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Question 1
Correct
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A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he has been irritable and feeding poorly for the last 24 hours. His CXR shows cardiomegaly but with clear lung fields while his ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia with difficulty identifying the P wave. The boy is conscious but has cold extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Synchronized DC cardio-version
Explanation:The most possible diagnosis is SVT. The boy is suffering from hemodynamic instability, as indicated by his cold extremities. DC cardioversion is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Correct
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An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 9 year old boy with central cyanosis underwent cardiac catheterization. His study results were given below:
- Right atrium 7 mmHg; Saturation 60 %
- Right ventricle 110/6 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
- Pulmonary artery 20/5 mmHg; Saturation 55 %
- Left atrium (mean) 9 mmHg; Saturation 98 %
- Left ventricle 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 87 %
- Aorta 110/80 mmHg; Saturation 76 %
Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Explanation:Key Observations:
- Cyanosis and Low Oxygen Saturation:
- Central cyanosis indicates mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
- The aortic oxygen saturation is low (76%), indicating a significant amount of deoxygenated blood entering systemic circulation.
- Pressure Analysis:
- The right ventricle pressure is significantly elevated (110/6 mmHg), suggesting an obstructive lesion like pulmonary stenosis or an increased volume load due to a shunt.
- The pulmonary artery pressure is low (20/5 mmHg) despite the high right ventricular pressure, suggesting an obstruction to flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, consistent with pulmonary stenosis.
- Oxygen Saturation Analysis:
- There is a notable drop in oxygen saturation from the left ventricle (87%) to the aorta (76%), indicating a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the systemic circulation, suggestive of a right-to-left shunt.
Differential Diagnosis:
- Pulmonary Stenosis:
- Supported by elevated right ventricular pressure and low pulmonary artery pressure.
- Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD):
- Would typically cause left-to-right shunting, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and higher oxygen saturation in the right ventricle and pulmonary artery, which is not observed here.
- Over-riding Aorta:
- Seen in conditions like Tetralogy of Fallot where the aorta receives blood from both the right and left ventricles, leading to mixed oxygen saturation.
- Right-to-Left Shunt:
- The data indicates a right-to-left shunt, with low oxygen saturation in the aorta, suggesting that deoxygenated blood is bypassing the lungs and entering systemic circulation.
- Aortic Stenosis:
- Typically presents with high left ventricular pressure and a pressure gradient between the left ventricle and the aorta, which is not observed here.
Conclusion:
Given the data, the most likely abnormalities present in this patient are Pulmonary Stenosis, Right-to-Left Shunt, and Over-riding Aorta. These findings are consistent with a condition like Tetralogy of Fallot, where all these features are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with vomiting. For the past 6 months she has been experiencing weight loss, poor appetite and lethargy. When the physician inquires about the possibility of these symptoms' beings self-induced, both the patient and her family deny. Lab reports show sodium 125 mmol/l, potassium 5.5 mmol/l, urea 7.9 mmol/l and creatinine 67 µmol/l. A blood gas shows a bicarbonate of 12.4 mmol/l. Which of the following is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Correct Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Addison disease is adrenocortical insufficiency due to the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. It affects glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function. The onset of disease usually occurs when 90% or more of both adrenal cortices are dysfunctional. The most common symptoms are fatigue, muscle weakness, loss of appetite, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Adrenal insufficiency can be caused by autoimmune disease or suddenly stopping steroid medicines used to treat other conditions, among other causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary infection. She now presents a few days later with signs of meningism. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a cancer of the lymphoid line of blood cells characterized by the development of large numbers of immature lymphocytes. Symptoms may include feeling tired, frequent infections with fever as well as anaemia with thrombocytopenia. As an acute leukaemia, ALL progresses rapidly and is typically fatal within weeks or months if left untreated. The patient’s age also favours the diagnosis of ALL as it occurs most commonly in children, particularly those between the ages of two and five.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genitourinary
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Question 7
Correct
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A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized tonic clonic seizures and reports 4 episodes in 2 weeks. Her teacher has reported that her attention span has deteriorated markedly which has affected her performance in studies. She often stops in the middle of tasks and forgets what she is doing. After discussing with the mother and the patient you decide to start medication. While speaking alone, the patient tells you that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes POPs (progestin only pills) but sometimes forgets to take them. which of the following anti-epileptic drug can be safely initiated in this patient?
Your Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Lamotrigine does not significantly increase risk of birth defects during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 8
Correct
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All of the following are disorders of the supra-renal glands except:
Your Answer: Di-George syndrome
Explanation:Among the given options, Di-George syndrome is not associated with adrenal gland disorders.Di-George syndrome is characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletionOther options:- Addison’s disease is a result of adrenal hypofunction and may present with collapse secondary to a salt-losing crisis.- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia: CAH is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme (classically 21-hydroxylase deficiency) in the biosynthetic pathway in the adrenal cortex, leading to insufficient production of cortisol and aldosterone, and a build-up of 17-hydroxyprogesterone.- Cushing’s syndrome is a syndrome of cortisol excess. An adrenal tumour is a primary cause.- Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine releasing tumour of the adrenal gland/s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Correct
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A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via Caesarean section because of pathological cardiotocography. The baby looks healthy and she has an Apgar score of 9, however, her RR is increased. The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN)
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in new-borns and self-limiting. It can affect any new-born shortly after birth. Its most prominent feature is tachypnoea. Nasal flaring, grunting, or intercostal retractions may also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?
Your Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit
Explanation:The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the primary reason for a written protocol?
Your Answer: Provide a power calculation
Correct Answer: Document the process of the trial in advance
Explanation:A written protocol is important in clinical research as it helps to decrease bias with early findings as the process of the trial has been documented in advance. To show that the study has been properly undertaken before commencing, the investigators must document their names| they must describe the process, detail the analysis that will be undertaken, and provide a power calculation. The ethics committee does not always need to see the protocol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the given features does NOT occur in association with aniridia?
Your Answer: Macular hypoplasia
Explanation:Aniridia is a genetic condition characterized by defects in the formation of a normal iris. The iris may be completely absent or only partially. One of the types of aniridia may be associated with other abnormalities like cataracts, glaucoma, corneal clouding, and nystagmus. The third type of aniridia is associated with intellectual disability, while a fourth type occurs in association with Wilm’s tumour. Aniridia may also be associated with amblyopia and buphthalmos, but macular hypoplasia is not a feature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show a WBC = 1.7 X 104/L, Hb = 7.1 g/dl and platelets = 44 X 104g/dl. His parents mention that he suffers from fatigue while at presentation he looks pale and has a fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is an aggressive type of blood and bone marrow cancer which can appear in childhood. Signs of childhood ALL include: Fever, Easy bruising, Petechiae, Bone or joint pain, Painless lumps in multiple areas of the body, Weakness, fatigue or paleness, and Loss of appetite. Blood tests may show elevated white blood cells, decreased values of red blood cells and low platelet count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: It may lead to prolongation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism (CH) is inadequate thyroid hormone production in new-born infants. It can occur because of an anatomic defect in the gland, an inborn error of thyroid metabolism, or iodine deficiency.CH is the most common neonatal endocrine disorder, and historically, thyroid dysgenesis was thought to account for approximately 80% of cases. However, studies have reported a change in the epidemiology, with a doubling in incidence to around 1 in 1500 live new-borns.​Infants with congenital hypothyroidism are usually born at term or after term. Symptoms and signs include the following:Decreased activityLarge anterior fontanellePoor feeding and weight gainSmall stature or poor growthJaundiceDecreased stooling or constipationHypotoniaHoarse cryProlonged neonatal jaundice or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of seizures in the weeks before and after a dietary intervention. The decrease in seizures is on average 20. (95% CI=15 to 25| P=0.0024)Which of the following options is true?
Your Answer: The confidence interval shows that the diet is associated with clinically important falls in seizure rate
Correct Answer: This is a before and after study with no control group and so the results should be viewed with great caution
Explanation:While the results of this before and after study can provide some preliminary insight into the effects of the dietary intervention, the results should be viewed with great caution as they may be considered merely anecdotal. The lack of a control group contributes to confounding the data. Therefore, while the difference may be statistically significant and the confidence interval is compatible with a fall in the number of seizures after therapy, the results cannot be introduced as the standard without a control group to compare with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with a day's history of urticarial rash.While addressing the parents' query on the cause of the rash, what would be the most appropriate statement?
Your Answer: Individual lesions tend to last for > 24 hours and then resolve
Correct Answer: The rash may be due to a viral infection
Explanation:The most common cause of acute urticaria is a viral infection. Individual lesions typically are short-lived and last less than 24 hours. Urticaria can be due to or can be made worse by cold temperatures. One of the other causes of urticaria is salicylic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An abnormal red reflex is NOT a characteristic feature of which of the following ocular pathologies?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Amblyopia
Explanation:The red reflex examination is an important part of the paediatric ocular assessment. The red reflex is abnormal in conditions like retinoblastoma, retinopathy of prematurity, cataract, and retinal detachment. Amblyopia is a cortical developmental disorder that results in defective visual inputs to both the eyes. The disorder occurs during the cortical plasticity stage of embryonic development. The red reflex is normal in this case since there is no hindrance to the reflection of light from the ocular media and fundus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 17-year-old teenage girl presents with a systolic blood pressure of 170 mmHg in all four limbs. Femoral pulses are palpable. Physical examination revealed several large café-au-lait patches and axillary freckling. The girl’s father died of intracerebral haemorrhage associated with hypertension at the age of 50. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of hypertension in this patient?
Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:The patient shows features of neurofibromatosis. The most likely cause for hypertension in this patient would be renal artery stenosis.Note:Neurofibromatosis is an inherited autosomal dominant disorder which could have affected this girl’s father, and she appears to have the classic skin lesions. A renal bruit might be heard in these patients. Polycystic kidney disease can occur in association with tuberous sclerosis, which also has skin lesions associated (different from those described in this patient). Most causes of hypertension in childhood have underlying renal causes, and a renal ultrasound with doppler is the first-line investigation of choice. Even if this is normal, further imaging would be indicated here, for example, isotope renal scans and angiography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?
Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:MMR vaccine is a live vaccine. It contains measles, mumps and rubella. These vaccines should be avoided during chemotherapy and for 6 months after.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty.While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?
Your Answer: Change in voice
Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume
Explanation:In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement| the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A mother attends the clinic with her 4-year-old. She has noticed a discharge from the his left ear over the past two weeks. He has a history of frequent episodes of ‘ear infection’ but has been otherwise well. There is no reported fever. On examination, the child is systemically well. The child is co-operative with otoscopy which shows an intact pink tympanic membrane on the right but a possible perforation on the left. What is the next best step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for ENT opinion
Explanation:The child has Chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) which is defined as a perforated tympanic membrane with persistent drainage from the middle ear for more than 2-6 weeks.CSOM differs from chronic serous otitis media in that chronic serous otitis media may be defined as a middle ear effusion without perforation that is reported to persist for more than 1-3 months. Patients with chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) present with a draining ear of some duration and a premorbid history of recurrent acute otitis media, traumatic perforation, or the placement of ventilation tubes. Typically, they deny pain or discomfort. A common presenting symptom is hearing loss in the affected ear. Reports of fever, vertigo, and pain should raise concerns about infratemporal or intracranial complications. A history of persistent CSOM after appropriate medical treatment should alert the physician to consider cholesteatoma.The external auditory canal may or may not be oedematous and is not typically tender. The discharge varies from fetid, purulent, and cheese like to clear and serous. Granulation tissue is often seen in the medial canal or middle ear space. The middle ear mucosa visualized through the perforation may be oedematous or even polypoid, pale, or erythematous.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old autistic boy arrives at the clinic with lethargy, curly corkscrew like hair and petechiae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Presentation can vary by individual. Early stages are often characterized by malaise, fatigue, and lethargy. One to 3 months of inadequate intake can lead to anaemia, myalgia, bone pain, easy bruising (Figure 3), swelling, petechiae, perifollicular haemorrhages, corkscrew hairs, gum disease, poor wound healing, mood changes, and depression. Perifollicular haemorrhages and easy bruising are often first seen in the lower extremities, as capillary fragility leads to an inability to withstand hydrostatic pressure. Late stages of scurvy are more severe and life threatening| common manifestations include generalized oedema, severe jaundice, haemolysis, acute spontaneous bleeding, neuropathy, fever, convulsions, and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 12 year old boy with type I diabetes was reluctant to go to school. According to him, he was unhappy at the school. Which of the following is the next appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical psychologist
Explanation:The child’s problem should be assessed properly to find the reason for unhappiness at the school. There can be many reasons such as bullying at school, abuse etc. A clinical psychologist should assess this child to take the necessary details and plan the further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Leaner disease is associated with which of the given facts?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is associated with failure to thrive
Explanation:Leiner disease belongs to a heterogeneous group of disorders associated with permanent or temporary complement C5 plasma deficiency. It is a rare disease that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission. It is prevalent in female, breast-fed babies. The hallmark of this syndrome is severe diarrhoea, severe generalized seborrheic dermatitis, central nervous system defects, marked wasting, recurrent local and systemic infections, and failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle following a fall from his bicycle.Which vessel is at the highest risk of injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclavian vein
Explanation:Being anatomically situated immediately posterior to the subclavius muscle and the medial part of the clavicle, the subclavian vein is at the highest risk of injury in the above patient.As a direct tributary of the brachiocephalic vein, it’s injury poses a high risk of massive bleeding.The brachiocephalic vein rests on the first rib, below and in front of the third part of the subclavian artery, and then on scalenus anterior which separates it from the second part of the artery (posteriorly).Anatomy of the clavicle:The clavicle extends from the sternum to the acromion and helps prevent the shoulder falling forwards and downwards.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage with no ventricular dilation while on the ventilator. What advice should ideally be given to the parents in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is probable that there will be no significant long-term effects but his development will be closely followed just in case
Explanation:There are four types of IVH. These are called grades and are based on the degree of bleeding.Grades 1 and 2 involve a smaller amount of bleeding. Most of the time, there are no long-term problems as a result of the bleeding. Grade 1 is also referred to as germinal matrix haemorrhage (GMH).Grades 3 and 4 involve more severe bleeding. The blood presses on (grade 3) or directly involves (grade 4) brain tissue. Grade 4 is also called an intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Blood clots can form and block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This can lead to increased fluid in the brain (hydrocephalus).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with unilateral headache that affects the left side of his head and face. His left eye is red and he scores 7/10 on pain assessment. The headache develops suddenly and unexpectedly after he returns from school. He has a history of six such episodes this year. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches present with unilateral severe headache that may be associated with ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms including| lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, ophthalmic injection, and occasionally, Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of 0.256.Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The paired differences are not significantly different from zero on average
Explanation:The paired sample t-test, sometimes called the dependent sample t-test, is a statistical procedure used to determine whether the mean difference between two sets of observations is zero. In a paired sample t-test, each subject or entity is measured twice, resulting in pairs of observations. Common applications of the paired sample t-test include case-control studies or repeated-measures designs.Statistical significance is determined by looking at the p-value. The p-value gives the probability of observing the test results under the null hypothesis. The lower the p-value, the lower the probability of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true. Thus, a low p-value indicates decreased support for the null hypothesis. However, the possibility that the null hypothesis is true and that we simply obtained a very rare result can never be ruled out completely. The cut-off value for determining statistical significance is ultimately decided on by the researcher, but usually a value of .05 or less is chosen. This corresponds to a 5% (or less) chance of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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