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Question 1
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A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty. He lacks secondary sexual characteristics and has altered smell and reduced testicular size. Which of the following hormone profiles with regard to FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone) and testosterone would fit a diagnosis of Kallman syndrome for this patient?
Your Answer: Reduced testosterone, reduced FSH and reduced LH
Explanation:While the clinical scenario and the anosmic presentation of the child are highly suggestive of Kallmann’s syndrome, reduced testosterone, FSH and LH levels can confirm the diagnosis.Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.Clinical features of Kallmann’s syndrome include:- Delayed puberty- Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism- Anosmia- Low sex hormone levels – Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels- Some patients can present with associated cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?
Your Answer: Right frontal lobe
Explanation:The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 3
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents with moderate acne and pustules affecting the face, back and chest.What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: An oral tetracycline for three months
Explanation:When topical agents are insufficient or not tolerated, or in cases of moderate to severe acne, especially when the chest, back and shoulders are involved, systemic antibiotics are often considered the next line of treatmentSystemic antibiotics should not be used to treat mild acne because of the risk of increasing resistance. The additional use of nonantibiotic topical agents in combination with oral antibiotics should be considered. Topical retinoids with oral antibiotics may give a faster response and be more effective than either drug used alone.Treatment with tetracyclines and erythromycin reduces P. acnes within the follicles, thereby inhibiting the production of bacterial-induced inflammatory cytokines. These agents also have inherent anti-inflammatory effects, such as suppressing leukocyte chemotaxis and bacterial lipase activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl developed haemoptysis with acute kidney injury requiring dialysis. She suffered from recurrent epistaxis for the past 2 weeks. Renal biopsy showed crescentic glomerulonephritis. Which antibody would you expect to be positive?
Your Answer: Antiproteinase 3
Explanation:This patient has pulmonary renal syndrome which is most commonly due to an ANCA positive vasculitis. The history of recurrent epistaxis makes Wegener’s granulomatosis the most probable diagnosis. Wegener’s granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis, and idiopathic pauci-immune necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis (NCGN) are strongly associated with antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies (ANCAs) directed against either proteinase 3 (anti-PR3) or myeloperoxidase (anti-MPO).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 5
Correct
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Which of the following skills would a 1-year-old girl be able to demonstrate, assuming that her developmental growth is normal?
Your Answer: Understanding of object permanence
Explanation:Among the options provided, a 1-year-old child will be able to understand object permanence e.g. understands that objects continue to exist even when they can’t be seen, e.g. looking for a fallen toy.At the age of 1 year, children should have developed an accurate pincer grip and be able to see and co-ordinate and manipulate fairly small objects such as a raisin.Gross motor development varies, but the average 1-year-old should be able to stand and cruise around furniture or walk with their hands held but not necessarily walk unaided.Drinking from a cup will become established at around 15 months and scribbling at 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?
Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:MMR vaccine is a live vaccine. It contains measles, mumps and rubella. These vaccines should be avoided during chemotherapy and for 6 months after.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following are associated with port wine stains?
Your Answer: Vitiligo
Correct Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Port-wine stains are a type of vascular birthmark caused by the abnormal development of capillaries in the skin. These pinkish-purplish discolorations present at birth and are associated with medical conditions such as Sturge-Weber syndrome, a neurocutaneous disorder involving the leptomeninges. Port wine stains are therefore associated with epilepsy, glaucoma or intellectual disability common in Sturge-Weber syndrome. Additional complications of Port wine stains include a loss of function if near the eye or mouth due to hypertrophy, or glaucoma if near the eyelid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his mother who is concerned that she cannot feel his testis. On examination by the doctor, his testis are not palpable either in the scrotum or the inguinal region and cannot be seen on ultrasound either. Which of the following is the most appropriate next stage in management?
Your Answer: Laparoscopy
Explanation:Answer: LaparoscopyThe diagnostic accuracy of laparoscopy for impalpable testis is well recognized. Approximately 20% of undescended testes are truly impalpable, and laparoscopy is actually regarded as the gold standard for their localization| none of the currently available imaging techniques (ultrasound, computerized tomography, or magnetic resonance imaging) has proven to be 100% reliable in predicting the presence or absence of a testis.In this respect, not only can laparoscopy be considered the most reliable tool to provide information on the location of the testis but also to confirm its absence.Undescended testes in boys is a very common congenital abnormality in which one or both testes does not reach the bottom of the scrotum prior to birth. The incidence of the condition is 3–5% among all boys at birth, and decreases to 0.8–1% after 6 months of age.Males with undescended testes have a lower sperm count, poorer quality sperm, and lower fertility rate, compared to males whose testicles descend normally| the rate of subfertility increases with bilateral involvement and increasing age at the time of orchidopexy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 9
Correct
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A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Explanation:Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.
Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.
DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.
Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the gestational age by which the lung buds are formed?
Your Answer: Embryonic: 4-5 weeks gestation
Explanation:Lung buds are formed by 4-5 weeks of gestation.Development of the respiratory tract has five stages:- Embryonic (at 4 – 5 weeks of gestation):Formation of lung buds, trachea and mainstem bronchi occur. These structures are formed from a ventral outpouching of foregut pharynx. At this stage, the beginnings of the five lung lobes are present.- Pseudoglandular (at 5 – 16 weeks of gestation):Formation of terminal bronchioles, cartilage and smooth muscles occur in this stage. Adult numbers of airways proximal to acini are in place.- Canalicular (at 16-24 weeks gestation): Differentiation of type I and II epithelial cells can be done in this stage. There is also an increase in the size of proximal airways).- Saccular (at 24 – 40 weeks of gestation): Terminal saccule formation occurs. Production of surfactant takes place at this stage with an increase in the number of goblet cellsUp to half the adult number of alveoli are in place by this stage.- Alveolar (occurs between 32 weeks of gestation till the post-natal age 8): Formation of alveoli and septation occurs with the expansion of air spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 11
Correct
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Palms and soles are relatively spared by which of the given medical conditions?
Your Answer: Scarlet fever
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a childhood infectious disease caused by group A Streptococcus. It produces a papular rash, which is classically described as a sand-paper rash. The rash initially appears on the trunk, groin, and underarms and then spreads to extremities, usually sparing the palms and soles. Circumoral area is also spared, giving it pallor-like appearance. Diseases like erythema multiforme, contact dermatitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, and rubella produce a rash that classically affects the palms and soles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?
Your Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb
Explanation:In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following movements will most likely be lost following an injury to the spinal part of the accessory nerve?
Your Answer: Upward rotation of the scapula
Explanation:Cranial nerve XI is also known as the accessory nerve. The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle which retracts the scapula. The upper and lower fibres act together to also upwardly rotate it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Correct
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A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?
Your Answer: Reassure
Explanation:A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl develops central precocious puberty. Which of the following conditions is the most likely aetiology for her condition?
Your Answer: Familial male gonadotropin-independent precocity
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. Central precocious puberty is mostly idiopathic, but other causes include congenital or prolonged, untreated hypothyroidism, congenital or acquired central nervous system pathologies, and several genetic syndromes like Silver-Russell syndrome. The other mentioned choices cause peripheral or false precocious puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the:
Your Answer: Trabeculated portion of the right atrium
Correct Answer: Coronary sinus
Explanation:The sinus venosus is a large quadrangular cavity which precedes the atrium on the venous side of the chordate heart. It exists distinctly only in the embryonic heart (where it is found between the two venae cavae)| however, the sinus venosus persists in the adult. In the adult, it is incorporated into the wall of the right atrium to form a smooth part called the sinus venarum, which is separated from the rest of the atrium by a ridge of fibres called the crista terminalis. The sinus venosus also forms the SA node and the coronary sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 38.5℃ and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. On examination, he’s found to be tachycardic. Abdominal examination reveals guarding. An ultrasound scan shows gall stones in the gall bladder, free fluid in the pelvis and an appendix with a diameter of 8 mm.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Impacted Gall Stone
Correct Answer: Acute Appendicitis
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is acute appendicitis.Acute appendicitis presents typically with central abdominal pain migrating to the right iliac fossa, anorexia, nausea and fever. The temperature usually does not go beyond 40C. Although appendicitis is a clinical diagnosis, an ultrasound scan showing an appendix width of greater than 6mm is diagnostic.Pyrexia, guarding, and pain are all in keeping with appendicitis.Other options:- Cholecystitis is very rare in children, and although gall stones are present, there is no jaundice or biliary tree dilatation suggested by the scan.- Impacted Gall Stone: There is no mention of common bile duct dilatation in the clinical scenario.- Sickle Cell Crisis: A sickle cell crisis should not cause guarding, or an ultrasound scan finding of a dilated appendix base.- Gastroenteritis: Gastroenteritis would not produce the ultrasound scan findings described above with a thickened appendix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 18
Correct
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The following are the causes of hydrops fetalis EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Hydrops fetalis is a serious condition characterized by excessive fluid accumulation resulting in oedema in one or more of the fetal compartments. The most likely cause is fetal anaemia, and the condition may lead to ascites and pleural effusion. The anaemia that results in hydrops may be caused by Rh incompatibility, Parvovirus B19 infection, toxoplasmosis, hepatitis B, maternal syphilis (strong association), Cytomegalovirus, Turner syndrome, and Noonan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 3 year old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to burning micturition, frequency and urgency. She is also experiencing some suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following investigations should be done initially?
Your Answer: Clean catch of urine for Culture &Sensitivity
Explanation:Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following exhibits low genetic penetrance?
Your Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Gaucher disease
Explanation:Penetrance is defined as the percentage of individuals having a particular mutation or genotype who exhibit clinical signs or phenotype of the associated disorder or genotype.Gaucher disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but they typically do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old autistic boy arrives at the clinic with lethargy, curly corkscrew like hair and petechiae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Copper deficiency
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Presentation can vary by individual. Early stages are often characterized by malaise, fatigue, and lethargy. One to 3 months of inadequate intake can lead to anaemia, myalgia, bone pain, easy bruising (Figure 3), swelling, petechiae, perifollicular haemorrhages, corkscrew hairs, gum disease, poor wound healing, mood changes, and depression. Perifollicular haemorrhages and easy bruising are often first seen in the lower extremities, as capillary fragility leads to an inability to withstand hydrostatic pressure. Late stages of scurvy are more severe and life threatening| common manifestations include generalized oedema, severe jaundice, haemolysis, acute spontaneous bleeding, neuropathy, fever, convulsions, and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 22
Correct
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An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?
Your Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now
Explanation:NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 23
Correct
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Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following chromosomes?
Your Answer: Chromosome 15
Explanation:Angelman Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. The features of this condition include intellectual disability, a delay in developmental milestones, and movement disorders. The features occur as a result of the deletion or mutation of the maternal copy of the UBE3A gene located on Chromosome 15q. Though individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, only the maternal gene remains active in parts of the brain. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Prader-Willi syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents with bruise-like painful lumps on her lower legs after a sore throat. Which of the following is expected in her case?
Your Answer: The condition may take 6-12 weeks to resolve
Explanation:Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. It is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to a variety of antigens| circulating immune complexes have not been found in idiopathic or uncomplicated cases but may be demonstrated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is a streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adultsIn most patients, erythema nodosum is a self-limited disease and requires only symptomatic relief using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), cool wet compresses, elevation, and bed rest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is normotensive. Her prolactin levels are normal. She has a raised 17 α-hydroxyprogesterone level.What is her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Partial 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Explanation:Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase, resulting from mutations or deletions of CYP21A, is the most common form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, accounting for more than 90% of cases.Females with mild 21-hydroxylase deficiency are identified later in childhood because of precocious pubic hair, clitoromegaly, or both, often accompanied by accelerated growth and skeletal maturation (simple virilizing adrenal hyperplasia)Diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency: High serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (usually >1000 ng/dL) and urinary pregnanetriol (metabolite of 17-hydroxyprogesterone) in the presence of clinical features suggestive of the disease| 24-hour urinary 17-ketosteroid levels are elevated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Correct
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What is the investigation of choice to look for renal scarring in a child with vesicoureteric reflux?
Your Answer: DMSA
Explanation:Vesicoureteral reflux is a common disorder in children but can result in kidney scarring following acute pyelonephritis. The gold standard diagnostic test to detect renal scars in children is 99mTc-dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scintigraphy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 30-year-old female presents to her OBGYN for a 20-week anomaly scan of the foetus. During her visit, she is informed she is going to have a baby boy. What will be the chromosomal arrangement of the baby?
Your Answer: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex hormones (XY)
Explanation:In humans, each cell normally contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46. Twenty-two of these pairs, called autosomes, look the same in both males and females. The 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, differ between males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosome, while males have one X and one Y chromosome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 30
Correct
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In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference
Explanation:The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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