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  • Question 1 - Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone?

      Your Answer: Parafollicular cells

      Correct Answer: Chief cells

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid chief cells, also known as parathyroid principal cells or parathyroid cells, are the most prevalent type of cell in the parathyroid gland and the only ones present at birth. They secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances inhibits pancreatic secretion?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic polypeptide

      Explanation:

      Number of hormones and neurotransmitters can stimulate and inhibit pancreatic exocrine secretion. Cholecystokinin, secretin, vasoactive intestinal peptide and substance P stimulate pancreatic secretion. Pancreatic polypeptide, somatostatin inhibit pancreatic secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which vitamin plays a major role in the metabolism of many amino acids?...

    Incorrect

    • Which vitamin plays a major role in the metabolism of many amino acids?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B6

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B6 is part of the vitamin B group, and its active form, pyridoxal 5′-phosphate (PLP) serves as a coenzyme in many enzyme reactions in amino acid, glucose, and lipid metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes: ...

    Incorrect

    • The function of ATP in cardiac muscle contraction includes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binding to myosin after the power stroke to allow uncoupling of actin and myosin

      Explanation:

      After calcium binds to the troponin C, there is a conformational change in the structure of troponin I and tropomyosin, which moves out of the way and frees the site where myosin can bind to actin. This results in the formation of the cross linkage of the actin and myosin giving rise to the power stroke in the contraction phase. This occurs with the release of ADP. When ATP combines to this complex it breaks and the cycle repeats itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The following determines the strength of contraction ...

    Incorrect

    • The following determines the strength of contraction

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plateau phase

      Explanation:

      The plateau phase which follows is unique to myocytes and results from a small, but sustained inward calcium current through L-type calcium channels lasting 200-400 ms. This calcium influx is caused by a combined increase in permeability of the cell and especially the sarcolemmal membranes to calcium. This plateau (or refractory) phase in myocyte action potential prevents early reactivation of the myocytes and directly determines the strength of contraction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of: ...

    Incorrect

    • Initial depolarization of cardiac muscle is due to influx of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Initial depolarization of the cardiac muscle results from opening of the sodium voltage gated channels. This results in the influx of sodium and an increase in the membrane potential towards threshold. Potassium efflux results in repolarization.

      The cardiac action potential has 5 phases:

      • Phase 0—depolarization because of the opening of fast sodium channels. Potassium flux also decreases.
      • Phase 1—partial repolarization because of a rapid decrease in sodium ion passage as fast sodium channels close.
      • Phase 2—plateau phase in which the movement of calcium ions out of the cell, maintains depolarization.
      • Phase 3—repolarization, sodium, and calcium channels all close and membrane potential returns to baseline.
      • Phase 4—resting membrane potential (−90 mV), resulting from the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump which creates a negative intracellular potential because of the exchange of three sodium ions for only two potassium ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is true about chromosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about chromosomes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Vitamin K deficiency can be found in which of the following condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Vitamin K deficiency can be found in which of the following condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestatic jaundice

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K1-deficiency may occur by disturbed intestinal uptake (such as would occur in a bile duct obstruction), by therapeutic or accidental intake of a vitamin K1-antagonist such as warfarin, or, very rarely, by nutritional vitamin K1 deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tubular interstitial cells

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Where is Vitamin B12 mainly stored in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is Vitamin B12 mainly stored in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      The total amount of vitamin B12 stored in body is about 2–5 mg in adults. Around 50% of this is stored in the liver. Approximately 0.1% of this is lost per day by secretions into the gut, as not all these secretions are reabsorbed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The central veins in the liver: ...

    Incorrect

    • The central veins in the liver:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coalesce to form the hepatic vein

      Explanation:

      The central veins coalesce to form the hepatic vein which in turn drains into the inferior vena cava. The portal vein mainly carries blood from different parts of the GIT and is not drained to the inferior vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Cholinergic nerves from the vagus innervate the SA and AV nodes via which...

    Incorrect

    • Cholinergic nerves from the vagus innervate the SA and AV nodes via which receptor in the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: M2 receptor

      Explanation:

      M2 receptor is found in the heart. M3 and M4 are associated with smooth muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is not completely produced in the liver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor viii

      Explanation:

      Factor VIII is produced in liver sinusoidal cells and endothelial cells outside of the liver throughout the body. This protein circulates in the bloodstream in an inactive form, bound to another molecule called von Willebrand factor, until an injury that damages blood vessels occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vagus nerve mainly supplies the AV node?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left vagus

      Explanation:

      As the AV node develops from the left side of the embryo It is supplied by the left vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - If O2 makes up 21% of air, then at one atmosphere (760mmHg) it...

    Incorrect

    • If O2 makes up 21% of air, then at one atmosphere (760mmHg) it would be expected that the PO2 of inspired air should be 0,21 x 760 = 160mmHg. In the alveoli the actual measure is 149mmHg because…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Water is equilibrated with air

      Explanation:

      There are several factors that determine the value of alveolar partial oxygen pressure including: the pressure of outside air, the partial pressure of inspired oxygen and carbon dioxide, the rates of total body oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production, the rates of alveolar ventilation and perfusion. The alveolar partial pressure is lower than the atmospheric oxygen partial pressure. One reason is, as the air enters the lungs, it is humidified by the upper airway and thus the partial pressure of water vapour reduces the oxygen partial pressure as water is equilibrated with air.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride.The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dihydrotestosterone

      Explanation:

      Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.Finasteride is a 5α-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly. Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts act in the distal convoluted tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately: ...

    Incorrect

    • Myocardial fibers have a resting membrane potential of approximately:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: -90mv

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential of the mammalian heart is about -90 mv.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is least recognised as a potential complication of acromegaly?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is least recognised as a potential complication of acromegaly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mental retardation

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly is a condition that results from excess growth hormone (GH) after the growth plates have closed. It is typically due to the pituitary gland producing too much growth hormone. In more than 95% of people the excess production is due to a benign tumour, known as a pituitary adenoma. The condition is not inherited.Complications:Severe headacheArthritis and carpal tunnel syndromeEnlarged heartLiver fibrosis and bile duct hyperplasiaHypertensionDiabetes mellitus (excess of GH leads to insulin resistance)Heart failureKidney failureColorectal cancerCompression of the optic chiasm leading to loss of vision in the outer visual fields (typically bitemporal hemianopia.)Increased palmar sweating and sebum production over the face (seborrhoea) are clinical indicators of active GH-producing pituitary tumours.hypertensiondiabetes (>10%)cardiomyopathycolorectal cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the most important determinant of ECF volume? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important determinant of ECF volume?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The amount of sodium in the ECF

      Explanation:

      The volume of the ECF is determined primarily by the total amount of osmotically active solute in the ECF. The composition of the ECF is discussed in Chapter 1. Because Na+ and Cl− are by far the most abundant osmotically active solutes in ECF, and because changes in Cl− are to a great extent secondary to changes in Na+, the amount of Na+ in the ECF is the most important determinant of ECF volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to the emergency department as he had become increasingly confused over the past two days. He had vomiting and diarrhoea. He was also consuming and passing a lot of water.On examination, he was disoriented. He had vertical nystagmus and was ataxic.What two investigations are likely to lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin test and serum lithium level

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin test (done to differentiate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from central diabetes insipidus), and serum lithium levels can together confirm a diagnosis of lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.Bipolar disease is most often managed with mood stabilizers like lithium. This patient develops gastrointestinal symptoms followed by an acute confusional state associated with polyuria and polydipsia. These symptoms are suggestive of diabetes insipidus.In a case where these symptoms occur in a bipolar patient under treatment, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus should be considered as the most probable cause.Lithium intoxication can present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, mental dullness, action tremor, weakness, ataxia, slurred speech, blurred vision, dizziness, especially vertical nystagmus and stupor or coma. Diffuse myoclonic twitching and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also occur. Such a clinical syndrome occurs above the serum level of lithium of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L.Management: – Correcting electrolyte abnormalities in patients with acute disease is critical and often life-saving.- Treatment should be initiated with parenteral fluids to replete hypovolemia (normal saline at 200-250 mL/h), followed by administration of hypotonic fluid (0.5% normal saline). – On the restoration of the volume status of the patient forced diuresis should be initiated by the administration of parenteral furosemide or bumetanide accompanied by continued intravenous hypotonic fluid administration to maintain volume status.- Polyuria is managed with hydrochlorothiazide combined with amiloride, acetazolamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she has been experiencing for the last 4 weeks. She does not remember getting injured previously. The pain worsens on movement especially when she is moving the arm quickly. At night, lying on the affected side is painful. Examination reveals no erythema or swelling. However, pain is felt on passive abduction between 60 to 120 degrees and she is unable to abduct the arm past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis

      Explanation:

      Supraspinatus tendinopathy is a common and disabling condition that becomes more prevalent after middle age and is a common cause of pain in the shoulder. A predisposing factor is resistive overuse. This patient has the classic painful arc that is a sign of shoulder impingement characteristic of supraspinatus tendonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site...

    Incorrect

    • Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole

      Explanation:

      The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in a night club. His friends who accompanied him admit that, of recent, he has been using increasing amounts of cocaine. Which among the following is commonly associated with cocaine overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic acidosis is associated with cocaine overdose. In overdose, cocaine leads to agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, hallucinations, and finally convulsions. Metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, and ventricular arrhythmias also occur.Chronic use may be associated with premature coronary artery disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage.There are 3 stages for acute cocaine toxicity:Stage I: CNS symptoms of headache, vertigo, pseudo hallucinations, hyperthermia, hypertension. Stage II: increased deep tendon reflexes, tachypnoea, irregular breathing, hypertension.Stage III: Areflexia, coma, fixed and dilated pupils, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, apnoea, and respiratory failure.Treatment:- Airway, breathing, and circulation to be secured. The patient’s fever should be managed, and one should rule out hypoglycaemia as a cause of the neuropsychiatric symptoms. – Cardiovascular toxicity and agitation are best-treated first-line with benzodiazepines to decrease CNS sympathetic outflow.- The mixed beta/alpha blocker labetalol is safe and effective for treating concomitant cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia.- Non-dihydropyridine calcium channels blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil have been shown to reduce hypertension reliably, but not tachycardia. – Dihydropyridine agents such as nifedipine should be avoided, as reflex tachycardia may occur. – The alpha-blocker phentolamine has been recommended but only treats alpha-mediated hypertension and not tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is true for P53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P53:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      P53 gene is activated as a result of damaged DNA and if that cannot be repaired then it activates apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)Nausea and vomiting: 50%Vertigo: 50%Confusion: 30%Subjective weakness: 20%Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, deathCherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.Management• 100% oxygen• Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Where does most fat digestion begin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does most fat digestion begin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Digestion of some fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine (in the duodenum). The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Primary aldosteronism, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism or Conn’s syndrome, is excess production of the hormone aldosterone by the adrenal glands resulting in low renin levels. Primary hyperaldosteronism has a number of causes. About 66% of cases are due to enlargement of both adrenal glands and 33% of cases are due to an adrenal adenoma that produces aldosterone. Other uncommon causes include adrenal cancer and an inherited disorder called familial hyperaldosteronism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy

      Explanation:

      Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Major supplies of glycogen are found in …. ...

    Incorrect

    • Major supplies of glycogen are found in ….

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver and skeletal muscle

      Explanation:

      The two major sites of glycogen storage are the liver and skeletal muscle. The concentration of glycogen is higher in the liver than in muscle however more glycogen is stored in skeletal muscle due to its greater mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual...

    Incorrect

    • The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual reflexes.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior colliculus

      Explanation:

      The tectum is a part of the midbrain, specifically, the dorsal part of the midbrain. The tectum consists of the superior and inferior colliculi. The superior colliculus is involved in preliminary visual processing and control of eye movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Interruption of the entero-hepatic circulation causes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Interruption of the entero-hepatic circulation causes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The amount of fat in the stool to be increased

      Explanation:

      Enterohepatic circulation refers to the circulation of biliary acids, bilirubin, drugs, or other substances from the liver to the bile, followed by entry into the small intestine, absorption by the enterocyte and transport back to the liver. One of the causes of the interruption of enterohepatic circulation is the resection of the ileum where fat is mainly absorbed. Fat malabsorption results in increased fat in stools. Pale stools and dark urine is caused by obstruction of the biliary ductal system especially the common bile duct where urobilin and stercobilin are formed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The a-wave is created by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The a-wave is created by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regurgitation of some blood to the great veins when the atria contracts in atrial systole

      Explanation:

      The a-wave created on the venous pulse curve occurs as a result of atrial systole. Due to the pressure build-up in the atria, it causes a back pressure in the vena cava. This pressure is exerted on the valve and this back pressure is what causes a slight increase in the venous pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Embryologically the anterior pituitary is formed from? ...

    Incorrect

    • Embryologically the anterior pituitary is formed from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rathkes pouch

      Explanation:

      The ectoderm, located in the roof of the pharynx, forms Rathke’s pouch, which comes into contact with the ectoderm of the developing brain. The pouch eventually separates from the pharynx, becoming the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which vitamin is found in NAD and NADP? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vitamin is found in NAD and NADP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B3

      Explanation:

      In organisms, NAD can be synthesized from simple building-blocks (de novo) from the amino acids tryptophan or aspartic acid. In an alternative fashion, more complex components of the coenzymes are taken up from food as the vitamin called niacin (vitamin B3)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which is the primary lymphoid organ? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the primary lymphoid organ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thymus

      Explanation:

      Lymphoid organs consist of lymph nodes, the thymus, spleen and tonsils. The thymus is the primary lymphoid organ as it is the organ in which the T cells mature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Water hammer pulse is found in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Water hammer pulse is found in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Watson’s water hammer pulse is the medical sign which describes a pulse that is bounding and forceful, rapidly increasing and subsequently collapsing, as if it were the sound of a water hammer that was causing the pulse. A water hammer was a Victorian toy in which a tube was half filled with fluid, the remainder being a vacuum. The child would invert and reinvert the tube; each time the impact of the fluid at each end would sound like a hammer blow. This is associated with increased stroke volume of the left ventricle and decrease in the peripheral resistance leading to the widened pulse pressure of aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?...

    Incorrect

    • The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - The process by which RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred...

    Incorrect

    • The process by which RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Northern blotting

      Explanation:

      Blots of the gel can be made from using nitrocellulose paper. Northern blots are produced when a fragment of radioactive DNA hybridize with RNA on a nitrocellulose blot of a gel and southern blots are produced when DNA hybrize with DNA on a nitrocellulose blot of the gel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Yellow nail syndrome is a very rare medical syndrome that includes pleural effusions, lymphedema (due to under development of the lymphatic vessels) and yellow dystrophic nails. Approximately 40% will also have bronchiectasis. It is also associated with chronic sinusitis and persistent coughing and it usually affects adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following is an example of a ketone body? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an example of a ketone body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetoacetate

      Explanation:

      Ketone bodies are three water-soluble molecules (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and their spontaneous breakdown product, acetone) that are produced by the liver from fatty acids during periods of low food intake (fasting), carbohydrate restrictive diets, starvation, prolonged intense exercise, alcoholism or in untreated (or inadequately treated) type 1 diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Which of the following intercellular connections is important in endothelial barrier function? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following intercellular connections is important in endothelial barrier function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tight junctions

      Explanation:

      Tight junctions surround the apical margins of the epithelial cells such as in the intestinal mucosa and the choroid plexus. They are also important to the endothelial barrier function. They are made up of ridges that adhere to each other strongly at the cell junction, obliterating the space completely between the cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - The basic unit of contraction in myocytes is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The basic unit of contraction in myocytes is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sarcomere

      Explanation:

      Sarcomere is the organelle where calcium is stored to be released during contraction of the muscle. It is the basic unit of contraction in striated muscle fibers. As myocytes are also striated muscles, sarcomeres also forms the basic unit of contraction. The impulses travel along the membrane and via its interaction with the dihydropyridine receptors it releases the stored calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the major motor proteins that interact with microtubules?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kinesin and dynein

      Explanation:

      The major motor proteins that interact with microtubules are kinesin, which usually moves toward the (+) end of the microtubule, and dynein, which moves toward the (−) end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which is true of the composition of bile in the human hepatic duct?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true of the composition of bile in the human hepatic duct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contains only actively secreted substances

      Explanation:

      Hepatic bile is an isotonic fluid and its electrolyte composition resembles that of plasma. 97% of water is found in the gallbladder bile, not hepatic duct. Hepatic bile is alkaline. The ratio of bile acids: phosphatidylcholine: cholesterol is 20:1:3. Hepatic bile contai9ns only actively secreted substances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Choose the correct answer: The cerebrocerebellum… ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct answer: The cerebrocerebellum…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All options are correct

      Explanation:

      Cerebrocerebellum is comprised of two lateral regions, the cerebellar hemispheres and communicates with the cerebral cortex. It is principally responsible for controlling coordination of movement. Three fiber bundles carry the input and output of the cerebellum. There are three cerebellar peduncles with different connections and functions. The three are mainly, superior, middle and inferior. The superior cerebellar peduncle is also known as the “Brachium conjunctivum”. It predominantly contains efferent fibers from the cerebellar nuclei, as well as some afferents from the spinocerebellar tract. The efferent pathways include cerebellorubral, dentatothalamic, and fastigioreticular fibers. These are tracts projecting from the deep cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus. The middle cerebellar peduncle connects to the pontine nucleus and the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts run through the superior cerebellar peduncle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is ...

    Incorrect

    • The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal lobe : primary somatosensory cortex

      Explanation:

      Parietal lobe: The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe. It is responsible for processing sensory information from the body.

      Frontal lobe: The primary motor cortex is located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe. The frontal lobe also contains the premotor cortex, which is involved in planning movements. The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, not the frontal lobe.

      Temporal lobe: The primary auditory cortex is located in the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe. The primary motor and premotor cortices are located in the frontal lobe, not the temporal lobe.

      Occipital lobe: The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe. The primary auditory cortex is located in the temporal lobe, not the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of the following structures is not part of the conducting system of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is not part of the conducting system of the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular wall

      Explanation:

      The conduction system of the heart consists of the SA node, AV node, internodal pathway between these two nodes, Bundle of His and the purkinje fibers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache, fever and malaise. He also complains of scalp sensitivity while combing his hair. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following would be the definite test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling, and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pepsinogen 1

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic juice, composed of the secretions of both ductal and acinar cells, is made up of the following digestive enzymes:Trypsinogen, which is an inactive(zymogenic) protease that, once activated in the duodenum into trypsin, breaks down proteins at the basic amino acids. Trypsinogen is activated via the duodenal enzyme enterokinase into its active form trypsin.Colipase is a protein co-enzyme required for optimal enzyme activity of pancreatic lipase. It is secreted by the pancreas in an inactive form, procolipase, which is activated in the intestinal lumen by trypsin.Chymotrypsinogen, which is an inactive (zymogenic) protease that, once activated by duodenal enterokinase, breaks down proteins at their aromatic amino acids. Chymotrypsinogen can also be activated by trypsin.Carboxypeptidase, which is a protease that takes off the terminal amino acid group from a proteinSeveral elastases that degrade the protein elastin and some other proteins.Pancreatic lipase that degrades triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.Sterol esterasePhospholipaseSeveral nucleases that degrade nucleic acids, like DNase and RNase.Pancreatic amylase that breaks down starch and glycogen which are alpha-linked glucose polymers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - What is pendrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is pendrin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cl-/i- antiporter

      Explanation:

      Pendrin is an anion exchange transporter; it is a sodium-independent chloride-iodine exchanger which also accepts formate and bicarbonate. It is present in many different types of cells in the body, particularly the inner ear, thyroid, and kidney. Mutations in pendrin are associated with Pendred syndrome, which causes syndromic deafness and thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.Parametric tests:Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlationNon-parametric tests:Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired dataWilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single samplechi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentagesSpearman, Kendall rank – correlation.The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann–Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - Digoxin causes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Digoxin causes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase in cytosolic calcium concentration

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a positive inotrope which inhibits NA/K ATPase, increases cardiac contractility and can cause hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb joint pain and lower backache for the past 2 weeks. He remembers getting a mild gastrointestinal infection while in Spain 6 weeks ago that settled spontaneously. There has been eye irritation that has now settled. Past surgical history includes an appendectomy 3 years back. Vital examination shows a temperature of 37.5 C. Lab results reveal a normal WBC and raised ESR. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor is likely to be negative

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. There usually is no rash and the diagnosis is unrelated to the presence of rheumatoid factor. This is a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with recurrent attacks of red eyes with a sensation of grittiness. Which of the following is most likely cause of the red eyes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory systemic disease associated with some extraarticular manifestations. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal changes, and retinal vasculitis are the most common ocular complications among extraarticular manifestations of RA. The overall prevalence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca also known as dry eye syndrome among patients of RA is 21.2% and is the most common with sense of grittiness in the eyes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Where is the majority of Mg2+ absorbed? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the majority of Mg2+ absorbed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle.

      Explanation:

      Although the majority of the filtered magnesium is reabsorbed within the ascending loop of Henle, it is now recognized that the distal tubule also plays an important role in magnesium conservation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which cells secrete insulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells secrete insulin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is synthesised and stored by the B cells of the pancreatic islets (70% of islet cells), glucagon is synthesised and stored in the A cells (20%) and somatostatin is synthesised and stored in the D cells (10%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - The principle by which the energy of contraction is proportional to the initial...

    Incorrect

    • The principle by which the energy of contraction is proportional to the initial length of cardiac muscle fiber is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Starling’s law

      Explanation:

      The Frank starling relationship describes that an increase in the venous return or the end diastolic volume will cause an increase in the stroke volume/ preload and also cardiac output. It stems from the fact that increase venous return will increase the stretch on the ventricular muscle fibers. The sarcomere will stretch a considerable length that is needed for maximum contraction and increased development of tension in the muscle fiber. The greater the venous return the greater the cardiac output. This relation is directly proportional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - The brainstem reticular formation, consists of which important control system responsible for consciousness...

    Incorrect

    • The brainstem reticular formation, consists of which important control system responsible for consciousness and sleep?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: RAS reticular activating system

      Explanation:

      The reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei that are located along the brainstem. Reticular activating system (RAS) is a set of connected nuclei in the brain that is responsible for regulating wakefulness and sleep wake transitions and is the most influential component in the reticular formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - The amount of a substance taken up by an organ (or whole body)...

    Incorrect

    • The amount of a substance taken up by an organ (or whole body) per unit time is = (the arterial level - the venous level) * the blood flow. This statement describes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Fick principle

      Explanation:

      The essence of the Fick principle is that blood flow to an organ can be calculated using a marker substance if the following information is known:- Amount of marker substance taken up by the organ per unit time- Concentration of marker substance in arterial blood supplying the organ- Concentration of marker substance in venous blood leaving the organ

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show:Hb: 11.8 g/dlPlatelets: 423 x 109/lWBC: 11.2 x 109/lNa+: 143 mmol/lK+: 3.9 mmol/lUrea: 6.2 mmol/lCreatinine: 78 μmol/lUric acid: 0.45 mmol/lCiprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs most notably in patients with haematological malignancies including, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) and Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia (ALL).Risk factors for TLS include:• Large tumour burden• Sensitivity of the tumour to chemotherapy• Rapid tumour growth rateTLS is characterized by:• Hyperuricemia• Hyperkalaemia• Hyperphosphatemia• HypocalcaemiaTreatment of TLS:• Allopurinol: It is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, it reduces the conversion of nucleic acid by-products to uric acid. Thus, it prevents urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Note: dose reduction is essential in renal failure or if given along with mercaptopurine or azathioprine.Alternatives to Allopurinol: Febuxostat; Rasburicase are useful in patients with hyperuricemia.• Hydration• Diuresis: Should be considered in well hydrated patients with insufficient urine output. Furosemide to be considered in normo-volemic patients with hyperkalaemia. Urine alkalization can be considered for promoting alkaline diuresis.• Treatment of electrolyte imbalances including hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcaemia.• Dialysis can be considered in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Intrinsic Factor is released by, ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrinsic Factor is released by,

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal cell

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor (IF), also known as gastric intrinsic factor (GIF), is a glycoprotein produced by the parietal cells of the stomach. It is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) later on in the small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a cause of a soft second heart sound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Second heart sound (S2) forms the dub of lub-dub and is composed of components A2 and P2. •    loud: hypertension•    soft: AS•    fixed split: physiological split (normally occurs during inhalation), right bundle branch block, pulmonary stenosis, and atrial septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:...

    Incorrect

    • The predominant site in the lymph node where T lymphocytes are found is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracortex

      Explanation:

      Paracortex is found between the cortex and the medulla and it is composed of a non-nodular type of arrangement that is mostly made up of T cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shortened by sympathetic stimulation

      Explanation:

      AV nodal delay Is about 0.1s before the action potential spreads to the ventricles. It is shortened by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and lengthened by stimulation of the parasympathetic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is associated with the temperature surge in hot flushes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      Luteinizing hormone or LH is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Studies have shown surges in LH levels during menopausal hot flushes, suggesting that a pulsatile release of LH is responsible for increased hypothalamic norepinephrine activity, causing the hot flushes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - The complex twisting and folding of peptide chains describes which order of protein...

    Incorrect

    • The complex twisting and folding of peptide chains describes which order of protein structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary structure

      Explanation:

      Secondary Structure refers to the coiling or folding of a polypeptide chain that gives the protein its 3-D shape. There are two types of secondary structures: the alpha (α) helix and the beta (β) pleated sheet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days.On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal:FBC: NormalU&E: NormalPlasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6)Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.Treatment:- The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam. – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.- Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.- It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The two strands of DNA are held together by cysteine bonds.

      Explanation:

      The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds formed between the nucleotide bases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly? ...

    Incorrect

    • The axons of the POST ganglionic neurons are mostly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C fibers

      Explanation:

      According to Erlanger- Grasser classification preganglionic fibers are B fibers whereas post ganglionic fibers are C fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of cough and intermittent haemoptysis for the last 3 months. He has a 50 pack year smoking history and is currently waiting for bronchoscopy to assess a left lower lobe collapse. The patient also has a marked muscle weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of his shoulders and pelvic girdle. His wife states that lately he has been unable to eat solids. Which of the following statements would be true regarding this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He may have a photosensitive facial rash

      Explanation:

      The patient has presented with signs of small cell lung cancer. The associated proximal muscle weakness is most probably due to dermatomyositis which occurs as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma. In most cases, the first symptom is a distinctive skin rash on the face, eyelids, chest, nail cuticle areas, knuckles, knees or elbows. The rash is patchy and usually a bluish-purple colour. Corticosteroids are helpful in the management of the cutaneous changes and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Glucose is typically removed from the urine by…? ...

    Incorrect

    • Glucose is typically removed from the urine by…?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary active transport

      Explanation:

      Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate, and some other solutes are resorbed via secondary active transport through co-transporters driven by the sodium gradient out of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of carbimazole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of the iodination of tyrosine

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is a pro-drug as after absorption it is converted to the active form, methimazole. Methimazole prevents thyroid peroxidase enzyme from coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, hence reducing the production of the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 (thyroxine).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Chief cells secrete: ...

    Incorrect

    • Chief cells secrete:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pepsinogen and gastric lipase

      Explanation:

      A gastric chief cell (or peptic cell, or gastric zymogenic cell) is a type of cell in the stomach that releases pepsinogen and gastric lipase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate management of a DVT during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin

      Explanation:

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is safe in pregnancy and is therefore the first line management. Warfarin is teratogenic and must be avoided whilst the other options have no role to play.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following is not a feature of Liddle’s syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a feature of Liddle’s syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant condition characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule, and is treated with a combination of low sodium diet and potassium-sparing diuretic drugs (e.g., amiloride).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - An exaggerated response to a noxious stimulus is called: ...

    Incorrect

    • An exaggerated response to a noxious stimulus is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperalgesia

      Explanation:

      Allodynia is the sensation of pain following non-painful stimulation.

      Hyperalgesia is enhanced intensity of pain sensation.

      Causalgia is a constant burning pain resulting from peripheral nerve injury.

      Hyperesthesia is the abnormal increase in sensitivity to stimuli of sense.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - The endothelium of the sinusoids has the following important function: ...

    Incorrect

    • The endothelium of the sinusoids has the following important function:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Highly fenestrated, large subendothelial spaces, many macrophages

      Explanation:

      Substances absorbed in the intestines reach the liver via the portal vein and contain toxic substances that needs to be detoxified in hepatocytes. Thus, hepatic sinusoids are fenestrated and contain large spaces which allows passage of substances freely. These fenestrations are rich in Kupffer cells which are macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apical surface of thick ascending limb

      Explanation:

      The Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) is a protein that aids in the active transport of sodium, potassium, and chloride into cells. In humans there are two isoforms of this membrane transport protein, NKCC1 and NKCC2. NKCC2 is specifically found in cells of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the macula densa in nephrons, the basic functional units of the kidney. Within these cells, NKCC2 resides in the apical membrane abutting the nephron’s lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
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  • Question 83 - Regarding Iron stores, which of the following contains the highest proportion of total...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Iron stores, which of the following contains the highest proportion of total body iron?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Most well-nourished people in industrialized countries have 4 to 5 grams of iron in their bodies. Of this, about 2.5 g is contained in the haemoglobin needed to carry oxygen through the blood, and most of the rest (approximately 2 grams in adult men, and somewhat less in women of childbearing age) is contained in ferritin complexes that are present in all cells, but most common in bone marrow, liver, and spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system is located in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures of the cardiac conduction system is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: AV node

      Explanation:

      AV node is located at the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the neuron has the highest concentration of sodium channels per square millimetre of the cell membrane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nodes of Ranvier

      Explanation:

      The nodes of Ranvier contain Na+/K+ ATPases, Na+/Ca2+ exchangers and a high density of Na+ channels. The estimated concentration of sodium channels in the node is of ∼1500/μm2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Pepsinogens are inactive pepsin precursors which are activated by ...

    Incorrect

    • Pepsinogens are inactive pepsin precursors which are activated by

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric acid

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by the action of hydrochloric acid i.e. gastric acid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality...

    Incorrect

    • In the event of an overdose, haemodialysis is ineffective as a treatment modality for which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricyclics

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic compounds can’t be cleared by haemodialysis.Drugs that can be cleared with haemodialysis include: (BLAST)- Barbiturate- Lithium- Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)- Salicylates- Theophyllines (charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable)Drugs which cannot be cleared with haemodialysis include:- Tricyclics- Benzodiazepines- Dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)- Digoxin- Beta-blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterized by patches of abnormal skin. These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly commonly on the extensor surfaces. Psoriasis is associated with an increased risk of psoriatic arthritis, lymphomas, cardiovascular disease, Crohn’s disease, and depression. Psoriatic arthritis affects up to 30% of individuals with psoriasis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response, rather than type 2 helper T cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following corresponds to an oblique line drawn from the sternal end of the left 3rd costal cartilage to the sternal end of the right 6th costal cartilage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular (coronary) groove

      Explanation:

      The AV groove corresponds to the right border of the heart. The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - In the absence of insulin: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the absence of insulin:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose uptake by most of the brain is normal

      Explanation:

      Although it is known that insulin levels affect glucose uptake, oxidation and storage in peripheral tissues, its role in the brain isn’t as clear. However, studies have shown that bulk brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin. Glucose transport into the neurons is GLUT3 dependent, and its transport into glia and brain endothelial cells rely on GLUT1. Insulin isn’t necessary for GLUT1 or GLUT3, which explains why brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Pancreatic juice is usually? ...

    Incorrect

    • Pancreatic juice is usually?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alkaline

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic juice is alkaline in nature and has a high amount of bicarbonate ions. About 1500 ml is secreted every day. It also contains a large quantity of enzymes in the inactive form.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which of the following would provide relief from nausea and vomiting? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would provide relief from nausea and vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannabinoids

      Explanation:

      Ondansetron, chlorpromazine and haloperidol are effective antiemetic agents. Corticosteroids, cannabinoids, and benzodiazepines, alone or in combination with 5-HT3 and D2 antagonists, are also useful in the treatment of vomiting produced by chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - In liver failure there is likely to be? ...

    Incorrect

    • In liver failure there is likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bleeding disorders

      Explanation:

      Liver failure can lead to several significant changes in the body’s physiology, but let’s review each option in the context of liver failure:

      1. Raised blood urea: This is not typical of liver failure. In liver failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are often low because the liver is not effectively converting ammonia to urea.
      2. Increase in the albumin/globulin ratio in the blood: This is incorrect. In liver failure, albumin production decreases, leading to a lower albumin/globulin ratio.
      3. Bleeding disorders: This is possible, but it often fluctuates. Liver failure can lead to both bleeding tendencies due to decreased production of clotting factors and a hypercoagulable state due to the reduced synthesis of anticoagulant proteins like Protein C and S.
      4. Stable blood glucose level: This is incorrect. Liver failure often causes hypoglycemia because the liver’s ability to produce glucose via gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis is impaired.
      5. Increased absorption of fat: This is incorrect. Liver failure can lead to decreased bile production, which is necessary for fat emulsification and absorption, resulting in decreased fat absorption.

      Given these points, the most likely option related to liver failure would actually be issues related to bleeding complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - The ‘c’ wave in JVP corresponds more closely with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The ‘c’ wave in JVP corresponds more closely with:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isovolumetric contraction

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections (peaks) and two downward deflections (troughs) have been described:The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the following is a granulocyte? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a granulocyte?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eosinophil

      Explanation:

      Granulocytes are a category of white blood cells characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm. There are three principal types of granulocytes, distinguished by their appearance under Wright’s stain:

      • Basophil granulocytes
      • Eosinophil granulocytes
      • Neutrophil granulocytes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - During which phase of the cardiac cycle does most of the ventricular filling...

    Incorrect

    • During which phase of the cardiac cycle does most of the ventricular filling occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular diastole

      Explanation:

      During the phase of ventricular diastole when the heart muscle relaxes and all the valves are open, blood flows easily into the heart. This is the phase of rapid ventricular filling. During isovolumetric contraction and relaxation the volume of blood in the heart does not change. During ventricular ejection blood enters into the aorta and pulmonary vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Which of the following correctly describes stages in the formation of CSF? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly describes stages in the formation of CSF?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      All the above are true for the formation of CSF

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Microtubule disassembly: ...

    Incorrect

    • Microtubule disassembly:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Occurs at the positive and negative end

      Explanation:

      Dynamic instability refers to the coexistence of assembly and disassembly at the ends of a microtubule. The microtubule can dynamically switch between growing and shrinking phases in this region. Although both assembly and disassembly occur at both ends they occur preferentially at the (+) end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which of the following is true for P 53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P 53:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Medicine (0/3) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
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