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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is NOT listed as an antenatal risk factor for...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT listed as an antenatal risk factor for referral to a community health worker (CHW)?

      Your Answer: Any maternal problem that arose during delivery or post-delivery

      Correct Answer: Having a previous history of depression or anxiety

      Explanation:

      The question is asking which of the listed options is NOT considered an antenatal risk factor for referral to a community health worker (CHW).

      Teenage pregnancy, low birth weight baby, any maternal problem during or post-delivery, and substance use (tobacco, drugs, alcohol) are all commonly recognized antenatal risk factors that may warrant referral to a CHW for additional support and care.

      Having a previous history of depression or anxiety is not specifically mentioned as an antenatal risk factor for referral to a CHW in the text. While mental health issues can certainly impact pregnancy and should be addressed, they may not always be included in the initial list of risk factors for referral to a CHW.

      Therefore, the correct answer is: Having a previous history of depression or anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives history of her having a sore throat, fever and lymphadenitis during pregnancy. Which organism causes such manifestations?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus (VZV)

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, if a mother contracts cytomegalovirus (CMV), it can be passed on to the developing fetus. CMV is a common virus that can cause mild symptoms in healthy individuals, but can be more serious for pregnant women and their unborn babies. In this case, the mother’s history of sore throat, fever, and lymphadenitis during pregnancy suggests that she may have been infected with CMV.

      Cytomegalovirus can cause cytomegalo-inclusion syndrome in infants, which can lead to symptoms such as hearing loss, developmental delays, and vision problems. The fact that the paediatrician has concerns about the baby’s hearing at 6 months old suggests that the baby may be showing signs of hearing loss, which is a common manifestation of CMV infection.

      Therefore, the most likely organism causing the manifestations described in this scenario is cytomegalovirus (CMV). The other options listed, such as chorioamnionitis, Group B Streptococcus, listeriosis, and varicella zoster virus, do not typically present with the same symptoms as CMV infection in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - How often should the effectiveness of ART be assessed through plasma HIV RNA...

    Incorrect

    • How often should the effectiveness of ART be assessed through plasma HIV RNA levels?

      Your Answer: Once a year

      Correct Answer: Every 6 months

      Explanation:

      The effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in managing HIV is typically assessed by measuring plasma HIV RNA levels. Once a person’s HIV RNA levels become undetectable, it is recommended to continue monitoring these levels every 6 months to ensure that the treatment is still working effectively. This frequency allows healthcare providers to track any changes in viral load and make adjustments to the treatment plan if necessary. Monitoring every 6 months strikes a balance between ensuring the treatment is still effective and minimizing the burden of frequent testing on the individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of vomiting and early morning...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of vomiting and early morning headaches. CT scan of the brain shows multiple ring enhancing lesions. Which of the following is the cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      The patient in this case is presenting with vomiting and early morning headaches, along with multiple ring enhancing lesions on a CT scan of the brain. This finding is characteristic of cerebral toxoplasmosis, which is caused by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii.

      Toxoplasmosis can be transmitted through ingestion of cysts found in raw meat or cat feces, or from mother to fetus through the placenta. In immunocompetent individuals, toxoplasmosis is usually asymptomatic or mild, but in immunosuppressed patients, such as those who are HIV-positive, it can lead to more severe symptoms like cerebral toxoplasmosis.

      Treatment for toxoplasmosis typically involves a combination of pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and leucovorin. It is important to treat immunosuppressed patients, infected mothers, and patients with more severe symptoms to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 8-week-old boy diagnosed with HIV is seen in clinic for follow-up evaluation...

    Correct

    • An 8-week-old boy diagnosed with HIV is seen in clinic for follow-up evaluation after a diagnosis of HIV was confirmed 2 days prior. The child was born to a mother who was diagnosed with HIV at the time of delivery, and the mother’s initial HIV RNA level was 71,357 copies/mL. The infant was prescribed a 6-week course of three-drug antiretroviral prophylaxis after birth, but there were concerns about the number of actual doses the infant received. Four days ago the infant had HIV RNA testing and the result was positive. Repeat HIV RNA testing of the infant 2 days ago is now also positive. Initial Laboratory studies for the infant show a CD4 count of 1,238 cells/mm3, CD4 percentage of 31%, and an HIV RNA level of 237,200 copies/mL. An HIV genotypic drug resistance test is ordered.
      Which one of the following is the most appropriate management for the infant?

      Your Answer: Initiate antiretroviral therapy urgently

      Explanation:

      This question presents a case of an 8-week-old infant diagnosed with HIV, born to a mother with HIV. The infant had received some antiretroviral prophylaxis after birth, but ultimately tested positive for HIV. The initial laboratory studies show a high HIV RNA level and normal CD4 count. The question asks for the most appropriate management for the infant.

      The correct answer is to initiate antiretroviral therapy urgently. This is based on the Pediatric ART Guidelines, which recommend urgent initiation of antiretroviral therapy for all infants younger than 12 months of age with confirmed HIV infection, regardless of clinical status, CD4 count, or CD4 percentage. Early initiation of antiretroviral therapy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of HIV-related morbidity and mortality in infants with HIV.

      It is important to note that antiretroviral therapy should not be delayed while waiting for results from HIV drug resistance testing. The regimen can be adjusted later based on the results of the drug resistance testing. The urgency in starting treatment is crucial in order to provide the best possible outcome for the infant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month later, he presents with anorexia, malaise, reduced urine output and fever.
      Laboratory investigations reveal:
      Hb - 12.6 g/dL
      WBC Count - 13,000/µL
      Urea - 30 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 400 µmol/L; and
      Urinalysis shows numerous pus cells.

      What is the probable cause of the presenting symptoms of the patient?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary-renal syndrome

      Correct Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, the most likely cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is acute interstitial nephritis secondary to anti-tubercular therapy (ATT)
      Drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis can occur following treatment with beta-lactams, sulphonamides, rifampicin, ethambutol, and erythromycin. They can cause an acute allergic reaction with the infiltration of immune cells.
      Acute interstitial nephritis is said to be the most common renal complication in patients undergoing anti-TB treatment. Rifampicin is the most implicated drug, although ethambutol can also be a cause. The pathogenesis involves an immune-complex mediated acute allergic response, which leads to their deposition on renal vessels, the glomerular endothelium, and the interstitial area.

      Other options:
      Isoniazid does not affect the kidneys.
      Pulmonary-renal syndrome is a feature of Goodpasture’s syndrome. It is characterized by renal failure and lung haemorrhage. Severe cardiac or renal failure ensues and is complicated by pulmonary oedema, systemic lupus erythematosus, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and cryoglobulinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know...

    Correct

    • A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know that there is epidemic of West Nile virus there. Regarding the virus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: May be associated with poliomyelitis-like paralysis

      Explanation:

      The correct statement regarding the West Nile virus is that it may be associated with poliomyelitis-like paralysis. This is because the virus can affect the anterior horn cells, leading to symptoms similar to poliomyelitis such as flaccid paralysis.

      The other statements are not true:
      – Infection with West Nile virus can be fatal, especially if not treated promptly.
      – West Nile virus is a member of the Flaviviridae family, not the picornavirus family.
      – Transplacental transmission of West Nile virus can occur, leading to complications in newborns.
      – Treatment with interferon is effective in West Nile virus encephalitis, along with other medications such as IV immunoglobulin and Ribavirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which antibiotic is recommended for treating syphilis in patients with penicillin allergy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antibiotic is recommended for treating syphilis in patients with penicillin allergy?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The primary treatment for syphilis is penicillin, as it is highly effective in killing the bacteria. However, some patients may have a penicillin allergy, which can complicate treatment.

      In cases where patients have a penicillin allergy, azithromycin is recommended as an alternative treatment for syphilis. Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including Treponema pallidum. It is typically given as a single dose or a short course of treatment, making it a convenient option for patients who cannot take penicillin.

      Other antibiotics, such as doxycycline, clindamycin, and vancomycin, are not typically used as first-line treatments for syphilis. Ciprofloxacin is not effective against Treponema pallidum and should not be used to treat syphilis.

      In conclusion, azithromycin is the recommended antibiotic for treating syphilis in patients with a penicillin allergy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of alternative treatment options for patients with allergies to ensure effective management of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin. Other members residing with her at the retirement home also have similar complaints. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies is due to an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei and most commonly presents with these symptoms. The organism resides in burrows in a pattern specifically affecting the interdigital spaces and the skin folds of the arms and legs. The infection spreads from one person to another, especially in populated communities, through close contact.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vascular inflammation.

      Psoriasis rash is characterised by scaly plaques affecting the extensor surfaces of the body. Pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid both are bullous disorders of the skin. They may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions and there may be involvement in other sites; erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his partner whose HIV status is not known. He is concerned about his risk of acquiring HIV. He is feeling well and shows no symptoms. The physician offers him a post exposure prophylaxis, which consists of 3 different antiviral drugs. Two of these drugs act by which of the following mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of viral reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      The two drugs that act by inhibiting viral reverse transcriptase are the NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors) and NNRTIs (non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors). NRTIs work by competing with the natural nucleotides that the virus needs to replicate its genetic material, while NNRTIs bind to a different site on the reverse transcriptase enzyme to prevent it from functioning properly.

      In the recommended regimens for post-exposure prophylaxis, the options include using 3 NRTIs, 2 NRTIs plus 1 NNRTI, or using a PI (protease inhibitor) or INI (integrase inhibitor). These combinations of antiviral drugs are effective in preventing the replication of HIV and reducing the risk of acquiring the infection after exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Evaluation (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
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