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Question 1
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A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an episode of infective diarrhoea.Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. HUS is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in children. It predominantly occurs in infants and children after prodromal diarrhoea. In summer epidemics, the disease may be related to infectious causes.Bacterial infections may include the following:S dysenteriaeE ColiSalmonella typhiCampylobacter jejuniYersinia pseudotuberculosisNeisseria meningitidisS pneumoniaLegionella pneumophilaMycoplasma speciesRickettsial infections may include Rocky Mountain spotted fever and microtatobiotesViral infections may include the following:Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)CoxsackievirusEchovirusInfluenza virusEpstein-Barr virusHerpes simplex virusFungal infections can include Aspergillus fumigatus.Vaccinations may include the following:Influenza triple-antigen vaccineTyphoid-paratyphoid A and B (TAB) vaccinePolio vaccinePregnancy-associated HUS occasionally develops as a complication of preeclampsia. Patients may progress to full-blown haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome. Postpartum HUS usually occurs within 3 months of delivery. The prognosis is poor, with a 50-60% mortality rate, and residual renal dysfunction and hypertension occur in most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic ventricular septal defect, is prepared for pulmonary artery banding through a left thoracotomy (the child is not fit for a surgical closure). The surgeon initially passes his index finger immediately behind two great arteries in the pericardial sac to mobilise the great arteries in order to pass the tape around the pulmonary artery. Into which space is the surgeon's finger inserted?
Your Answer: Cardiac notch
Correct Answer: Transverse pericardial sinus
Explanation:Cardiac notch: is an indentation on the left lung of the heart.
Coronary sinus: a venous sinus on the surface of the heart (the posterior aspect) that receives blood from the smaller veins that drain the heart.
Coronary sulcus: a groove on the heart between the atria and ventricles.
Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and anterior to the superior vena cava.
Oblique pericardial sinus: located behind the left atrium. Accessed from the inferior side (or the apex) of the heart upwards.
Horizontal pericardial sinus: this is a made-up term. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to the OBGYN clinic by her mother with primary amenorrhoea and poor pubertal development. Investigations reveal low oestrogen, and high LH and FSH. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: PCOS
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 1-year old infant is brought to the emergency by her parents with difficulty breathing. Examination reveals stridor from an oedematous airway, bilateral wheezing and low blood pressure. Which of the following medications would result in the reversal of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Adrenaline
Explanation:Adrenaline (epinephrine) narrows blood vessels and opens airways in the lungs. These effects can reverse severe low blood pressure, wheezing, severe skin itching, hives, and other symptoms of an allergic reaction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:
Your Answer: Meningococcaemia
Explanation:Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following movements will most likely be lost following an injury to the spinal part of the accessory nerve?
Your Answer: Depression of the scapula
Correct Answer: Upward rotation of the scapula
Explanation:Cranial nerve XI is also known as the accessory nerve. The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle which retracts the scapula. The upper and lower fibres act together to also upwardly rotate it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension about 10 days later. What would be the characteristic blood test finding in this condition?
Your Answer: Normal C3 level
Correct Answer: Depressed CH 50 level
Explanation:Because the medical history included tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension, there is a strong suspicion of a case of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN). Patients with PSGN usually have serological findings showing depressed serum haemolytic component CH50 and serum concentrations of C3. Sometimes depressed C4 levels are also apparent, but not always, therefore, the answer to this question is: depressed CH50 level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents with bilaterally enlarged parotid glands for more than 9 months. On examination, both parotid glands are firm and non-tender and are not warm to touch.What is the most probable infectious cause for chronic parotitis in the given scenario?
Your Answer: Mumps virus
Correct Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Explanation:The most probable cause for chronic parotitis in this patient would be HIV infection.Rationale:Chronic infectious parotitis is relatively uncommon in children. While mycobacterial infection can result in chronic parotitis, HIV is a relatively more common cause. The presentation should always prompt an HIV test. Other options:- While mumps is the most common cause of acute viral parotitis, the chronic nature of the boy’s presentation rules it out. – Acute bacterial parotitis is usually unilateral and is warm and tender to touch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 9
Correct
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A 5 year old boy falls into the swimming pool whilst playing and almost drowns. His parents start BLS and transfer him to the emergency department. You attach him to the cardiac monitoring and you notice ventricular fibrillation. You immediately start on CRP algorithm for shockable rhythms. Which of the following may result in a poor defibrillation response?
Your Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:Guidelines suggest that when hypothermia manifests in the context of a shockable rhythm, it might get harder to defibrillate. Therefore, defibrillation is recommended to occur at temperatures below 30°C, and to be limited in three shocks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A mother gives birth to a baby at 28 weeks of gestation. He weights 1000g. What of the following is true?
Your Answer: Visual screening is not useful if carried out at this gestational age
Explanation:Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) affects premature infants. It is a retinal vasoproliferative disease for which current screening guidelines are primarily based on birth weight and gestational age. The disease is first detected by screening at 32-38 weeks of gestation or in infants that are about 6-7 weeks old. Screening consists of dilation of the pupils and observing for dilated vessel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true of miliaria?
Your Answer: Topical steroids are contraindicated
Correct Answer: Miliaria crystalline causes tiny, fragile clear vesicles
Explanation:Miliaria is a common skin disease caused by blockage and/or inflammation of eccrine sweat ducts. Miliaria is frequently seen in hot, humid or tropical climates, in patients in the hospital, and in the neonatal period. Miliaria is also known as sweat rash.Based on the level of the sweat duct obstruction, miliaria is divided into three subtypes:- Miliaria crystallina (sudamina), caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts close to the surface of the skin (epidermis)|- Miliaria rubra, caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts deeper in the epidermis|- Miliaria profunda (tropical anhidrosis), the result of sweat leaking into the middle layer of skin (dermis).Miliaria crystallina appears as 1–2 mm superficial clear blisters that easily break. The blisters can look like beads of sweat. There is no inflammation. The blisters are usually seen widely spread on the head, neck, and upper trunk.Miliaria rubra is the most common type of miliaria results in red, 2–4 mm, non-follicular papules and papulovesicles. They are very itchy. Background erythema is often present. In children, miliaria affects the skin folds of the neck, axilla or groin. In adults, miliaria often affects the upper trunk, scalp, neck and flexures, particularly areas of friction with clothing. Miliaria pustulosa is a variant of milia rubra in which there are pustules.Miliaria profunda describes asymptomatic deep papules. The flesh–coloured, 1–3 mm diameter papules usually arise on the trunk and extremities.Mild Topical steroids can be used as a treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 14-month-old boy is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of vomiting, abdominal pain, and rectal bleeding. On examination, he is found to be dehydrated, and a palpable abdominal mass was felt. A Meckel's scan proved to be negative. However, the ultrasound scan did reveal a target sign.What is the most probable cause of the patient's complaints?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms is intussusception.Intussusception is a condition in which part of the intestine folds into the section next to it. It most commonly involves the small bowel and rarely the large bowel. Intussusception doesn’t usually require surgical correction. 80% of cases can be both confirmed and reduced using barium, water-soluble or air-contrast enema. However, up to 10% of cases can experience recurrence within 24 hours after reduction, warranting close monitoring during this period.Other options:- Enteric duplication: a duplication cyst could give all these features, although it may contain sufficient gastric epithelium to produce a positive Meckel’s scan. However, this is comparatively rare. – Meckel’s diverticulum: Scintigraphy has poor sensitivity making the possibility of a bleed from a Meckel’s diverticulum a genuine differential for this patient. However, considering the presence of features of bowel obstruction in the patient, a Meckel’s diverticulum bleeding and obstructing at the same time would be a rare phenomenon. – Midgut volvulus: It is also a plausible differential in this patient. However, for the given age group, a midgut volvulus is relatively uncommon compared to intussusception. – Acute appendicitis: While it is true that appendicitis can present acutely with a palpable mass and bowel obstruction, it rarely presents with rectal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 14
Correct
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A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops new-onset bradycardia and hypertension.Which of the following can improve his current condition?
Your Answer: Mannitol 20%
Explanation:All of the presenting features of the child are suggestive raised intracranial pressure. Thus, urgent treatment with 20% Mannitol can improve the child’s condition. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used in the treatment of raised intracranial pressure. It should be avoided in hypovolaemia because of its diuretic effects. Other options:- Head up at 15°: Keeping the head up at 20° in the midline will aid venous drainage. – Maintain CO2 at 5 kPa: If there is an acute rise in intracranial pressure, then lowering the CO2 to 4–4.5 kPa as a temporary measure can be beneficial. However, this must be only short-lived since it causes vasoconstriction and can impair cerebral blood flow. – 10% glucose bolus: Maintaining normoglycemia in traumatic brain injury is important. – 0.9% saline infusion: Hypertonic saline infusion of 3% can reduce intracranial pressure. 0.9% saline as a bolus could be beneficial if there were hypotension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Where does Stensens duct primarily open?
Your Answer: Floor of mouth
Correct Answer: Opposite the second molar tooth
Explanation:The parotid duct (Stensen’s duct), which provides an exit for the gland’s secretions, passes through the anterior edge of the gland in the superficial lobe, turns medially at the anterior border of the masseter, penetrates the buccinator, then enters the oral cavity lateral to the second maxillary molar.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?
Your Answer: Adrenal medulla
Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity
Explanation:Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.' He has been fasting for the last 48hours. On examination, besides mild jaundice, everything else seems to be normal. Labs reveal an elevated serum bilirubin level (60 ?mol/l), but the other liver function tests are normal. CBC, U&E, and haptoglobins are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gilbert’s disease
Explanation:People with Gilbert syndrome have a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia). In affected individuals, bilirubin levels fluctuate and very rarely increase to levels that cause jaundice. Gilbert syndrome is usually recognized in adolescence. If people with this condition have episodes of hyperbilirubinemia, these episodes are generally mild and typically occur when the body is under stress, for instance because of dehydration, prolonged periods without food (fasting), illness, vigorous exercise, or menstruation. Some people with Gilbert syndrome also experience abdominal discomfort or tiredness. However, approximately 30 percent of people with Gilbert syndrome have no signs or symptoms of the condition and are discovered only when routine blood tests reveal elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area.Investigations were as follows:Hb 13.1 g/dlWCC 8.6 x109/lPLT 201 x109/lNa+ 139 mmol/lK+ 4.5 mmol/lCreatinine 110 µmol/l17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normalPelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Correct Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess. Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true of scabies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The mite lives in the stratum corneum
Explanation:Scabies is a dermatological condition caused by infestation of the Sarcoptes Scaibie. The tiny mite, often unseen by the naked human eye, is able to burrow into the stratum corneum where it lays its eggs, causing irritation and a rash related to the immune response against the mite and its eggs, saliva and faeces. On examination, the pathognomic small burrows are often seen on the skin along with small red papules and scratch marks| granulomatous nodules may also be seen especially in darker skin types. Other clinical subtypes such as bullous, and Norwegian (crusted) also exist. Common areas of infection include the hands, wrists, and the interdigital spaces. Infestation can also occur on the genital area, the buttocks, feet, ankles, flexor surfaces. First line treatment is with permethrin 5% dermal cream. It is important that all members of the household are also treated at the same time, and that contaminated bedding, clothes and furniture is adequately disinfected. Scabies is usually associated with overcrowded conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gillespie syndrome
Explanation:Leukocoria is an abnormal red reflex in which the pupil appears white. It represents various abnormalities of the visual media and is one of the primary signs of retinoblastoma. Other possible causes of leukocoria include congenital cataracts, toxocariasis, Norrie disease, retinopathy of prematurity, and Coat’s disease. Gillespie syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition characterized by congenital hypotonia, multiple ocular defects, hypoplasia of the cerebellum, and vertebral deformities. The ocular defects consist of aniridia, photophobia, reduced visual acuity, and the inability of the pupillary sphincter to contract. Leukocoria is not associated with this syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food
Explanation:In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %–85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %–13 % and medications account for 5 %–12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which one of the following fulfils the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is groin freckling and a plexiform neurofibroma
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disease caused by the mutation of the neurofibromin gene on Chromosome 17. The diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1 are two or more of the following:-6 or more cafe au lait macules-2 or more cutaneous neurofibroma or one plexiform Neurofibroma-Axillary of groin freckling -Optic pathway glioma -2 or more Lisch nodules (hamartomas of the iris seen on slit lamp examination)-Bony dysplasia (such as sphenoid wing dysplasia, bowing of the long bones, or pseudarthrosis)-First degree relative with neurofibromatosis type 1
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parental unemployment
Explanation:Risk factors for neonatal death and stillbirth (weak predictive value):- African American race- Advanced maternal age- History of fetal demise- Maternal infertility- History of small for gestational age infant- Small for gestational age infant- Obesity- Paternal age- Poverty and poor quality of careSo in this case the risk factor is the parental unemployment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is associated with Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Intussusception is one of the common causes of intestinal obstruction in children, resulting from the invagination or telescoping of one segment of the bowel into the other distal segment. It may induce bowel ischemia and necrosis, as well. It can occur as a complication of Meckel’s diverticulum. It usually occurs proximal to the ileocecal valve, and the most common presentation is ileocecal. Early signs and symptoms include cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and pulling legs up to chest area. First line treatment includes resuscitation with IV fluids and nasogastric tube. It responds well to air-enema, which is also diagnostic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory effort and an undetectable heart rate initially. Baby is now 20 min old and has been intubated with regular ventilation breaths. Heart rate came up to 110/min following two rounds of chest compressions. Baby appears very pale. No drugs have been given. Oxygen saturations are currently 85% measured on the right hand despite FiO2 1.0. A venous cord gas shows pH 6.89, CO2 –8, BE –14, Hb 8. What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Umbilical venous catheter (UVC) placement
Explanation:Umbilical vein catheterization utilizes the exposed umbilical stump in a neonate as a site for emergency central venous access up to 14 days old. Umbilical vein catheterization can provide a safe and effective route for intravenous delivery of medications and fluids during resuscitation.The indication for umbilical vein catheterization is when there is a need for IV access in a neonate for resuscitation, transfusions, or short-term venous access when otherwise unobtainable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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When discussing child development with a parent, which one of the following motor skills would NOT be expected of a 3-year-old?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Catching a bounced ball
Explanation:Milestones of 3 years old:Social and Emotional:Copies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/Communication:Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns door handle Movement/Physical Development:Climbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and down stairs, one foot on each step
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty.While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume
Explanation:In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement| the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side
Explanation:The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp
Explanation:Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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