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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?

      Your Answer: 5 ml

      Explanation:

      Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

      The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      67.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the...

    Correct

    • Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the following statement?

      Your Answer: Increased Creatine Kinase

      Explanation:

      The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.

      The main features are:
      – Elevated creatinine kinase
      – Hyperthermia and tachycardia
      – Altered mental state
      – Increased white cell count
      – Insidious onset over 1-3 days
      – Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
      – Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)

      Management is supportive ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Maximal response occurs only when all receptor sites are occupied

      Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.

      Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.

      Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      60.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime?

      Your Answer: The size of the granules is 4-8 mesh

      Correct Answer: It mostly contains sodium hydroxide

      Explanation:

      Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and remaining sodium hydroxide.

      CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
      Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.

      When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.

      Silica hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.

      The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his...

    Correct

    • A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.

      History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.

      The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.

      Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.

      Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.

      When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal...

    Correct

    • Obeying Boyle's law and Charles's law is a characteristic feature of an ideal gas.

      The gas which is most ideal out of the following options is?

      Your Answer: Helium

      Explanation:

      The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:

      The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
      Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
      Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
      PV = nRT
      Where:

      P = pressure
      V = volume
      n = moles of gas
      T = temperature
      R = universal gas constant

      Helium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.

      Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.

      Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except ...

    Correct

    • All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except

      Your Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility

      Explanation:

      The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.

      Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.

      Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin is selective alpha 1 blocker (it causes less tachycardia than a non-selective alpha-blocker) and is the drug of choice for a patient with hypertension and benign hyperplasia of the prostate (BHP).

      The major adverse effect of an alpha-blocker is first-dose hypotension.

      Atenolol and Labetalol are beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.

      Clonidine is an α2A-adrenergic agonist used to treat high blood pressure, ADHD, drug withdrawal (alcohol, opioids, or nicotine), menopausal flushing, diarrhea, spasticity, and certain pain conditions.

      Methyldopa is a centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to manage hypertension alone or in combination with hydrochlorothiazide, and to treat hypertensive crises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the...

    Correct

    • After consuming 12 g of paracetamol, a 37-year-old man is admitted to the medical admissions unit. He has hepatocellular necrosis in both clinical and biochemical aspects.

      The most significant reason for paracetamol causing toxicity is?

      Your Answer: Glutathione is rapidly exhausted

      Explanation:

      Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.

      1st Phase:

      Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.

      Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.

      N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.

      Phase II:

      Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.

      As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old...

    Correct

    • Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
      Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.

      It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.

      It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.

      Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.

      Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.

      Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.

      Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.

      She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.

      Which of the following is the cause for this?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

    Which of the following...

    Correct

    • In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.

      Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?

      Your Answer: Leukotrienes

      Explanation:

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.

      The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.

      The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:

      Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
      An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
      A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.

      Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.

      TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.

      PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.

      PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?

      Your Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin

      Explanation:

      Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.

      Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

    A racemic mixture...

    Correct

    • You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

      A racemic mixture of cyclohexanone rings with one chiral centre
      Local anaesthetic properties.

      Which of the following statements about its primary mechanism of action is most accurate?

      Your Answer: Non-competitive antagonist affecting Ca2+ channels

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is the substance in question. Its structure and pharmacodynamic effects make it a one-of-a-kind intravenous induction agent. The molecule is made up of two cyclohexanone rings (2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone and 2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone). Ketamine has local anaesthetic properties and acts primarily on the brain and spinal cord.

      It affects Ca2+ channels as a non-competitive antagonist for the N-D-methyl-aspartate (NMDA) receptor. It also acts as a local anaesthetic by interfering with neuronal Na+ channels.

      Ketamine causes profound dissociative anaesthesia (profound amnesia and analgesia) as well as sedation.

      Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, is an example of an irreversible competitive antagonist. It forms a covalent bond with the calcium influx receptor.

      Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor agonists that affect chloride influx.

      Flumazenil is an inverse agonist that affects GABAA receptor chloride influx.

      Ketamine is a cyclohexanone derivative that acts as a non-competitive Ca2+ channel antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip...

    Correct

    • While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.

      What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals

      Explanation:

      After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape...

    Incorrect

    • A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape of this curve is sigmoid, with a maximum response of 100%.

      The log-dose response curve of drug A shifts to the right with a maximum response of 100 percent when drug B is administered.

      What does this mean in terms of drug B?

      Your Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but induces different pharmacological effects

      Correct Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but has no intrinsic efficacy

      Explanation:

      Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.

      Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.

      A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.

      An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.

      A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:

    Solution A contains...

    Correct

    • These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:

      Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and
      Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000.

      What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?

      Your Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B

      Explanation:

      The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:

      1. To Increase the duration of block
      2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
      3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).

      The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).

      The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
      The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to...

    Correct

    • A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable.

      What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?

      Your Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:

      Your Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.

      Three groups of CCBs include
      1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
      2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
      3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.

      Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.

      Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine

      Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except:

      Your Answer: Has antiemetic properties.

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and ?1 (but not ?2 )agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct ?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier – no Central nervous system effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?

      Your Answer: Alfentanil

      Explanation:

      Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.

      Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.

      Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised...

    Incorrect

    • The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Small diameter to initiate short term intense contractions

      Correct Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration

      Explanation:

      Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.

      Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.

      Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.

      Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:

      Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
      Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.

      When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?

      Your Answer: Is mainly excreted in the urine

      Correct Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium

      Explanation:

      Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.

      It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.

      Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning?

      Your Answer: Closure of sarcolemmal KATP channels

      Correct Answer: Opening of mitochondrial KATP channels

      Explanation:

      Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local...

    Correct

    • Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local anaesthetic technique is performed.

      Your Answer: Intercostal nerve block

      Explanation:

      An intercostal nerve block is used for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Intercostal nerve blocks manage acute and chronic pain in the chest area. Common indications are chest wall surgery and shingles or postherpetic neuralgia.

      An intercostal nerve block is also an effective option for the management of pain associated with chest trauma and rib fractures. These blocks have been shown to improve oxygenation and respiratory mechanics, and offer pain relief that is comparable to that of epidural analgesia.

      This technique, however, is limited by the relatively large doses of local anaesthetic required, and relatively high intravascular uptake from the intercostal space, increasing risk of local anaesthetic toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for status epilepticus?

      Your Answer: Phenobarbitone

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and cause membrane hyperpolarization.

      Lorazepam has emerged as the preferred benzodiazepine for acute management of status epilepticus. Lorazepam differs from diazepam in two important respects. It is less lipid-soluble than diazepam, with a distribution half-life of two to three hours versus 15 minutes for diazepam. Therefore, it should have a longer duration of clinical effect. Lorazepam also binds the GABAergic receptor more tightly than diazepam, resulting in a longer duration of action. The anticonvulsant effects of lorazepam last six to 12 hours, and the typical dose ranges from 4 to 8 mg. This agent also has a broad spectrum of efficacy, terminating seizures in 75-80% of cases. Its adverse effects are identical to those of diazepam. Thus, lorazepam also is an effective choice for acute seizure management, with the added possibility of a longer duration of action than diazepam.

      Phenobarbitone is a long-acting barbiturate that binds to GABA-A receptor site and increase the duration of chloride channel opening. It also blocks glutamic acid neurotransmission, and, at high doses, can block sodium channels. It is considered as the drug of choice for seizures in infants.

      Phenytoin is an anti-seizure drug that blocks voltage-gated sodium channels. It is preferred in prolonged therapy of status epilepticus because it is less sedating.

      In cases wherein airway protection is required, thiopentone and propofol are the preferred drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is?

      Your Answer: Suxamethonium

      Correct Answer: Teicoplanin

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis

      Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.

      Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
      Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
      Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
      Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)

      Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Correct

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.

      What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be detected in the lymph

      Explanation:

      Insulin is secreted from the ? cells of the pancreas. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two chains. It interacts with cell surface receptors (not the nuclear receptors and thus mechanism of action is not similar to steroids).
      Since insulin can pass from plasma to interstitium and lymphatics, it can be measured in lymph but the concentrations here can be up to 30% less than that of plasma.

      It decreases blood glucose by stimulating the entry of glucose in muscle and fat (by increasing the synthesis of Glucose transporters)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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