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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes macrocephaly?
Your Answer: Poorly controlled gestational diabetes
Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:The aetiology of macrocephaly is diverse.The most common cause is benign familial macrocephaly characterized by enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces and accounts for almost 50% of cases.Other causes are:- Enlargement of skull bones – Hyperostosis cranii – associated with disorders such as osteogenesis imperfecta, achondroplasia, and osteopetrosis- Secondary enlargement due to bone marrow expansion – as seen in thalassemia major- Increase in volume of cerebrospinal fluid- Hydrocephalus, Choroid plexus papilloma, Benign familial macrocephaly- Megalencephaly – Leukodystrophies – Canavan disease, Alexander disease, megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts- Lysosomal storage disorders – Tay-Sachs, mucopolysaccharidosis, gangliosidosis- Neurocutaneous disorders – Tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Gorlin syndrome- Autism spectrum disorder- Other syndromes – Fragile X syndrome, Cowden syndrome, Sotos syndrome- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)- CNS infections, Pseudotumor cerebriSubdural collections including hygromas- Mass lesions and an increase in the volume of bloodTumourIntraventricular haemorrhage, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A neonate has been observed, by his parents, twitching and jerking in his sleep. Which one of the following is not a cause of neonatal seizures?
Your Answer: Intracranial haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Neonatal myoclonus
Explanation:Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus (BNSM) is a disorder commonly mistaken for seizures during the new-born period. It is characterized by myoclonic lightninglike jerks of the extremities that exclusively occur during sleep| it is not correlated with epilepsy.Causes of neonatal seizures:Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy: Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy disrupts the ATP-dependent sodium-potassium pump and appears to cause excessive depolarization.Intracranial haemorrhage: occurs more frequently in premature than in term infants. Subarachnoid haemorrhage is more common in term infants. This type of haemorrhage occurs frequently and is not clinically significant. Typically, infants with subarachnoid haemorrhage appear remarkably well. Metabolic disturbances include hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesemia. Less frequent metabolic disorders, such as inborn errors of metabolism, are seen more commonly in infants who are older than 72 hours. Typically, they may be seen after the infant starts feeding.Intracranial infections (which should be ruled out vigorously) that are important causes of neonatal seizures include meningitis, encephalitis (including herpes encephalitis), toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. The common bacterial pathogens include Escherichia coli and Streptococcus pneumoniae.Cerebral malformationsBenign neonatal seizures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right lower limb. The pain tends to occur more at night and is not associated with physical activity. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer: Painful hip
Correct Answer: Osteoid osteoma
Explanation:Osteoid osteoma is a bone forming tumour which affects individuals in the second decade of life. The patient presents with a history of pain in the lower limbs which is mostly at night and responds to NSAIDS. If the pain doesn’t respond to NSAIDS, then other differentials should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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An 8 year old male child presents with frequent and recurrent headaches and a history of dark-coloured urine. He has a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg and normal serum urea and creatinine levels. Urine microscopy reveals erythrocytes and erythrocyte casts. His 24-hour urine protein is about 2 g. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute nephritic syndrome
Explanation:The child most likely has nephritic syndrome which is characterised by a reduced renal function, proteinuria of non-nephrotic range, haematuria, erythrocyte casts, and oedema. Polyarteritis nodosa usually occurs in middle-aged men but can also be seen in young children. It is accompanied by severe systemic manifestations such as fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia.Renal cell carcinoma usually presents around 55 years with the classic triad of haematuria, loin pain and a unilateral mass in the flank.Polycystic kidney disease usually presents in adult life with acute loin pain and palpation of masses in the flanks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old male presents complaining of gradually increasing fatigue. He says that he turned vegan a year ago. He explains that he takes vitamin B12 supplements every day. Considering iron deficiency anaemia as a possible cause, you order some blood tests to confirm. Which of the following would increase the ability of the body to absorb dietary iron?
Your Answer: Intercurrent inflammatory disorders
Correct Answer: Consuming iron in its ferrous (Fe2+) form
Explanation:Consuming iron in its Fe2+ (ferrous form) form can improve the ability to absorb dietary iron in patients with iron deficiency anaemia (IDA). Clinical features of IDA include:- Koilonychia- Atrophic glossitis- Post-cricoid webs- Angular stomatitisThe peripheral blood smear shows the following abnormal RBC morphologies:- Target cells- Pencil poikilocytes- Microcytic-hypochromic cells
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Respect parental wishes and withhold the blood transfusion
Correct Answer: Give the blood transfusion
Explanation:People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.This could be:the child’s mother or fatherthe child’s legally appointed guardiana person with a residence order concerning the childa local authority designated to care for the childa local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child presented to the paediatric clinic with a swollen face, hands and feet. She gained 2 kilograms over the last month despite poor feeding. What is the investigation of choice in this case?
Your Answer: eGFR
Correct Answer: Urinary albumin
Explanation:This is a case of nephrotic syndrome that can be confirmed by the presence of urinary albumin. It should be further investigated by a tissue sample to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 10-year-old gentleman is referred with a six month history of daily headache, which is mostly frontal in location and occasionally associated with nausea.He has been taking paracetamol 3 g daily, aspirin 300 mg thrice daily, and codeine 40 mg thrice daily, all of which have had only a temporary effect. He has a two year history of depression treated with paroxetine. No abnormalities were found on examination.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Analgesic misuse headache
Explanation:Because of the patient’s history of chronic analgesic use of daily paracetamol intake, the most likely diagnosis of this case is Analgesic misuse headache. In these cases, the headache is only temporarily relieved by analgesics. Treatment involves gradual withdrawal of analgesics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old male presented in the emergency room with sudden nosebleed that started 15 minutes ago. Which management step should be taken in such a case?
Your Answer: Ice packs
Correct Answer: Press soft parts of the nose
Explanation:With children nosebleeds often occur after nose picking and are benign in nature. For active bleeding, pressing of soft parts of the nose is required to stop the bleeding before doing anything else.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The correlation coefficient is used to determine whether there is a mathematical linear relationship between diastolic blood pressure and serum cholesterol levels in a group of patients with hypertension (both variables have a normal distribution).Which of the following five coefficients is described?
Your Answer: Non-parametric Spearman’s correlation coefficient
Correct Answer: Parametric Pearson’s correlation coefficient
Explanation:Correlation is a bivariate analysis that measures the strength of association between two variables and the direction of the relationship.Pearson r correlation: Pearson r correlation is the most widely used correlation statistic to measure the degree of the relationship between linearly related variables. Pearson’s correlation coefficient is the test that measures the statistical relationship, or association, between two continuous variables. It is known as the best method of measuring the association between variables of interest because it is based on the method of covariance. It gives information about the magnitude of the association, or correlation, as well as the direction of the relationship.The non-parametric Spearman or Kendall rank correlation coefficient is used if neither variable has a normal distribution or the sample size is small (i.e. <20).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones be able to perform?
Your Answer: Run on tiptoe
Correct Answer: Pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor
Explanation:Among the given options a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones will be able to pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor.Other options:- Bouncing and catching a ball is learnt by the age of 5.- The ability to pedal a tricycle should be attained by 3 years of age, not 2.- A child can walk on tip-toe by 2.5 and run on tip-toe by (option D) 3 years of age, not 2.- The ability to momentarily maintain balance using one leg (option E) should be attained by 3 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 12
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with an 18-month history of intermittent eye blinking, facial grimacing, grunting, and sniffing. He has enough control to suppress them at times, but not always. They are happening at school, and his classmates are starting to notice.Which among the following would be the best initial step in the treatment of the child?
Your Answer: Reassure and observe
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the above clinical scenario, of a child presenting with motor and vocal tics for more than a year is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Tourette syndrome. The symptoms often wax and wane, and although several different drugs are available, none are entirely useful, and side-effects are relatively common. With these considerations in mind, it is essential to try and avoid treatment initially as the tics can spontaneously improve with time. Informing the teacher and class about the nature of the condition and allowing the child ‘time out’ to tic might help to avoid the need for medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He finds it harder to climb stairs or stand from a sitting position. Medical history reveals he received all his vaccinations and had chickenpox 5 years ago. Family history reveals that the father of his mother had a similar condition but died from an accident at 32 years of age. Clinical examination reveals normal cranial nerve function as well as cognitive and mental functions. He also has a normal height. However, although he has normal tone and reflexes in all his limbs, he experiences proximal weakness in his legs and arms. No muscle wasting is identified. Sensory functions are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy
Explanation:Becker’s muscular dystrophy is a disease characterised by progressive weakness and wasting of the skeletal and cardiac muscles. It is inherited and primarily affects males.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 14
Correct
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A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?
Your Answer: Cholesterol crystals
Explanation:Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy with facial oedema was brought to the hospital by his parents. Renal function is normal and urinalysis revealed the presence of a profound proteinuria. Which of the following is the most probable cause of these findings?
Your Answer: Goodpasture syndrome
Correct Answer: Minimal-change disease
Explanation:Minimal-change disease (MCD) refers to a histopathologic glomerular lesion, typically found in children, that is almost always associated with nephrotic syndrome. The most noticeable symptom of MCD is oedema, which can develop very rapidly. Due to the renal loss of proteins muscle wasting and growth failure may be seen in children. Renal function is usually not affected and a proteinuria of more than 40 mg/h/m2 is the only abnormal finding in urinalysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 16
Correct
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All of the following conditions because feeding problems for a neonate except for which one?
Your Answer: Physiological jaundice
Explanation:Physiological jaundice is the condition in which there is a yellow discolouration of the eyes and the skin of the baby caused by the build up of bilirubin in the blood due to an immature liver. No other symptoms accompany physiological jaundice, thus it will not present with difficulty in feeding. All the other conditions listed can present with feeding problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT team
Explanation:Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 18
Correct
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An 8-month-old infant is presented to the paediatrics ward with a history of delayed developmental milestones since birth. On examination, he has poor muscle tone and balance, and a head circumference, which is greater than normal. Imaging of the patient's head revealed a diminished cerebellar vermis, a large fourth ventricle, and an enlarged posterior fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dandy-Walker syndrome
Explanation:Dandy-Walker syndrome is characterised by symptoms of brain maldevelopment that are seen in this patient. A large cranium indicates hydrocephalus, and the hypotonia indicates poor limb development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer: Child-onset polycystic kidney disease
Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Explanation:Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 12-week antenatal scan reveals a massive neck swelling in the foetus. While assessing the mother, she is found to have mild learning difficulties, short stature and a heart murmur. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Down syndrome
Correct Answer: Noonan syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is Noonan syndrome.Noonan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by short stature, heart defects (mainly pulmonary stenosis) and learning difficulties. An affected foetus can present with a significant increase in the nuchal thickness or a cystic hygroma of the neck. The condition is variable, and an affected parent is often only diagnosed after the diagnosis in the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?
Your Answer: Target cells
Explanation:The diagnosis of a post-splenectomy/hyposplenism blood picture can be made reliably by identifying Howell Jolly bodies in routine Wright-Giemsa stained blood and target cells. These are round basophilic bodies in red blood cells that represent residual nuclear material from marrow nucleated red cell precursors that are usually culled out by the spleen.These do not occur in individuals with normally functioning splenic tissue and their presence indicates either 1) an asplenic state or 2) hypofunctioning splenic tissue as might be seen in a patient with late-stage sickle cell anaemia. Their presence in an individual with splenomegaly leads to a narrow differential diagnosis and their absence in a splenectomised individual indicates accessory splenic Heinz bodies and poikilocytosis typically increase in a splenectomised individual and care must be taken not to overdiagnose haemolysis in such an individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities?
Your Answer: Perlman syndrome
Correct Answer: Silver-Russell syndrome
Explanation:Macrosomia can be defined as either a birth weight greater than 4kg or birth weight greater than 90% for the gestational age. Risk factors for macrosomia include maternal diabetes, excessive gestational weight gain, pre-pregnancy obesity, male gender, ethnicity, and advanced gestational age. Genetic conditions associated with macrosomia are Bardet-Biedl syndrome, Perlman syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Silver-Russell syndrome is associated with intrauterine growth retardation and post-natal failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl about her language development.Which feature would NOT be associated with language delay in an 18-month-old child?
Your Answer: Failure to move to music
Correct Answer: Lack of imitative gesture
Explanation:18-month-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalLikes to hand things to others as play May have temper tantrums May be afraid of strangers Shows affection to familiar people Plays simple pretend, such as feeding a doll May cling to caregivers in new situations Points to show others something interesting Explores alone but with parent close by Language/CommunicationSays several single words Says and shakes head “no” Points to show someone what he wants Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Knows what ordinary things are for| for example, telephone, brush, spoon Points to get the attention of others Shows interest in a doll or stuffed animal by pretending to feed Points to one body part Scribbles on his own Can follow 1-step verbal commands without any gestures| for example, sits when you say “sit down” Movement/Physical DevelopmentWalks alone May walk up steps and run Pulls toys while walking Can help undress herself Drinks from a cup Eats with a spoon
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have large testes. Which condition does the child most likely have?
Your Answer: Down's syndrome
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Usually, males are more severely affected by this disorder than females.Affected individuals usually have delayed development of speech and language by age 2. Most males with fragile X syndrome have mild to moderate intellectual disability, while about one-third of affected females are intellectually disabled. Children with fragile X syndrome may also have anxiety and hyperactive behaviour such as fidgeting or impulsive actions. They may have attention deficit disorder (ADD), which includes an impaired ability to maintain attention and difficulty focusing on specific tasks. About one-third of individuals with fragile X syndrome have features of autism spectrum disorder that affect communication and social interaction. Seizures occur in about 15 percent of males and about 5 percent of females with fragile X syndrome.Most males and about half of females with fragile X syndrome have characteristic physical features that become more apparent with age. These features include a long and narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and in males, enlarged testicles (macroorchidism) after puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions do NOT result in polyuria?
Your Answer: Exposure to high altitude
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Polyuria is defined as a total increase in the urine output or > 2L/m2 of daily urine produced in children. Polyuria can be a symptom of a vast number of medical conditions. The commonest and most important disease having polyuria as the main symptom is diabetes mellitus. Nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus also results in polyuria along with polydipsia. Other conditions that lead to an increase in the urine output are renal failure, acute tubular necrosis, and exposure to high altitude. Hyperkalaemia does not result in polyuria| rather hypokalaemia can be an associated finding with polyuria in the case of diuretic abuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents to her OBGYN after getting pregnant. It is evaluated that she is 13 days pregnant and the fetal tissue has just undergone implantation. Where in the uterus does implantation usually take place?
Your Answer: Anterior or superior walls
Explanation:Time and EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?
Your Answer: <35
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years
Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years
Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years
Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years
Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute mastoiditis
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 29
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days. She was taking ibuprofen and paracetamol over the counter for the pain. She was started on phenoxymethylpenicillin V following a diagnosis of tonsillitis.The next day she presents with a painful rash and feels unwell. On examination, she has extensive papular and plaque lesions. On palpation the papules desquamate. What is this sign called?
Your Answer: Nikolskys sign
Explanation:The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorder, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points are left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an episode of infective diarrhoea.Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. HUS is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in children. It predominantly occurs in infants and children after prodromal diarrhoea. In summer epidemics, the disease may be related to infectious causes.Bacterial infections may include the following:S dysenteriaeE ColiSalmonella typhiCampylobacter jejuniYersinia pseudotuberculosisNeisseria meningitidisS pneumoniaLegionella pneumophilaMycoplasma speciesRickettsial infections may include Rocky Mountain spotted fever and microtatobiotesViral infections may include the following:Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)CoxsackievirusEchovirusInfluenza virusEpstein-Barr virusHerpes simplex virusFungal infections can include Aspergillus fumigatus.Vaccinations may include the following:Influenza triple-antigen vaccineTyphoid-paratyphoid A and B (TAB) vaccinePolio vaccinePregnancy-associated HUS occasionally develops as a complication of preeclampsia. Patients may progress to full-blown haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome. Postpartum HUS usually occurs within 3 months of delivery. The prognosis is poor, with a 50-60% mortality rate, and residual renal dysfunction and hypertension occur in most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 31
Correct
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Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome?
Your Answer: It is caused by defects in collagen
Explanation:Alport syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities. Alport syndrome can have different inheritance patterns. About 80 percent of cases are caused by mutations in type IV collagen genes (COL4A5) and are inherited in an X-linked autosomal recessive pattern, although other inheritance patterns exist. Alport syndrome has autosomal dominant inheritance in about 5 percent of cases.
People with Alport syndrome experience progressive loss of kidney function. Almost all affected individuals have blood in their urine (haematuria), which indicates abnormal functioning of the kidneys. Many people with Alport syndrome also develop high levels of protein in their urine (proteinuria). The kidneys become less able to function as this condition progresses, resulting in end-stage renal disease (ESRD).
People with Alport syndrome frequently develop sensorineural hearing loss, which is caused by abnormalities of the inner ear, during late childhood or early adolescence. Affected individuals may also have misshapen lenses in the eyes (anterior lenticonus) and abnormal coloration of the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye (retina). These eye abnormalities seldom lead to vision loss.
Significant hearing loss, eye abnormalities, and progressive kidney disease are more common in males with Alport syndrome than in affected females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates milk after a feed, especially when laying on her back. Doctors suspect gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR). What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer: Trial of Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Reassure the parents
Explanation:Most experts suggest that parents reassurance in case of infantile gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a sufficient initial measure that involves education about regurgitation and lifestyle changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis. What ocular manifestation in this boy would indicate that he has inherited the condition?
Your Answer: Lisch nodules
Correct Answer: Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium
Explanation:Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium is one of FAP’s extra-intestinal manifestations. It appears in early childhood and affects an estimated 90% of those with FAP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate?
Your Answer: Number of deaths from12 weeks gestation up to delivery divided by 100 births
Correct Answer: Number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 1000 births
Explanation:The perinatal mortality rate is defined as the number of perinatal deaths per 1000 total births. Perinatal death includes the death of a live-born neonate within 7-days of life (early neonatal death) and the death of a fetus ≥ 22 weeks of gestation (stillbirth). Hence, the perinatal mortality rate is calculated by dividing the number of still births+ the number of early neonatal deaths by 1000 births.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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An 8 year old boy presented with easy bruising following falls. FBC showed leucocytosis and thrombocytopenia with normal haemoglobin levels. His ESR was high and Paul-Bunnell test was positive. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Septicaemia
Correct Answer: Glandular fever
Explanation:Glandular fever (Infectious Mononucleosis) is caused by Epstein–Barr virus (EBV). Leucocytosis rules in infectious mononucleosis and thrombocytopenia is not an uncommon association. ESR is elevated in most of the cases. Paul-Bunnell test is a rapid test for infectious mononucleosis due to Epstein–Barr virus (EBV).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Congenital cataracts are NOT a known complication of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Downs syndrome
Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disease that does not lead to congenital cataracts. A congenital cataract is the clouding of the cornea that is present from birth. Causes can be categorized as genetic, infectious, and metabolic. The most common infectious cause is congenital rubella syndrome. Galactosemia is a metabolic cause of congenital cataracts. Down’s syndrome represents a genetic cause of congenital cataract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma
Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 17-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother with complaints of poor feeding and tachypnoea a week after experiencing a coryzal illness. His cardiac examination is unremarkable apart from a third heart sound being present. His chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly and bilateral interstitial shadowing. Blood investigations, renal function, and anti-streptolysin O test (ASCOT) are all within normal limits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19 infection
Correct Answer: Coxsackie myocarditis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis based on the clinical presentation is myocarditis secondary to Coxsackie virus infection.Myocarditis is an important cause of acquired heart failure. The other infective causes of myocarditis are influenza and adenoviruses, and bacterial causes as seen with Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease). Rheumatic fever is unlikely if the ASO titres are within normal limits. While pancarditis may occur as part of Kawasaki disease| the patient is unlikely to present in failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?
Your Answer: 20 cmH2O
Correct Answer: 30 cmH2O
Explanation:According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?
Your Answer: Geniohyoid muscle
Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle
Explanation:Also known as the hyoid arch, it forms the side and front of the neck. From its cartilage develops the styloid process, stylohyoid ligament and lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. The muscular derivatives include the muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid and the posterior belly of the digastric. All these are innervated by cranial nerve VII but migrate into the area of the mandibular arch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Non-accidental injury
Correct Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling. Physical examination also reveals digital clubbing and linea nigra on her abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Clinical signs of early pregnancy-Amenorrhoea-Nausea and vomiting -Breast enlargement and tenderness -Hyperpigmentation of the areola and formation of linea nigra: Most likely due to increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone produced by the placenta -Increased urinary frequency-Fatigue-Cravings for or aversions to certain foods-Abdominal bloating and constipation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy with iron-deficiency anaemia is found to have numerous polyps in his jejunum. On examination, he is also noted to have pigmented lesions on his palms and soles. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gardner's syndrome
Correct Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. It is also associated with pigmented freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles.Genetic basis: It follows an autosomal dominant inheritance, and the gene responsible encodes serine-threonine kinase LKB1 or STK11.Classical features of PJS include:- Hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract (mainly small bowel)- Pigmented lesions on lips, oral mucosa, face, palms and soles- Intestinal obstruction, e.g. intussusception- Gastrointestinal bleedingThe treatment is mainly conservative unless complications develop.Note:Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia can also be associated with mucocutaneous lesions and iron-deficiency anaemia, but intestinal polyps are not a feature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which of the following cell types makes a significant contribution to the blood brain barrier?
Your Answer: Neuron
Correct Answer: Astrocyte
Explanation:The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is a term used to describe the unique properties of the microvasculature of the central nervous system (CNS). CNS vessels are continuous nonfenestrated vessels, but also contain a series of additional properties that allow them to tightly regulate the movement of molecules, ions, and cells between the blood and the CNS.Blood vessels are made up of two main cell types: Endothelial Cells (ECs) that form the walls of the blood vessels, and mural cells that sit on the abluminal surface of the EC layer. The properties of the BBB are largely manifested within the ECs, but are induced and maintained by critical interactions with mural cells, immune cells, glial cells, and neural cells, which interact in the neurovascular unit.Astrocytes are a major glial cell type, which extends polarized cellular processes that ensheath either neuronal processes or blood vessels.This includes regulating the contraction/dilation of vascular smooth muscle cells surrounding arterioles as well as PCs surrounding capillaries. Astrocytes have been identified as important mediators of BBB formation and function because of the ability of purified astrocytes to induce barrier properties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 45
Correct
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A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and oedema. On cardiac auscultation, he has a displaced apical beat laterally and a profound right ventricular heave. On lung auscultation, he has bilateral basal crackles. X-ray of the chest reveals gross cardiomegaly. Heart ultrasound shows mitral valve prolapse. Finally, ECG shows a prolonged and widened QRS complex with a short PR interval. Doctors establish the diagnosis of a right bundle branch block with a dominant R wave in V1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Type A Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (WPWS)
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a pre-excitation syndrome characterised by re-entry tachycardia that most commonly presents as a recurrent supraventricular tachycardia. ECG will show a short PR interval and a prolonged QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed a mass in right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this girl?
Your Answer: Increased water intake
Correct Answer: Laxatives
Explanation:Laxatives have been shown to be beneficial in the treatment of chronic childhood constipation. Studies have shown that polyethylene glycol, mineral oil, magnesium hydroxide, and lactulose are effective and can be used for a prolonged periods without risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding Prader-Willi syndrome?
Your Answer: It is also known as happy puppet syndrome
Correct Answer: Affected individuals typically have small gonads
Explanation:Prader-Willi Syndrome is a genetic disorder that occurs when a chromosome from paternal chromosome 15q is deleted or unexpressed during the formation of the egg or sperm, or in embryonic development. Individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, and in this case on the paternal gene remains active in parts of the brain and other organs. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Angelman’s syndrome. Symptoms seen in Prader-Willi range from poor muscle tone during infancy to developmental and cognitive delays. Many individuals suffer from hypogonadism that affects fertility in both males and females. In Angelman’s syndrome the maternal chromosome 15q is unexpressed. The condition is also called happy puppet syndrome as affected children present with a happy demeanour, ataxic gait, and flapping movements of the limbs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?
Your Answer: Anterior belly of the digastric muscle
Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle
Explanation:The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:
Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:
Stapes,
Temporal styloid process,
Stylohyoid ligament, and
Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.
Muscles:
Muscles of face
Occipitofrontalis muscle
Platysma
Stylohyoid muscle
Posterior belly of Digastric
Stapedius muscle
Auricular muscles
Nerve supply: Facial nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0 mmol/L before eating a large meal at 6pm, presents with difficulties raising his blood glucose after the meal. His parents gave him a slightly lower insulin dose with the meal than usual. Blood glucose levels are not rising above 6 mmol/L. Parents are worried and do not want to send him to bed. What is the single most appropriate advice for the parents?
Your Answer: They should wait until his blood sugar is at least 8 mmol/L before he can go to bed
Correct Answer: A fast acting glucose source would have been preferable to treat the hypoglycaemia and should be considered in the future
Explanation:The boy presented with mild hypoglycaemia and should be managed at home with fast-acting carbs. He should not sleep immediately. His parents should monitor his blood glucose every hour without letting him sleep in between.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male was just hit by a car and brought by a helicopter to the emergency department. He is intubated and you want to avoid secondary brain injury. Which of the following measures is not indicated to prevent secondary brain injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:Low oxygen delivery in hypotension, hypoxia, oedema, intracranial hypertension or changes in cerebral blood flow should all be prevented to avoid secondary brain injury. There is no evidence to suggest that hypothermia prevents secondary brain injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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