00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?

      Your Answer: Neurogenic

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      206.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16 year old dies in a road traffic accident. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old dies in a road traffic accident. What is the mortality proportion attributed to accidents in this age group?

      Your Answer: 40-50%

      Explanation:

      Deaths by age group: 60% <1 year - due mainly to congenital, neonatal, and infection related problems.10% 1-4 years - due to accident (15%), cancer (15%), or congenital problems (14%)18% 15-19 years - accidental (42%) accidents reflect increased risk taking

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      92.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?

      Your Answer: Right mainstem bronchus

      Explanation:

      Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1–3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi| approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      126.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor, wheeze, and lip swelling following the ingestion of a cashew nut at a birthday party.Which of the following can be considered an acceptable treatment option for this child?

      Your Answer: IM adrenaline 100 microgram/kg

      Correct Answer: Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from an anaphylactic reaction to the cashew nut he consumed.Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress.The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- Resuscitation – ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline is given at ten microgram/kg or Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000- IV Hydrocortisone is given at 4mg/kg- pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      119.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC)....

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?

      Your Answer: Abdominal trauma

      Explanation:

      Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      125.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his...

    Correct

    • A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his thumbs are dysplastic. Clinical and paraclinical exams suggest an acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fanconi anaemia

      Explanation:

      Fanconi anaemia, a rare autosomal recessive condition, presents with congenital abnormalities and defective hemopoiesis. Clinical signs include pallor and bruising. Hypoplasia of the thumbs and radial hypoplasia are two of the most common congenital abnormalities. Conductive deafness is also common. Those with Fanconi anaemia have a higher risk for developing acute myeloid leukaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      127.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 8 year old male was just hit by a car and brought...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male was just hit by a car and brought by a helicopter to the emergency department. He is intubated and you want to avoid secondary brain injury. Which of the following measures is not indicated to prevent secondary brain injury?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Low oxygen delivery in hypotension, hypoxia, oedema, intracranial hypertension or changes in cerebral blood flow should all be prevented to avoid secondary brain injury. There is no evidence to suggest that hypothermia prevents secondary brain injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      79.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully conscious but has stridor, is wheezing and has a generalised erythematous rash. She has known allergies. What is the single immediate management?

      Your Answer: Give 0.3ml in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection

      Explanation:

      This is a case of an anaphylactic reaction that requires immediate intervention. IM adrenaline dose for 6-12 year old children is 300 micrograms IM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      127.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?

      Your Answer: Absent distal pulses

      Explanation:

      The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 1-year old infant is brought to the emergency by her parents with...

    Correct

    • A 1-year old infant is brought to the emergency by her parents with difficulty breathing. Examination reveals stridor from an oedematous airway, bilateral wheezing and low blood pressure. Which of the following medications would result in the reversal of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline (epinephrine) narrows blood vessels and opens airways in the lungs. These effects can reverse severe low blood pressure, wheezing, severe skin itching, hives, and other symptoms of an allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      74.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old female was brought to the emergency department. Her presentation was highly...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female was brought to the emergency department. Her presentation was highly suggestive of meningitis. Direct ophthalmoscopy revealed no signs of papilledema. Thus, she was planned for a lumbar puncture. What is the structure first encountered while inserting the needle?

      Your Answer: Supraspinous ligament

      Explanation:

      During lumbar puncture, the first structures encountered by the needle are skin and subcutaneous tissue. But, since they are not provided in the options, the most superficial structure after them is the supraspinous ligament.Lumbar puncture is a procedure performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid. The procedure is best performed at the level of L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace. During the procedure, the needle pierces the following structures in order from superficial to deep: Skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, the epidural space containing the internal vertebral venous plexus, dura, and arachnoid, finally entering the subarachnoid space. The supraspinous ligament connects the tips of spinous processes and the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes.As the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, it causes a give. A second give is felt when the needle penetrates the dura mater and enters the subarachnoid space. At this point, clear CSF flows through the needle and can be collected for diagnostic purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      138.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - 6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring...

    Correct

    • 6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring admission for phototherapy, and have lost 12% and 13% of their birthweights, respectively. They both have serum sodium levels of 145 mmol/L. What is the best advice about fluid management over the next 48 h?

      Your Answer: Continue breast-feeding but give full top-ups via bottle/cup feeding

      Explanation:

      Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      82.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented with bronchoconstriction, excessive salivation, and diarrhoea. On examination, a drop in heart rate and blood pressure was noted.What is the mechanism by which the substance causes these effects?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of excessive salivation and diarrhoea, along with hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchoconstriction, indicates excess parasympathetic nervous system activity. The patient is showing features of acetylcholine toxicity. Pesticides typically contain organophosphates that are potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used in the neuromuscular junction, as well as at select points in the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic acetylcholine receptors can be nicotinic (more sensitive to nicotine) or muscarinic (more sensitive to muscarine). The most relevant receptors in this scenario are the muscarinic receptors as the majority are located in the parasympathetic nervous system smooth muscle, exocrine glands, and cardiac conduction system.Other options:- Accordingly, to cause the symptoms described, there must be an abundance of acetylcholine which stimulates the muscarinic receptors to enhance the parasympathetic effects. Therefore the reduction in the formation of acetylcholine option must be incorrect as this would produce the opposite effect. – Noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, and both answer options relating to noradrenaline would increase the neurotransmitter and potentiate the sympathetic nervous system effects, making them incorrect.Features can predict the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD):- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Defecation/diarrhoeaCardiovascular symptoms include hypotension and bradycardia. The patient can show associated small pupils and muscle fasciculationManagement:- Atropine- The role of pralidoxime is still unclear – meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      114.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An 8 year old girl presents with a chest injury, following a road...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old girl presents with a chest injury, following a road traffic accident. You intubate and ventilate her. However, at some point you notice that the girl becomes tachycardic and her blood pressure drops. Her trachea is displaced to one side and neck veins appear quite distended. What should you do next?

      Your Answer: Needle Decompression

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests tension pneumothorax which requires immediate needle decompression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 2-year-old boy was admitted in the A&E with a history of a...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old boy was admitted in the A&E with a history of a 38.4°C fever and 15 minute tonic clonic seizure episode at home. However, he is conscious now, his temperature is normal and the fit has stopped. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Febrile convulsion

      Explanation:

      Febrile seizures are convulsions that can happen when a child, most often between the ages of six months and three years, has a fever. They usually last for less than five minutes and although the child may lose consciousness, they are relatively harmless. However, sometimes they can last for up to 15 minutes and when they are termed complex febrile seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      106.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water scalding injury to his hand. On examination, his hand appears to be white but he does not complain of any pain. What is the explanation for the absence of pain in this patient?

      Your Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurones

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario provided is highly suggestive of third-degree burns (or full-thickness burns) that may have invaded the deeper levels up to dermis, evident from the insensate nature of the lesion.Degrees of Burns:- First degree burns are superficial second-degree burns.- Second-degree burns are just deeper than that of first-degree burns but vary enormously in other properties.- Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns which are leathery in consistency, and insensate. These burns do not heal on their own. The sensory neurons present in the skin at the deeper levels are destroyed completely and hence provide a paradoxical lack of pain.- Fourth-degree burns involving the subcutaneous tissues, tendons, and bones are very difficult to manage.Assessment of the extent of the burns for the treatment employs specialized charts, such as Lund and Browder charts and Wallace rule of nines.The Lund and Browder chart is, however, considered the most accurate.Wallace’s Rule of Nines can be used for children >16 years: – Head + neck = 9%- Each arm = 9%- Each anterior part of leg = 9%- Each posterior part of leg = 9%- Anterior chest = 9%- Posterior chest = 9%- Anterior abdomen = 9%- Posterior abdomen = 9%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old girl presents with a history of palpitations and light headedness. Her heart rate is 200 beats per minute so you try with vagal manoeuvres and repeated boluses of adenosine up to a maximum dose of 500mcg/kg. What would you do next?

      Your Answer: Synchronous DC shock 1J/kg

      Explanation:

      According to APLS, your next step should be one of the following: synchronous DC shock, amiodarone, or cardiology advice for alternative antiarrhythmics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      105.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle following a fall from his bicycle.Which vessel is at the highest risk of injury?

      Your Answer: Subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      Being anatomically situated immediately posterior to the subclavius muscle and the medial part of the clavicle, the subclavian vein is at the highest risk of injury in the above patient.As a direct tributary of the brachiocephalic vein, it’s injury poses a high risk of massive bleeding.The brachiocephalic vein rests on the first rib, below and in front of the third part of the subclavian artery, and then on scalenus anterior which separates it from the second part of the artery (posteriorly).Anatomy of the clavicle:The clavicle extends from the sternum to the acromion and helps prevent the shoulder falling forwards and downwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Methicillin

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, fever, and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. On examination, palpation of the left lower quadrant of the abdomen elicits pain in the right lower quadrant. What is this sign?

      Your Answer: Rovsing's sign

      Explanation:

      Based on the findings presented, the sign elicited is Rovsing’s sign.Rovsing’s sign:It is a sign suggestive of appendicitis. A positive sign is determined when palpation in the left lower quadrant of a patient’s abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.Other options:- Murphy’s sign is positive in gallbladder inflammation. With the upper border of the examiner’s hand in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen under the rib cage, the patient is asked to inhale. Inhalation causes the gallbladder to descend, which catches on the fingers, causing pain.- Cullen’s sign is suggestive of ectopic pregnancy or acute pancreatitis and describes the bruising around the umbilicus.- Tinel’s sign is positive in those with carpal tunnel syndrome. The examiner’s fingers tap the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum, which causes paraesthesia over the distribution of the median nerve.- Battles’ sign describes bruising behind the ear, suggesting a basal skull fracture of the posterior cranial fossa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain,...

    Correct

    • A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain, fever, and listlessness. She doesn’t want to eat and the doctors noticed a bloody nappy. Upon clinical examination she’s found to be tachycardic and with cool peripheries. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Resuscitate with intravenous fluids and commence triple antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This clinical case is most probably due to intussusception complicated by sepsis. Regardless of the cause, the baby is sick and in a critical condition. The first thing to do is to preserve the vital signs and resuscitate with IV fluids. As sepsis is suspected, you should also start on triple antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car accident. On examination bowel sounds were heard in the chest. A nasogastric tube was inserted and a chest x-ray showed a curved NG tube. Which of the following is the most probable reason for it?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm rupture

      Explanation:

      Bowel sounds in the chest and curved NG tube are suggestive of a diaphragm rupture, which has caused herniation of bowel into the thoracic cavity through the defect in the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 6-year-old boy was admitted with a burn that looks third or fourth...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy was admitted with a burn that looks third or fourth degree upon inspection. He has not stopped crying. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: IV fluid start

      Explanation:

      The boy needs re-hydration due to his full thickness burn so IV fluids is the next most appropriate step. The greatest loss of plasma occurs in the first 12 hours after burn injury. The plasma loss then slowly decreases during the second 12 hours of the post-burn phase, although extensive leakage can continue for up to three days (Ahrns, 2004). Optimal fluid replacement during this period is essential to ensure cardiac output and renal and tissue perfusion. Usually, 36 hours post-burn, capillary permeability returns to normal and fluid is drawn back into the circulation. Burns of more than 15% of surface body area in adults and of over 10% in children warrant formal resuscitation.The Parkland formula for the total fluid requirement in 24 hours is as follows:4ml x TBSA (%) x body weight (kg)|50% given in first eight hours|50% given in next 16 hours.Children receive maintenance fluid in addition, at an hourly rate of:4ml/kg for the first 10kg of body weight plus|2ml/kg for the second 10kg of body weight plus|1ml/kg for >20kg of body weight.End pointUrine – adults: 0.5–1.0 ml/kg/hour|Urine – children: 1.0–1.5ml/kg/hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      95.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining a basal skull fracture. Which laboratory test would be able to accurately detect the presence of CSF?

      Your Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay

      Explanation:

      Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assayBeta-2-transferrin is a protein found only in CSF and perilymph. Since 1979, beta-2-transferrin has been used extensively by otolaryngologists in the diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea and skull-base cerebrospinal fluid fistulas. With sensitivity of 94% – 100%, and specificity of 98% – 100%, this assay has become the gold standard in detection of CSF leakage. CSF rhinorrhoea is characterized by clear or xanthochromic watery rhinorrhoea that may not become apparent until nasal packing is removed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      72.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a...

    Correct

    • A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a minor fall. He was initially unable to bear weight on his legs but after ibuprofen he can walk and run with a minor limp. X-ray of the leg shows no abnormality. However, ten days later a repeat x-ray is done due to persistent limp and it reveals a spiral fracture. How do you explain this?

      Your Answer: Delayed periosteal reaction

      Explanation:

      A periosteal reaction can result from a large number of causes, including injury and chronic irritation due to a medical condition such as hypertrophic osteopathy, bone healing in response to fracture, chronic stress injuries, subperiosteal hematomas, osteomyelitis, and cancer of the bone. This history is consistent with a toddler’s fracture. Here a minor, usually twisting, injury results in a spiral fracture of the tibia. An initial X-ray may appear normal as the periosteum holds the bone together preventing displacement. Ten days later a repeat X-ray will show callous formation and confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      60.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 9-year-old boy is hit by a car at a speed of 40...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy is hit by a car at a speed of 40 mph. He sustained a head injury and was intubated at the scene due to reduced GCS. In the emergency department, he is stable with no chest abnormalities on examination. Some bruising was noted in the lower abdomen. Which of the following would be the most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child?

      Your Answer: CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child would be CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis and chest X-ray (CXR).The C-spine cannot be cleared, this alongside a multi-trauma presentation means a CT C-spine is indicated rather than X-rays alone. The imaging modality for blunt trauma to the chest is CXR| if this shows significant thoracic trauma, a CT chest should be considered. Other options:- CT Head and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR and X-ray C-spine: This child is at risk of C-Spine injury following the mechanism of trauma. He had a reduced GCS, has undergone a multi-region trauma and is now intubated. NICE head injury guidelines, therefore, recommend using CT.- CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis X-rays: Imaging of the chest is required following blunt trauma and for endotracheal tube position.- MRI Head: If there were concerns of abnormal neurology, then spinal MRI could be considered.- Whole-body CT: It is not recommended in children in view of the high radiation doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?

      Your Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %–85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %–13 % and medications account for 5 %–12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic...

    Correct

    • A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident. His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands. He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes. He tries to move away from the examining hand.What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS. Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):Spontaneous – 4To speech – 3To pain – 2No response – 1Best Verbal Response:Oriented – 5Words – 4Vocal sounds – 3Cries – 2No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):Obeys commands – 5Localises pain – 4Flexion to pain – 3 Extension to pain – 2No response – 1 The described child scores:Eye response – 1| Verbal response – 3| Motor response – 4Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      52
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (28/30) 93%
Passmed