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  • Question 1 - As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4...

    Correct

    • As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4 year old boy who is has been experiencing intermittent temperature spikes of 38.7C throughout the night. He underwent a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix four days ago, and has opened his bowels with diarrhoea. His chest is clear on examination.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his condition?

      Your Answer: Intra-abdominal collection

      Explanation:

      Perforated appendices are common in children as it is more difficult to surgically assess an unwell child due to poor localisation of abdominal pain, and their inability to express discomfort. They are therefore prone to a greater risk of post operative complications including would infections, intra abdominal fluid collections, and chest infections. In the above scenario the spiking temperature points to an abscess, which characteristically presents with a swinging temperature. The fever is unlikely due to bacterial resistance as blood tests performed post surgery would have indicated any resistance, and a UTI is also unlikely since the child is already on antibiotics. As his chest is clinically clear, a severe chest infection may be ruled out, leaving intra-abdominal collection as the most likely explanation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his...

    Correct

    • A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his thumbs are dysplastic. Clinical and paraclinical exams suggest an acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fanconi anaemia

      Explanation:

      Fanconi anaemia, a rare autosomal recessive condition, presents with congenital abnormalities and defective hemopoiesis. Clinical signs include pallor and bruising. Hypoplasia of the thumbs and radial hypoplasia are two of the most common congenital abnormalities. Conductive deafness is also common. Those with Fanconi anaemia have a higher risk for developing acute myeloid leukaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due...

    Incorrect

    • The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due to an occlusion in the anterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer: Corpus callosum

      Correct Answer: Brocas area

      Explanation:

      Broca’s area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery and thus will be spared when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded.Note:The two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries form an anastomosis known as the Circle of Willis on the inferior surface of the brain. Each half of the circle is formed by:1. Anterior communicating artery2. Anterior cerebral artery3. Internal carotid artery4. Posterior communicating artery5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon and midbrain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old Somalian boy is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnoea. He looks distressed and has a heart rate of 180 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 37/min and his O2 saturation is 83% in room air. His temperature is 38C. His mother cannot speak English and neither does the child. The doctors observe that the boy has marked recession and a tracheal tug. He is crying and holding his chest. You immediately put the child on high flow oxygen, perform a chest X-ray and blood tests. The x-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. The blood results show:Hb:6g/dl, MCV:85fl, MCHC:36.0g/dl, WBC:19.6x109/l, neutrophils:15.3x109/l, PLT:350x109/l, CRP:50. His mother shows you that the child has been taking folic acid, hydroxyurea and Penicillin V daily, by pulling some tablets from her bag. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell chest crisis

      Explanation:

      The child is suffering from acute sickle cell crisis, a complication of sickle cell disease. It is characterised by a new segmental pulmonary infiltrate consistent with consolidation together with one or more new respiratory symptoms.The mainstay of treatment is oxygen support, (ventilation if required), hydration, antibiotics and analgesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old child is referred to the chest clinic due to recurrent chest...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is referred to the chest clinic due to recurrent chest infections. The mother says she has a productive cough with greenish sputum. Chest x-ray shows multiple ringed shadows and thickening of the bronchial walls at both bases. The most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      The x-ray is suggestive of bronchiectasis. The most probable aetiology especially considering recurrent chest infections at such a young age is cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the single most serious side effect associated with IV Lorazepam?

      Your Answer: Bronchospasm

      Correct Answer: Amnesia

      Explanation:

      The most serious side effects of IV Lorazepam include hallucinations, agitation, confusion, amnesia and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a minor fall. He was initially unable to bear weight on his legs but after ibuprofen he can walk and run with a minor limp. X-ray of the leg shows no abnormality. However, ten days later a repeat x-ray is done due to persistent limp and it reveals a spiral fracture. How do you explain this?

      Your Answer: Non accidental injury

      Correct Answer: Delayed periosteal reaction

      Explanation:

      A periosteal reaction can result from a large number of causes, including injury and chronic irritation due to a medical condition such as hypertrophic osteopathy, bone healing in response to fracture, chronic stress injuries, subperiosteal hematomas, osteomyelitis, and cancer of the bone. This history is consistent with a toddler’s fracture. Here a minor, usually twisting, injury results in a spiral fracture of the tibia. An initial X-ray may appear normal as the periosteum holds the bone together preventing displacement. Ten days later a repeat X-ray will show callous formation and confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month later, he presents with anorexia, malaise, reduced urine output and fever. Laboratory investigations reveal: Hb - 12.6 g/dL WBC Count - 13,000/µL Urea - 30 mmol/L Creatinine - 400 µmol/L| andUrinalysis shows numerous pus cells. What is the probable cause of the presenting symptoms of the patient?

      Your Answer: Renal tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, the most likely cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is acute interstitial nephritis secondary to anti-tubercular therapy (ATT)Drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis can occur following treatment with beta-lactams, sulphonamides, rifampicin, ethambutol, and erythromycin. They can cause an acute allergic reaction with the infiltration of immune cells.Acute interstitial nephritis is said to be the most common renal complication in patients undergoing anti-TB treatment. Rifampicin is the most implicated drug, although ethambutol can also be a cause. The pathogenesis involves an immune-complex mediated acute allergic response, which leads to their deposition on renal vessels, the glomerular endothelium, and the interstitial area. Other options:Isoniazid does not affect the kidneys. Pulmonary-renal syndrome is a feature of Goodpasture’s syndrome. It is characterized by renal failure and lung haemorrhage. Severe cardiac or renal failure ensues and is complicated by pulmonary oedema, systemic lupus erythematosus, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and cryoglobulinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following IV blood products is most likely to cause an...

    Correct

    • Which of the following IV blood products is most likely to cause an urticarial reaction?

      Your Answer: Fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      Transfusion with blood products carries a risk of acute and more chronic adverse reactions. These reactions can either be immune mediated due to a component mismatch, or non immune, underpinned by bacterial or viral contamination. Reactions range from very mild such as urticaria, to life threatening in the case of transfusion-related acute lung injury. In transfusion with packed red blood cells, the most common adverse event is pyrexia, while urticaria is the most common adverse event that follows infusion with FFP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Gillespie syndrome

      Explanation:

      Leukocoria is an abnormal red reflex in which the pupil appears white. It represents various abnormalities of the visual media and is one of the primary signs of retinoblastoma. Other possible causes of leukocoria include congenital cataracts, toxocariasis, Norrie disease, retinopathy of prematurity, and Coat’s disease. Gillespie syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition characterized by congenital hypotonia, multiple ocular defects, hypoplasia of the cerebellum, and vertebral deformities. The ocular defects consist of aniridia, photophobia, reduced visual acuity, and the inability of the pupillary sphincter to contract. Leukocoria is not associated with this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Nephro-urology (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
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