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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man presents to the doctor complaining of pain in his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the doctor complaining of pain in his left calf whilst walking. He says that the pain goes away after a short period of rest but starts again during exercise or walking. The man reveals he has been a smoker for the last 15 years. His blood pressure, blood sugar and cholesterol level are normal. Artery biopsy shows intraluminal thrombosis and vasculitis. What's is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Severe atherosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Buerger's disease

      Explanation:

      Thromboangiitis obliterans, also known as Buerger’s disease, is a rare type of occlusive peripheral arterial disease, usually seen in smokers, most commonly in men aged 20 to 40. Symptoms most often include intermittent claudication, skin changes, painful ulcers on extremities, pain in the extremities during rest and gangrene. Diagnosis is based on clinical findings, arteriography, echocardiography, and computed tomography angiography. A difference in blood pressure between arms, or between the arms and legs is a common finding. Electrocardiographic findings include nonspecific abnormality or normal results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Calculate the cardiac output in an adult male with the following parameters:

    Heart...

    Correct

    • Calculate the cardiac output in an adult male with the following parameters:

      Heart rate 70 beats/min

      Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min

      Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi

      Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min

      Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg

      Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg

      Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.

      Your Answer: 6.25 l/min

      Explanation:

      As per Fick’s principle, VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24 – 0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus?

      Your Answer: The lateral cord continues as the axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: The posterior cord continues as the axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The lateral cord continues as the musculocutaeous nerve.

      The medial cord continues as the ulnar nerve.

      The posterior cord continues as the radial nerve and the axillary nerve.

      The nerve to subclavius muscle is a branch of the C6 root.

      The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the upper trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 44-year old gentleman presented to the hospital in congestive cardiac failure. On...

    Correct

    • A 44-year old gentleman presented to the hospital in congestive cardiac failure. On further investigation, he was found to have a right-sided retroperitoneal mass. On enquiry, he gave a history of intermittent hypertensive attacks. 24-hour urine specimen revealed raised metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid levels. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      A neuroendocrine tumour of the chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla, pheochromocytoma secretes excessive catecholamines – adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine). Pheochromocytomas are also known as the ‘10% tumour’. This is because 10% of them are bilateral, 10% are malignant, and 10% are extra-adrenal. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas (also known as extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas) are less common than pheochromocytomas and arise in the ganglia of sympathetic nervous system. Around 25% of pheochromocytomas are familial. Symptoms are described as feeling of ‘impending doom’, and include tachycardia, hypertension, palpitations, anxiety, headaches and pallor. Orthostatic hypertension is typically seen where there is a more than 100 mmHg fall in systolic pressure when the patient stands up. Pheochromocytomas can also lead to malignant hypertension. Diagnosis is by measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in blood or in 24-hour urine, after exclusion of other possible causes such as stress, hypoglycaemia and drugs (methyldopa, dopamine agonists, ganglion-blocking antihypertensive). Imaging is also needed to localize the tumour. Localization of the tumour can also be done by Iodine-131 meta-iodobenzylguanidine (I131-MIBG) imaging.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged thrombin clotting...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged thrombin clotting time?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII deficiency

      Correct Answer: Hypofibrinogenemia

      Explanation:

      Thrombin clotting time, also called thrombin time (TT), is test used for the investigation of possible bleeding or clotting disorders. TT reflects the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and it’s also very sensitive to the presence of the anticoagulant heparin. A prolonged thrombin time may indicate the presence of hypofibrinogenemia (decreased fibrinogen level ), dysfibrinogenaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), end stage liver disease or malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      37.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine: ...

    Correct

    • Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine:

      Your Answer: The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum

      Explanation:

      The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve where It ends in the large intestine. It is surrounded on the sides and above by the large intestine. It is related anteriorly with the greater omentum and abdominal wall. Is connected to the vertebral column by a fold of peritoneum or otherwise known as the mesentery. Is divided into three portions: the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The jejunum and ileum are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery that courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before it gives off intestinal branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following diuretics promotes diuresis by opposing the action of aldosterone?

      Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretic

      Explanation:

      The term potassium-sparing refers to an effect rather than a mechanism or location. Potassium-sparing diuretics act by either antagonising the action of aldosterone (spironolactone) or inhibiting Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubules (amiloride). This group of drugs is often used as adjunctive therapy, in combination with other drugs, for the management of chronic heart failure. Spironolactone, the first member of the class, is also used in the management of hyperaldosteronism (including Conn’s syndrome) and female hirsutism (due to additional antiandrogen actions).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit was found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit was found to have a low serum phosphate level. What is the serum level of phosphate which is considered as normal in adults?

      Your Answer: 2.5-5.5 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: 0.8–1.45 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      After calcium, phosphorus is the most plentiful mineral in the human body. It is an important and vital element which our body needs to complete many physiologic processes , such as filtering waste and repairing cells. Phosphorus helps with bone growth and approximately 85% of phosphate in the body is contained in bone. Phosphate is involved in energy storage, and nerve and muscle production. A normal range of plasma phosphate in adults teenagers generally from 0.8 mmol/l to 1.45 mmol/l. The normal range varies depending on age. Infants and children have higher phosphorus levels because more of this mineral is needed for their normal growth and bone development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation to India. She had no erythema or tenderness. Her skin colour returned to normal over a period of 1 month. Which of the these substances is related to the biochemical change mentioned above?

      Your Answer: Hemosiderin

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      The tanning process can occur due to UV light exposure as a result of oxidation of tyrosine to dihydrophenylalanine with the help of the tyrosinase enzyme within the melanocytes. Hemosiderin can impart a brown colour due to breakdown of RBC but its usually due to a trauma and is known as haemochromatosis.

      Lipofuscin gives a golden brown colour to the cell granules not the skin.

      Homogentisic acid is part of a rare disease alkaptonuria, with characteristic black pigment deposition within the connective tissue.

      Copper can impart a brown golden colour, but is not related to UV light exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: ADOC

      Correct Answer: FOLFOX

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy regimens are often identified by acronyms, identifying the agents used in the drug combination. However, the letters used are not consistent across regimens. FOLFOX is a chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer, made up of the following drugs: • FOL: fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil or 5-FU) • F: folinic acid (leucovorin) • OX: oxaliplatin (Eloxatin®).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the result of maltase deficiency in the brush border of the...

    Correct

    • What is the result of maltase deficiency in the brush border of the small intestine?

      Your Answer: Results in increased passage of maltose in stool

      Explanation:

      Maltase is an enzyme produced from the surface cells of the villi, lining the small intestine and aids in hydrolysing the disaccharide maltose, which splits into two molecules of α-glucose. It is done by breaking the glycosidic bond between the ‘first’ carbon of one glucose and the ‘fourth’ carbon of the other (a 1–4 bond). Hence, a deficiency of enzyme maltase will result in the increased passage of maltose in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Purkinje fibres in the heart conduct action potentials at the rate of: ...

    Correct

    • Purkinje fibres in the heart conduct action potentials at the rate of:

      Your Answer: 1.5–4.0 m/s

      Explanation:

      Purkinje fibres control the heart rate along with the sinoatrial node (SA node) and the atrioventricular node (AV node). The QRS complex is associated with the impulse passing through the Purkinje fibres. These fibres conduct action potential about six times faster than the velocity in normal cardiac muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of the following conditions is metabolic alkalosis caused by this mechanism ?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in the concentration of serum bicarbonate ions. This may occur as a consequence of a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain in bicarbonate. Hydrogen ions may be lost through the kidneys or the GI tract, as for example during vomiting, nasogastric suction or use of diuretics. Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions develops mainly during hypokalaemia to maintain neutrality. Gain in bicarbonate ions may develop during administration of sodium bicarbonate in high amounts or in amounts that exceed the capacity of excretion of the kidneys, as seen in renal failure. Fluid losses may be another cause of metabolic alkalosis, causing the reduction of extracellular fluid volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 49-year-old man, smoker, complains of a persisting and worsening cough over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man, smoker, complains of a persisting and worsening cough over the past few months. He also has noted blood in his sputum. The patient has no other major health conditions. Which of the following investigative procedures should be done first?

      Your Answer: Bronchoalveolar lavage

      Correct Answer: Sputum cytology

      Explanation:

      Sputum cytology is a diagnostic test used for the examination of sputum under a microscope to determine if abnormal cells are present. It may be used as the first diagnostic procedure to help detect a suspected lung cancer or certain non-cancerous lung conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      104.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Loperamide is a drug used to treat diarrhoea. What is the mechanism of...

    Incorrect

    • Loperamide is a drug used to treat diarrhoea. What is the mechanism of action of loperamide?

      Your Answer: Irreversibly inhibits H+/K+-ATPase

      Correct Answer: Opiate agonist

      Explanation:

      Loperamide is an opioid-receptor agonist and acts on the mu opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of large intestine. It works by decreasing the motility of the circular and longitudinal smooth muscles of the intestinal wall. It is often used for this purpose in gastroenteritis, inflammatory bowel disease, and short bowel syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A TRUE statement regarding abolition of the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is...

    Correct

    • A TRUE statement regarding abolition of the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is that it:

      Your Answer: Will result after vagotomy

      Explanation:

      Recognition and integration of the sight, smell and taste of food triggers the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion, causing an increase in pancreatic HCO3- and enzyme secretion. The degree of enzyme secretion in this phase is about 50% of the maximal response seen with exogenous CCK and secretin. The vagus nerve regulates the secretion through the cholinergic fibres innervating the acinar cells of the pancreas, and through peptidergic nerve fibres, which innervate ductal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of...

    Correct

    • The posterior cord contains nerve fibres from which of the following levels of the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1

      Explanation:

      THE correct answer is A. The posterior cord derives its fibres from the spinal nerves C5,C6,C7,C8,T1. This cord is formed from the fusion of the posterior divisions of the upper, lower, and middle trunks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?

      Your Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.

      Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:

      The motor and pre-motor areas

      The somato-sensory

      Auditory areas

      Motor speech

      Sensory speech

      Pre-frontal area

      Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:

      i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face

      ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      1910
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The fundus of the stomach receives blood supply from the same artery as...

    Correct

    • The fundus of the stomach receives blood supply from the same artery as the greater curvature of the stomach. Which of the following arteries when ligated will disrupt blood supply to the fundus of the stomach through this artery?

      Your Answer: Splenic

      Explanation:

      The fundus of the stomach along with the greater curvature of the stomach receive blood supply from the short gastric artery. The short gastric artery arises from the end of the splenic artery. The ligation of the splenic artery therefore would cause a disruption of blood supply to the fundus of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 60-year old woman who has a left sided post-pneumonic effusion, was to...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old woman who has a left sided post-pneumonic effusion, was to have some pleural fluid aspirated for culture and sensitivity. If the medical intern in charge of the procedure decided to aspirate while the patient is sitting up on her bed, where in the pleural cavity would the fluid tend to accumulate?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The lowest part of the pleural cavity is the costodiaphragmatic recess and it the space in which the pleural fluid will accumulate when the patient sits up.

      The cupola is part of the pleural cavity that extends into the root of the neck above the first rib.

      The costomediastinal recess is the junction at which the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura.

      The middle mediastinum is the part of the mediastinum that is occupied by the heart.

      The hilar reflection is the point where the mediastinal pleura is reflected to continue on as the visceral pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      161.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered...

    Correct

    • In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered that the victim had lost sense of touch to the skin over her cheek and chin (maxilla and mandible region). Where are the cell bodies of the nerve that is responsible for touch sensations of this region located?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve V ganglion

      Explanation:

      The skin over the cheek and the maxilla are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V). The trigeminal nerve has three major branches and it is the largest cranial nerve. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve are; the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve and the mandibular nerve. The trigeminal nerves ganglion is a sensory nerve ganglion know as the trigeminal ganglion (also referred to as the Gasser’s ganglion or the semilunar ganglion). It is contained in the dura matter in a cavity known as the Meckel’s cave, which covers the trigeminal impression near the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      750.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after...

    Correct

    • Which of these conditions causes haematuria, hypertension and proteinuria in children, usually after a streptococcal infection?

      Your Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephritic syndrome (or acute nephritic syndrome) is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephritis. Children between 2 and 12 are most commonly affected, but it may occur at any age. Predisposing factors/causes include:

      Infections with group A streptococcal bacteria (acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis).

      Primary renal diseases: immunoglobulin A nephropathy, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, idiopathic rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis.

      Secondary renal diseases: subacute bacterial endocarditis, infected ventriculo–peritoneal shunt, glomerulonephritis with visceral abscess, glomerulonephritis with bacterial, viral or parasitic infections.

      Multisystem diseases.

      By contrast, nephrotic syndrome is characterized by only proteins moving into the urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed with prostatic carcinoma that has metastasized to his lumber spine. Which of the following markers is characteristically elevated?

      Your Answer: PSA

      Explanation:

      Spread of prostatic carcinoma is common to the lumbar spine and pelvis. This results in osteoblastic metastases that will present as lower back pain with increased alkaline phosphatase, prostatic acid phosphates and PSA. PSA is more specific and a PSA > 10 ng/ml for any age is worrisome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Urology
      • Pathology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures? ...

    Correct

    • During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?

      Your Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:

      Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:

      Stapes,

      Temporal styloid process,

      Stylohyoid ligament, and

      Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.

      Muscles:

      Muscles of face

      Occipitofrontalis muscle

      Platysma

      Stylohyoid muscle

      Posterior belly of Digastric

      Stapedius muscle

      Auricular muscles

      Nerve supply: Facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant sign is a dark brown mole located on left his arm which has grown in size over the years and is itchy and painful. A MRI of the brain revealed a solitary lesion at the grey-white junction in the right frontal lobe, without ring enhancement. This lesion is most likely to be:

      Your Answer: A plaque of demyelination

      Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The location of the mass at the grey–white junction is typical of a metastasis. The most frequent types of metastatic brain tumours originate in the lung, skin, kidney, breast and colon. These tumour cells reach the brain via the bloodstream. This patient is likely to have skin cancer, which caused the metastatic brain tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      119.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - From which of the following cells is heparin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following cells is heparin produced?

      Your Answer: Endothelial cells

      Correct Answer: Mast cells

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a natural highly-sulphated glycosaminoglycan that has anticoagulant functions. It is produced by the body basophils and mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm...

    Correct

    • An abdominal aortogram of a 59 year-old female with an abdominal aortic aneurysm shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. The patient, however, does not complain of any symptoms. Occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery is rarely symptomatic because its territory is supplied by branches of the:

      Your Answer: Middle colic artery

      Explanation:

      The transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery which is a branch from the superior mesenteric artery. If the inferior mesenteric artery was occluded, branches from the middle colic may go to the marginal artery which supplies the descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum.. Ileocolic and right colic arteries also branch from the superior mesenteric artery that supply the colon but the middle colic, which serves the more distal part of the colon is the better answer. The gastroduodenal artery branches off the common hepatic artery, which supplies part of the duodenum, pancreas and stomach. The splenic artery supplies the spleen, pancreas and curvature of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration, and subsequent hypotension and tachycardia. Which part of the kidney will compensate for this loss?

      Your Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      The collecting duct system of the kidney consists of a series of tubules and ducts that physically connect nephrons to a minor calyx or directly to the renal pelvis. The collecting duct system is the last component of the kidney to influence the body’s electrolyte and fluid balance. In humans, the system accounts for 4–5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of sodium and 5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of water. At times of extreme dehydration, over 24% of the filtered water may be reabsorbed in the collecting duct system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of the following cells represent a permanent cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte

      Explanation:

      An erythrocyte is the last cell in the progeny of RBC cell division and is not capable of further division and regeneration. Hepatocytes, osteocytes and epithelium of kidney tubules are all stable cells. Colonic mucosa and pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells are all labile cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Pathology (3/13) 23%
Physiology (7/7) 100%
Anatomy (8/9) 89%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Abdomen (3/3) 100%
Renal (3/3) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/3) 33%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (2/2) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia; Urology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Passmed