ureter. Other options:- Horseshoe kidney would display as a single pelvic kidney on an ultrasound scan.- Ureterocele would be a cystic lesion within the bladder or may prolapse at birth. – Continence should not be affected by polycystic kidney disease. – The overactive bladder would cause frequency and urgency, neither of which is mentioned in the history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding primitive reflexes in a 12-month-old infant?

      Your Answer: The Moro reflex is absent

      Explanation:

      Primitive reflexes are central nervous system responses, many of which disappear as a child matures. Retention of these reflexes may point to atypical neurology such as in cerebral palsy or stroke. However, some persist into adulthood. The stepping reflex is present from birth and normally disappears by 6 weeks, while the moro reflex is present from birth to about 4 months. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex disappears by about 6 months. Reflexes that persist include the head righting reflex which develops at 6 months, and the parachute reflex which develops at 9 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells?

      Your Answer: Astrocyte

      Correct Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      The central nervous system comprises of two types of cells| neurons and neuroglial cells. Glial cells are the support cells that serve a number of important functions. Three types of neuroglia comprise the mature nervous system, which are ependymal cells, microglia, and macroglia. The macroglia are of two types oligodendrocytes and astrocytes. Microglia are the neuroglial cells that serve the function of phagocytosis since they are derived from the hematopoietic stem cells and share properties with tissue macrophages. They remove the cellular debris from the site of injury or normal cellular turnover by performing scavenger function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the...

    Incorrect

    • A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly rash that is more profound on the extensor surfaces of his arms and legs. It is also found on his trunk. However, the flexor surfaces, face and neck are spared. It has been present for 4 months. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Ichthyosis vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Ichthyosis vulgaris presents clinically with xerosis, hyperkeratosis, excess scaling, keratosis pilaris, and palmar and plantar hyperlinearity. It most commonly affects the extensor surfaces of the limbs and spares flexor surfaces, the face, and the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In one of the following situations a child should be investigated further if...

    Incorrect

    • In one of the following situations a child should be investigated further if they aren't:

      Your Answer: Dry at night by 3 years of age

      Correct Answer: Saying single words with meaning by 18 months

      Explanation:

      If a child is not saying single words with meaning by 18 months it suggests that he or she is not following normal developmental milestones and further investigation is needed. Children are usually expected to be dry by day at the age of 3 years and dry by night at the age of 4 years, however 10% of 5 year old children and 5% of 10 year old children still wet the bed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: >90%

      Explanation:

      90% of patients with meconium ileus have cystic fibrosis (CF). Indeed, in 10 – 15% of cases of CF, the patient presents with meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Child Development (2/3) 67%
Nephro-urology (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Neonatology (2/3) 67%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/4) 25%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/2) 0%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Passmed