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  • Question 1 - Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer: X

      Explanation:

      The palatoglossal arch contains the palatoglossal muscle which is innervated by the vagus nerve which is the tenth cranial nerve. So the correct answer is X

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood...

    Incorrect

    • There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood to interstitial fluid of the muscle cells. Which of the following mechanisms best describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Active transport through endothelial cell membranes

      Correct Answer: Diffusion through channels between endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Capillaries are the smallest of the body’s blood vessels, measuring 5–10 μm and they help to enable the exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and many other nutrients and waste substances between the blood and the tissues surrounding them. The walls of capillaries are composed of only a single layer of cells, the endothelium. Ion channels are pore-forming proteins that help to establish and control the small voltage gradient that exists across the plasma membrane of all living cells by allowing the flow of ions down their electrochemical gradient. An ion channel is an integral membrane protein or more typically an assembly of several proteins. The archetypal channel pore is just one or two atoms wide at its narrowest point. It conducts a specific ion such as sodium or potassium and conveys them through the membrane in single file.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      101.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to...

    Correct

    • Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      The correct order of structures is the tendon of tibialis posterior, tendon of flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery (and vein), tibial nerve and tendon of flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles? ...

    Incorrect

    • The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer: Superior gemellus

      Correct Answer: Obturator externus

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve supplies both gemellae, quadratus femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, both heads of the biceps femoris, the hamstring half of abductor magnus and obturator internus. Obturator externus is supplied by the obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      87.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?

      Your Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      68.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What forms the pelvic diaphragm? ...

    Correct

    • What forms the pelvic diaphragm?

      Your Answer: Levator ani and coccygeus muscles

      Explanation:

      The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the levator ani and the coccygeus muscles. The levator ani forms the greater part of the pelvic floor supporting the viscera in the pelvic cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the...

    Correct

    • A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?

      Your Answer: Iliohypogastric

      Explanation:

      The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.

      The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.

      The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.

      A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of...

    Correct

    • The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of a round lesion containing an air-fluid level in the left lung. These findings are most probably suggestive of:

      Your Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      Lung abscesses are collections of pus within the lung that arise most commonly as a complication of aspiration pneumonia caused by oral anaerobes. Older patients are more at risk due to poor oral hygiene, gingivitis an inability to handle their oral secretions due to other diseases. Chest X-ray most commonly reveals the appearance of an irregularly shaped cavity with an air-fluid level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Correct

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      85
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Whilst snorkelling, a 30-year old gentleman has the respiratory rate of 10/min, tidal...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst snorkelling, a 30-year old gentleman has the respiratory rate of 10/min, tidal volume of 550 ml and an effective anatomical dead space of 250 ml. What is his alveolar ventilation?

      Your Answer: 2000 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 3000 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Alveolar ventilation is the amount of air reaching the alveoli per minute. Alveolar ventilation = respiratory rate × (tidal volume – anatomical dead space volume). Thus, alveolar ventilation = 10 × (550 − 250) = 3000 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old...

    Incorrect

    • The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?

      Your Answer: It has thinner and fewer vascular coats

      Correct Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules

      Explanation:

      The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      228.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the...

    Incorrect

    • A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the hand to the medial side of the arm along the course of the large cutaneous vein. Which vein is involved?

      Your Answer: Cephalic

      Correct Answer: Basilic

      Explanation:

      The basilic vein is one of two veins found in the forearm, the other is the cephalic vein. These veins originate from the deep venous arch of the hand. The cephalic vein ascends along the lateral side of the forearm, and the basilic vein runs up the medial side of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      66.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Streptokinase is used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial infarction,...

    Correct

    • Streptokinase is used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, and arterial thromboembolism; however, it is not recommended to use it again after 4 days from the first administration. Which complication could arise from repeated use?

      Your Answer: Allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Streptokinase belongs to a group of medications known as ‘fibrinolytics’ and is an extracellular metallo-enzyme produced by beta-haemolytic streptococci, used as an effective clot-dissolving medication in patients with myocardial infarction and pulmonary embolism. As Streptokinase is a bacterial product, the body has the ability to build up an immunity to it. Therefore, it is recommended that this medication should not be used again after four days from the first administration, as it may not be as effective and may also cause an allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A glycogen storage disorder is characterised by increased liver glycogen with a normal...

    Incorrect

    • A glycogen storage disorder is characterised by increased liver glycogen with a normal structure and no increase in serum glucose after oral intake of a protein-rich diet. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is responsible for this disorder?

      Your Answer: UDPG–glycogen transglucosylase

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphatase

      Explanation:

      The most common glycogen storage disorder is von Gierke’s disease or glycogen storage disease type I. It results from a deficiency of enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase which affects the ability of liver to produce free glucose from glycogen and gluconeogenesis; leading to severe hypoglycaemia. There is also increased glycogen storage in the liver and kidneys causing enlargement and various problems in their functioning. The disease also causes lactic acidosis and hyperlipidaemia. The main treatment includes frequent or continuous feedings of corn-starch or other carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      96.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space?

      Your Answer: Anasarca

      Explanation:

      Anasarca (or ‘generalised oedema’) is a condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space. It is usually caused by liver failure (cirrhosis of the liver), renal failure/disease, right-sided heart failure, as well as severe malnutrition/protein deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity?

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary functional residual capacity (FRC) is = volume of air present in the lungs at the end of passive expiration.

      Obstructive diseases (e.g. emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma) = an increase in FRC due to an increase in lung compliance and air trapping.

      Restrictive diseases (e.g. pulmonary fibrosis) result in stiffer, less compliant lungs and a reduction in FRC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The presence of oval fat bodies in the urine is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • The presence of oval fat bodies in the urine is most likely to be seen in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is associated with the presence of oval fat bodies on urinalysis due to increased proteinuria and lipiduria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and a persistent cough. His blood smear showed an increase in cells with large bi-lobed nuclei. Which of these cells represent the one seen on the smear?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are white cells that protect the body against harmful pathogens. They are mobile and are produced in the bone marrow, mature there and circulate in the blood for about 1-3 days, where they enter the tissues and transform into macrophages. They are characteristically identified by their large bi-lobed nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant sign is a dark brown mole located on left his arm which has grown in size over the years and is itchy and painful. A MRI of the brain revealed a solitary lesion at the grey-white junction in the right frontal lobe, without ring enhancement. This lesion is most likely to be:

      Your Answer: Metastatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The location of the mass at the grey–white junction is typical of a metastasis. The most frequent types of metastatic brain tumours originate in the lung, skin, kidney, breast and colon. These tumour cells reach the brain via the bloodstream. This patient is likely to have skin cancer, which caused the metastatic brain tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      85.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An operation to resect a tumour of the right lung was stopped as...

    Correct

    • An operation to resect a tumour of the right lung was stopped as the chest surgeon said that the tumour was crossing the oblique fissure. Which structures are separated by the oblique fissure of the right lung?

      Your Answer: Lower lobe from both upper and middle lobes

      Explanation:

      The oblique fissure on the right lung separates the lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobe. The lingual is only found on the left lung and is part of the upper lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      174.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month ago, she fell from a staircase but only suffered mild head trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      A quarter to a half of patients with chronic subdural haematoma have no identifiable history of head trauma. If a patient does have a history of head trauma, it usually is mild. The average time between head trauma and chronic subdural haematoma diagnosis is 4–5 weeks. Symptoms include decreased level of consciousness, balance problems, cognitive dysfunction and memory loss, motor deficit (e.g. hemiparesis), headache or aphasia. Some patients present acutely. They usually result from tears in bridging veins which cross the subdural space, and may cause an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to...

    Incorrect

    • During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to the thymus. Which of the following vessels is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Right pulmonary artery

      Correct Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The thymus is located superficially in the anterior mediastinum. The left brachiocephalic vein courses through the mediastinum to join the right brachiocephalic vein and form the superior vena cava on the right side of the thorax. The left brachiocephalic vein, being superficial, courses just deep to the thymus so that it may be susceptible to compression by an adjacent tumour. The left pulmonary vein, left bronchial vein and right pulmonary artery are deep, and enter and exit the lung at its root, thus are not near the thymus. The right superior intercostal vein drains the 2nd to the 4th intercostal spaces and drains into the arch of the azygos vein. It is not, therefore, closely related with the thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      74
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and...

    Correct

    • A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and needles in the dorsum of the thumb and digits 1 and 2. On further examination they found that he had weakness in wrist dorsiflexion and finger extension. Which nerve do you think is injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve can be injured in multiple sites along its course in the upper limb, and each site has its own presentation. The major complaint is wrist drop which if high above the elbow, can cause numbness of the forearm and hand. It can last for several days or weeks. The most common site of compression for the radial nerve is at the proximal forearm in the area of the supinator muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      82.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:

      Your Answer: Red nucleus

      Correct Answer: Substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.

      Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:...

    Incorrect

    • Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:

      Your Answer: Reduced absorption of water

      Correct Answer: Reduced active transport of sodium

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henlé leads from the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule. Its primary function uses a counter current multiplier mechanism in the medulla to reabsorb water and ions from the urine. It can be divided into four parts:

      1. Descending limb of loop of Henlé – low permeability to ions and urea, while being highly permeable to water

      2. Thin ascending limb of loop of Henlé – not permeable to water, but it is permeable to ions

      3. Medullary thick ascending limb of loop of Henlé – sodium (Na+), potassium (K+) and chloride (Cl–) ions are reabsorbed by active transport. K+ is passively transported along its concentration gradient through a K+ channel in the basolateral aspect of the cells, back into the lumen of the ascending limb.

      4. The cortical thick ascending limb – the site of action where loop diuretics such as furosemide block the K+/Na+/2Cl− co-transporters = reduced active transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When...

    Correct

    • The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible towards which direction?

      Your Answer: Laterally, to the right

      Explanation:

      The lateral pterygoid or external pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible laterally and to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts....

    Correct

    • The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:

      – The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.

      – The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.

      – The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.

      – The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.

      – The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of...

    Incorrect

    • In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of the following structures is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Nerve to sartorius

      Correct Answer: Nerve to vastus medialis

      Explanation:

      The adductor canal (sub sartorial canal) is situated in the middle third of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 70 year old women, died suddenly. She had a history of hypertension...

    Correct

    • A 70 year old women, died suddenly. She had a history of hypertension and aortic stenosis. On autopsy her heart weighed 550g. What is the most likely cause of this pathology?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Due to increased pressure on the heart as a result of hypertension and aortic stenosis, the myocardial fibres hypertrophied to adapt to the increased pressure and to effectively circulate blood around the body. Hyperplasia could not occur, as myocardial fibres are stable cells and cannot divide further.

      Fat does not deposit in the heart due to volume overload.

      Myocardial oedema is not characteristic of a myocardial injury.

      Metaplasia is a change in the type of epithelium.

      Atrophy would result in a decreased heart size and inability to function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor...

    Correct

    • If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      23.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (9/14) 64%
Head & Neck (2/2) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (2/3) 67%
Physiology (3/9) 33%
Lower Limb (1/3) 33%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (2/3) 67%
Pathology (5/7) 71%
Respiratory (1/3) 33%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/2) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed