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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old patient presents with a chronic digoxin overdose. She has vomited several...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient presents with a chronic digoxin overdose. She has vomited several times, is extremely tired, and her vision 'appears yellow,' according to her.

      Which of the following is a reason for this patient's use of Digifab?

      Your Answer: Coexistent renal failure

      Explanation:

      An antidote for digoxin overdose is digoxin-specific antibody (Digifab). It’s a lyophilized preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments that’s sterile, purified, and lyophilized. These fragments were extracted from the blood of healthy sheep that had been immunised with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA), a digoxin analogue that contains the functionally important cyclopentaperhydrophenanthrene:lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).

      Digifab has a higher affinity for digoxin than digoxin does for its sodium pump receptor, which is thought to be the site of its therapeutic and toxic effects. When given to a patient who is intoxicated, Digifab binds to digoxin molecules, lowering free digoxin levels and shifting the equilibrium away from binding to receptors, reducing cardio-toxic effects. The kidney and reticuloendothelial system then clear the Fab-digoxin complexes.

      The following summarises the indications for Digifab in acute and chronic digoxin toxicity:
      Acute digoxin toxicity
      Chronic digoxin toxicity
      Cardiac arrest
      Life-threatening arrhythmia
      Potassium level > 5 mmol/l
      >10 mg digoxin ingested (adult)
      >4 mg digoxin ingested (child)
      Digoxin level > 12 ng/ml
      Cardiac arrest
      Life-threatening arrhythmia
      Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
      Symptoms of digoxin toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      59
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old female visits the Emergency Department complaining of an acute worsening of...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old female visits the Emergency Department complaining of an acute worsening of her asthma symptoms. A detailed history reveals that she took one of her brother's heart pills without a prescription as she was experiencing palpitations and thought it would cure her. Her shortness of breath was suddenly exacerbated after ingesting this medicine.

      Which one of the following medications has this woman most likely consumed?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Propranolol, like other non-selective beta-blockers, is contraindicated in patients with asthma. These drugs can cause acute bronchospasm, therefore worsening symptoms, especially in high doses. However, there has been some recent evidence that long-term use of selective beta-blockers in mild or moderate asthma patients can be safe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is...

    Correct

    • Before a patient is discharged, you are asked to review them. He is a 59-year-old man who was seen with epigastric pain that has since subsided, and he will be seen by his GP in the coming days. He's been hearing a lot about aspirin lately and wants to learn more about it.

      Which of the following statements about aspirin's mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase

      Explanation:

      Aspirin works by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase in an irreversible manner, resulting in a decrease in prostaglandin and thromboxane production. As a result, platelet activation and aggregation are reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You've been summoned to a young man in the resus area who has...

    Correct

    • You've been summoned to a young man in the resus area who has an SVT. You decide to use adenosine after trying several vagal manoeuvres without success.

      The use of adenosine is not contraindicated in which of the following situations?

      Your Answer: Concurrent use of a beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      The use of a beta-blocker at the same time increases the risk of myocardial depression, but it is not a contraindication.
      The use of adenosine is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Asthma
      COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
      Decompensated heart failure 
      Long QT syndrome
      AV block in the second or third degree
      Sinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses become (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Hypotension that is severe

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of chest pain pointing to angina. A dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) was administered, rapidly resolving her symptoms. Unfortunately, she develops a side-effect of the drug.

      Which one of the following is the side effect she is most likely to have developed?

      Your Answer: Flushing

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Glyceryl trinitrate
      2. Isosorbide dinitrate

      Side effects to nitrate therapy are common especially
      The most common side effects are:
      1. Headaches
      2. Feeling dizzy, weak, or tired
      3. Nausea
      4. Flushing

      The serious but less likely to occur side effects are:
      1. Methemoglobinemia (rare)
      2. Syncope
      3. Prolonged bleeding time
      4. Exfoliative dermatitis
      5. Unstable angina
      6. Rebound hypertension
      7. Thrombocytopenia

      Dry eyes, bradycardia, and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You examine a patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic heart...

    Correct

    • You examine a patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic heart failure. You discuss his care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who recommends switching him from furosemide to bumetanide at an equivalent dose. He's on 80 mg of furosemide once a day right now.

      What is the recommended dose of bumetanide?

      Your Answer: 2 mg

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is 40 times more powerful than furosemide, and one milligram is roughly equivalent to 40 milligrams of furosemide. This patient is currently taking 80 mg of furosemide and should be switched to a 2 mg bumetanide once daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.

      Which of the following is a verapamil toxicity?

      Your Answer: Negative inotropy

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium-channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      The following summarises the toxicity of calcium-channel blockers:
      Cardiac effects
      Vascular smooth muscle tone affects
      Metabolic effects
      Excessive negative inotropy: myocardial depression
      Negative chronotropy: sinus bradycardia
      Negative dromotropy: atrioventricular node blockade
      Decreased afterload
      Systemic hypotension
      Coronary vasodilation
      Hypoinsulinaemia
      Calcium channel blocker-induced insulin resistance

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      110.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate...

    Correct

    • You're a member of the cardiac arrest team, and you're helping to resuscitate an elderly gentleman who had collapsed at home. The team leader requests that you administer an adrenaline shot.

      Which of the following statements about adrenaline is FALSE?

      Your Answer: The IM dose in anaphylaxis is 1 ml of 1:1000

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a sympathomimetic amine that binds to alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors and acts as an agonist. It is active at both alpha and beta receptors in roughly equal amounts.

      When taken orally, it becomes inactive. Subcutaneous absorption is slower than intramuscular absorption. In cardiac arrest, it is well absorbed from the tracheal mucosa and can be given through an endotracheal tube.

      At the adrenergic synapse, catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) metabolise it primarily. The inactive products are then passed through the kidneys and excreted in the urine.

      In adult cardiac arrest, the IV dose is 1 mg, which is equal to 10 ml of 1:10000 or 1 ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, the IM dose is 0.5 ml of 1:1000. (500 mcg).

      In open-angle glaucoma, adrenaline causes mydriasis and lowers pressure.

      Adrenaline is used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation, the treatment of severe croup, and the emergency management of acute allergic and anaphylactic reactions (as a nebuliser solution).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The patient is a 66-year-old woman who has troublesome bilateral ankle swelling. This...

    Incorrect

    • The patient is a 66-year-old woman who has troublesome bilateral ankle swelling. This has been happening since she began taking a new antihypertensive medication a few weeks ago.

      Which of the following medications is most likely to be the cause of this adverse reaction?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Amlodipine is a calcium-channel blocker that is frequently used to treat hypertension. Ankle swelling is a very common side effect of calcium-channel blockers, and it occurs quite frequently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Correct

    • After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is transported to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which indicates that he is in VT. An amiodarone infusion is set up.

      Which of the following statements about amiodarone side effects is correct?

      Your Answer: It can cause jaundice

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a lot of potential toxic side effects, so it’s important to get a full clinical evaluation before starting treatment with it.

      The following are some of the most common amiodarone side effects:

      Arrhythmias
      Corneal microdeposits
      Hepatic disorders
      Hyperthyroidism
      Hypothyroidism
      Hepatic disorders and jaundice
      Nausea
      Peripheral neuropathy
      Respiratory disorders (including lung fibrosis)
      Sleep disturbance
      Skin reactions
      QT prolongation

      Amiodarone can cause optic neuritis, which is a very rare side effect. If this happens, the amiodarone should be stopped right away because it poses a risk of blindness.

      Most people who take amiodarone develop corneal microdeposits, which go away once the medication is stopped and rarely cause vision problems.

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      62.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart rate is 37 beats per minute, and he has a second-degree heart block, according to his rhythm strip.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in his management, according to the ALS bradycardia algorithm?

      Your Answer: Give atropine 500 mcg

      Explanation:

      Atropine is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of atropine 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischemia
      Insufficiency of the heart

      If this does not work, give additional 500 mcg doses at 3-5 minute intervals until a maximum dose of 3 mg is reached. The heart rate can be slowed paradoxically if the dose is higher than 3 mg.

      The ALS bradycardia algorithm also suggests the following interim measures:
      Transcutaneous pacing
      Isoprenaline infusion 5 mcg/min
      Adrenaline infusion 2-10 mcg/minutes
      Alternative drugs (aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.

      Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Correct Answer: Nicardipine

      Explanation:

      End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.

      Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.

      Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.

      The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.
      An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You examine a 73-year-old patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic...

    Correct

    • You examine a 73-year-old patient who is experiencing a worsening of his chronic heart failure. Bumetanide was recently prescribed for him.

      Which of the following statements about bumetanide is correct?

      Your Answer: It has better intestinal absorption than furosemide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium, chloride, and potassium reabsorption by acting on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporter in the ascending loop of Henlé. This reduces the osmotic gradient that forces water out of the collecting duct system and prevents the formation of a hypertonic renal medulla. This has a strong diuretic effect on the body.

      It’s primarily used in patients with heart failure who aren’t responding to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency.

      In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. Bumetanide is 40 times more potent than furosemide, and one milligram is roughly equivalent to 40 milligrams of furosemide.

      Bumetanide also lowers the concentration of neuronal chloride, making GABA’s action more depolarizing. In the neonatal period, it is being studied as an antiepileptic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      56.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level...

    Correct

    • You examine a 48-year-old woman's blood results and notice that her glucose level is elevated. When you tell her about it, she tells you that her doctor recently ran some tests and discovered that she has impaired glucose tolerance.

      Which of the following medications has not been linked to a reduction in glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The following drugs have been linked to impaired glucose tolerance:
      Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide
      Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide
      Steroids, e.g. prednisolone
      Beta-blockers, e.g. atenolol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      267.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Due to severe palpitations, a 28-year-old woman is transported to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • Due to severe palpitations, a 28-year-old woman is transported to the Emergency Department by ambulance. Her heart rate is 180 beats per minute, and the rhythm strip shows supraventricular tachycardia. You intend to give adenosine.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for adenosine use?

      Your Answer: History of heart transplant

      Explanation:

      The purine nucleoside adenosine is used to diagnose and treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine works by stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening potassium channels that are sensitive to acetylcholine. This causes the atrioventricular (AV) node’s cell membrane to become hyperpolarized, slowing conduction by inhibiting calcium channels.

      Patients who have had a heart transplant are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg. Dipyridamole potentiates the effects of adenosine, so it should be used with caution in patients who are taking it.

      The use of adenosine is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Asthma
      COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
      Decompensated heart failure 
      Long QT syndrome
      AV block in the second or third degree
      Sinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses become (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Hypotension that is severe

      It has a half-life of less than 10 seconds and acts quickly within that time frame. The actions last between 10 and 20 seconds.
      Because of the short half-life of the drug, any side effects are usually only temporary. These are some of them:
      a feeling of impending doom
      Flushing of the face
      Dyspnoea
      Uncomfortable chest
      Tastes metallic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In the resus area of your Emergency Department, you are called to a...

    Correct

    • In the resus area of your Emergency Department, you are called to a VF cardiac arrest.

      During an adult VF arrest, which of the following points should be treated with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: After the 3 rd shock, once chest compressions have been resumed

      Explanation:

      In non-shockable (PEA/asystole) cardiac arrests, adrenaline should be given as soon as circulatory access is gained. The dose is 1 mg via IV or IO (10 mL of 1:10,000 or 1 mL of 1:1000).

      Once chest compressions have been resumed after the third shock in a shockable (Vf/pVT) cardiac arrest, adrenaline should be administered. The dosage is one milligram (10 mL of 1:10,000 or 1 mL of 1:1000)

      It should be given every 3-5 minutes after that (i.e. alternate loops) and without interrupting chest compressions.
      Systemic vasoconstriction is caused by the alpha-adrenergic effects of adrenaline, which raises coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures.

      Adrenaline’s beta-adrenergic effects are inotropic (increased myocardial contractility) and chronotropic (increased heart rate), and they can increase coronary and cerebral blood flow. However, concomitant increases in myocardial oxygen consumption and ectopic ventricular arrhythmias (especially in the absence of acidaemia), transient hypoxemia due to pulmonary arteriovenous shunting, impaired microcirculation, and increased post-cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction may offset these benefits.

      Although there is no evidence of long-term benefit from its use in cardiac arrest, the improved short-term survival reported in some studies justifies its use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chest pain that is characteristic of angina. You administer a dose of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), which rapidly resolved his symptoms. Unfortunately, he also develops an unpleasant side effect.
      Which of the following side effects is he most likely to have developed? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Nitrates are used in the treatment of angina pectoris and the prevention of myocardial ischaemia. Commonly used examples of nitrates are glyceryl trinitrate and isosorbide dinitrate. Unwanted effects, however, are common and can limit therapy, particularly when angina is severe or when patients are unusually sensitive to the effects of nitrates.
      The following are common or very common side effects of nitrates
      Arrhythmias
      Asthenia
      Cerebral ischaemia
      Dizziness
      Drowsiness
      Flushing
      Headache
      Hypotension
      Nausea and vomiting
      Diarrhoea, syncope and cyanosis can occur, but these are rare side effects. Dry eyes, bradycardia and metabolic acidosis have not been reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. He was recently released from the hospital after receiving abciximab during coronary angioplasty.

      Which of the following is abciximab (ReoPro) mechanism of action?

      Your Answer: Antagonism of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with chest pain. Flecainide is one of the medications she is taking.

      Which of the following statements about flecainide mechanism of action is correct?

      Your Answer: Opens Na+ channels in the heart

      Correct Answer: Blocks Na+ channels in the heart

      Explanation:

      Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug of class Ic that works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channel in the heart, prolonging the cardiac action potential and slowing cardiac impulse conduction. It has a significant impact on accessory pathway conduction, particularly retrograde conduction, and significantly reduces ventricular ectopic foci.

      Many different arrhythmias can be treated with flecainide, including:
      Pre-excitation syndromes (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White)
      Acute atrial arrhythmias
      Ventricular arrhythmias
      Chronic neuropathic pain

      The use of flecainide is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Abnormal left ventricular function
      Atrial conduction defects (unless pacing rescue available)
      Bundle branch block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Distal block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Haemodynamically significant valvular heart disease
      Heart failure
      History of myocardial infarction
      Long-standing atrial fibrillation where conversion to sinus rhythm not attempted
      Second-degree or greater AV block (unless pacing rescue available)
      Sinus node dysfunction (unless pacing rescue available)

      Flecainide should only be used in people who don’t have a structural heart problem. The CAST trial found a significant increase in sudden cardiac death and all-cause mortality in patients with an ejection fraction of less than 40% after a myocardial infarction, where it tended to be pro-arrhythmic.

      Anti-arrhythmic drugs have a limited and ineffective role in the treatment of atrial flutter. It’s important to keep in mind that flecainide shouldn’t be used by itself to treat atrial flutter. When used alone, there is a risk of inducing 1:1 atrioventricular conduction, which results in an increase in ventricular rate that is paradoxical. As a result, it should be used in conjunction with a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker with a rate-limiting effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to your clinic with worsening oedema. She has ischaemic heart disease and heart failure. You decide to add a loop diuretic to her current drug regime to control the oedema. Which of the following is a contraindication to using a loop diuretic?

      Your Answer: Anuria

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics are drugs used to manage and treat fluid overload associated with CHF, liver cirrhosis, and renal disease. The drugs commonly used are:

      • Furosemide
      • Bumetanide
      • Torsemide
      • Ethacrynic Acid

      Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-Cl pump in the ascending loop of Henle, resulting in salt-water excretion. This relieves congestion and reduces oedema.

      The contra-indications to the use of loop diuretics are:
      1. Anuria
      2. Comatose and precomatose states associated with liver cirrhosis
      3. Renal failure due to nephrotoxic or hepatotoxic drugs
      4. Severe hypokalaemia
      5. Severe hyponatremia
      6. History of hypersensitivity to furosemide, bumetanide, or torsemide (or sulphonamides)

      The following conditions or states are not contraindications, but loop diuretics needs to be used cautiously in these conditions:
      1. Diabetes (but hyperglycaemia less likely than with thiazides)
      2. Gout
      3. Hypotension (correct before initiation of treatment)
      4. Hypovolaemia (Correct before initiation of treatment)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - One of your patients is in resuscitation and is suffering from kidney failure....

    Correct

    • One of your patients is in resuscitation and is suffering from kidney failure. The intensive care outreach team arrives to assess them and determines that a dopamine infusion is necessary.

      Dopamine primarily acts on which of the following receptors at low doses?

      Your Answer: Dopamine receptors

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a catecholamine that occurs naturally and is used to treat low cardiac output, septic shock, and renal failure. It is both adrenaline and noradrenaline’s immediate precursor.

      Dopamine acts on D1 and D2 dopamine receptors in the renal, mesenteric, and coronary beds at low doses (1-5 g/kg/min). Dopamine causes a significant decrease in renal vascular resistance and an increase in renal blood flow at these doses. Within this dose range, it is also involved in central modulation of behaviour and movement.

      Dopamine stimulates beta- and alpha-adrenergic receptors directly and indirectly at higher doses. Beta-stimulation predominates at a rate of 5-10 g/kg/min, resulting in a positive inotropic effect that increases cardiac output and coronary blood flow. Alpha-stimulation predominates at infusion rates greater than 15 g/kg/min, resulting in peripheral vasoconstriction and an increase in venous return and systolic blood pressure.

      Below is a summary of the mechanisms and effects of various inotropic agents:
      Inotrope
      Mechanism
      Effects
      Adrenaline (epinephrine)
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
      Mainly alpha-agonist;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses
      Vasoconstriction;
      Some increased cardiac output
      Dopamine
      Dopamine agonist at low doses;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Dobutamine
      Mainly beta-1 agonist
      Increased cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute myocardial infarction is revealed by his ECG. Clopidogrel is one of the medications he takes as part of his treatment.

      Clopidogrel's direct mechanism of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of platelet ADP receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel, a thienopyridine derivative, prevents platelet aggregation and cross-linking by the protein fibrin by inhibiting the ADP receptor on platelet cell membranes (inhibits binding of ADP to its platelet receptor (P2Y12 ADP-receptor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male has presented with chest pain characteristic of angina pectoris. Before initiating treatment with Glyceryl nitrate, you examine the patient and find a murmur. The patient reveals that he has a heart valve disorder, and you immediately put a hold on the GTN order.

      Which of the following valve disorders is an absolute contraindication to the use of GTN?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris is the most common symptom of ischemic heart disease and presents with chest pain relieved by rest and nitro-glycerine.

      Nitrates are the first-line treatment to relieve chest pain caused by angina. The commonly used nitrates are:
      1. Nitro-glycerine (NTG) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis), acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, hypertension
      2. Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) – chronic angina pectoris (treatment)
      3. Isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN) – angina pectoris (treatment/prophylaxis)

      The nitrate drugs cause vasodilation via the action of nitric oxide.

      The contraindications to the use of nitrate are the following:
      1. Allergy to nitrates
      2. Concomitant use of phosphodiesterases (PDE) inhibitors such as tadalafil and sildenafil
      3. Right ventricular infarction
      4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
      5. Cardiac tamponade
      6. Constrictive pericarditis
      7. Hypotensive conditions
      8. Hypovolaemia
      9. Marked anaemia
      10. Mitral stenosis
      11. Raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral haemorrhage or head trauma
      12. Toxic pulmonary oedema

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic...

    Correct

    • Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels. The phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.

      A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker is, for example, which of the following?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blockers, also known as calcium antagonists, stop calcium from entering cells through the L-type calcium channel. This causes vascular smooth muscle in vessel walls to relax, resulting in a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance.
      They can be used for a variety of things, including:
      Hypertension
      Angina
      Atrial fibrillation
      Migraine

      Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels.

      Dihydropyridines have a high vascular selectivity and lower systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. As a result, they’re frequently used to treat hypertension. Modified release formulations are also used to treat angina, but their powerful systemic vasodilator and pressure-lowering effects can cause reflex cardiac stimulation, resulting in increased inotropy and tachycardia, which can counteract the beneficial effects of reduced afterload on myocardial oxygen demand.

      The suffix -dpine distinguishes dihydropyridines from other pyridines. Examples of dihydropyridines that are commonly prescribed include:
      Amlodipine
      Felodipine
      Nifedipine
      Nimodipine

      The phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.

      Phenylalkylamines are less effective as systemic vasodilators because they are relatively selective for the myocardium. This group of drugs lowers myocardial oxygen demand and reverses coronary vasospasm, making them useful in the treatment of angina. They are also occasionally used to treat arrhythmias. A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker like verapamil is an example.

      In terms of selectivity for vascular calcium channels, benzothiazepines fall somewhere between dihydropyridines and phenylalkylamines. They can lower arterial pressure without producing the same level of reflex cardiac stimulation as dihydropyridines because they have both cardiac depressant and vasodilator effects. Diltiazem is the only benzothiazepine currently in clinical use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man with a long history of depression presents after intentionally overdoing his heart medication. Verapamil immediate-release 240 mg is the tablet he takes for this condition, he says. He took the pills about 30 minutes ago, but his wife discovered him right away and rushed him to the emergency room.

      At the moment, he is completely symptom-free. When it comes to this type of overdose, how long does it usually take for symptoms to appear?

      Your Answer: 1-2 hours

      Explanation:

      Overdosing on calcium-channel blockers should always be taken seriously and regarded as potentially fatal. Verapamil and diltiazem are the two most lethal calcium channel blockers in overdose. These work by binding the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, preventing calcium from entering the cell. In cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells, these channels play an important role.

      >10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem can cause serious toxicity (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules)

      In children, 1-2 tablets of verapamil or diltiazem (immediate or sustained-release)

      Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of ingestion with standard preparations. However, with slow-release preparations, significant toxicity may take 12-16 hours to manifest, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.

      The following are the main clinical features of calcium-channel blocker overdose:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Hypotension
      Bradycardia and first-degree heart block
      Myocardial ischaemia and stroke
      Renal failure
      Pulmonary oedema
      Hyperglycaemia

      The following are some of the most important bedside investigations to conduct:
      Blood glucose
      ECG
      Arterial blood gas
      Other investigations that can be helpful include
      Urea & electrolytes
      Chest X-ray (pulmonary oedema)
      Echocardiography

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 67-year-old female is admitted under your care with the complaint of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female is admitted under your care with the complaint of shortness of breath and massive pedal oedema. There are fine crepitations up to the mid zones on both lung fields on chest auscultation. When questioned about her medication, she doesn't remember everything she takes but knows that there is a tablet to get rid of excess water.

      Out of the following medications, which one increases the osmolality of the filtrate in the glomerulus and the tubule, creating an osmotic effect?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Mannitol

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that stops the absorption of water throughout the tubule, thus increasing the osmolality of both glomerular and tubular fluid. It is used to:
      1. decrease intraocular pressure in glaucoma
      2. decrease intracerebral pressure
      3. oliguria.

      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na/K/2Cl transported in the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle.

      Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic which inhibits the Na/Cl transporter.

      Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone receptor antagonist.

      Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man...

    Correct

    • Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man develops hypothyroidism.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has a very fast heartbeat' and is out of breath. He has had a heart transplant in the past. His electrocardiogram reveals supraventricular tachycardia.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate adenosine dose for him to receive as a first dose?

      Your Answer: Adenosine 3 mg IV

      Explanation:

      A rapid IV bolus of adenosine is given, followed by a saline flush. The standard adult dose is 6 mg, followed by 12 mg if necessary, and then another 12 mg bolus every 1-2 minutes until an effect is seen.

      Patients who have had a heart transplant, on the other hand, are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 62-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. You diagnose him with an acute coronary syndrome and prescribe enoxaparin as part of his treatment plan.

      Enoxaparin inactivates which of the following?

      Your Answer: Antithrombin III

      Correct Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that works in the same way as heparin by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin by forming a 1:1 complex with it. Factor Xa and a few other clotting proteases are also inhibited by the heparin-antithrombin III complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The patients listed below have been diagnosed with a variety of ailments.

    In which...

    Correct

    • The patients listed below have been diagnosed with a variety of ailments.

      In which of the following situations would aspirin be an effective treatment option?

      Your Answer: A 36-year-old with an acute migraine (dose of 900-1000 mg)

      Explanation:

      A study published in the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews in 2010 found that a single 1000-mg dose of aspirin is effective in treating acute migraine. It was discovered that 24 percent of aspirin users were pain-free after two hours, compared to 11 percent of placebo users. Because the BNF recommends a maximum dose of 900 mg for analgesia and most non-proprietary aspirin comes in a dose of 300 mg, a dose of 900 mg is frequently prescribed in the UK.

      Because aspirin is not recommended for children under the age of 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, it would be inappropriate to give it to the 12-year-old with the viral URTI.

      For uncomplicated dental pain, aspirin is an acceptable option, but not for patients who are taking warfarin. The combination of aspirin’s antiplatelet action and warfarin’s anticoagulation properties puts the patient at high risk of bleeding. Furthermore, aspirin can deplete the therapeutic levels of warfarin by displacing it from plasma proteins. It would be better to use another NSAID or analgesic.

      In gout, aspirin should be avoided because it reduces urate clearance in the urine and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, diclofenac, and indomethacin are better options.

      Although aspirin is useful for inflammatory pains, the dose of aspirin required for an adequate analgesic effect in severe pain is associated with significant side effects. Naproxen would be a better first-line treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      121.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (25/30) 83%
Pharmacology (25/30) 83%
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