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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe breathlessness and tinnitus. She is under treatment for asthma and depression with albuterol and amitriptyline respectively.On examination, she seems agitated with a BP of 100/44, a pulse rate of 112 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 cycles/min, and a temperature of 37.8'C.An arterial blood gas performed reveals:pH: 7.48 (7.36 – 7.44)pO2: 11.2 kPa (11.3 – 12.6 kPa)pCO2: 1.9 kPa (4.7 – 6.0 kPa)Bicarbonate: 13 mmol/l (20 – 28 mmol/L)What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Salicylate poisoning

      Explanation:

      The blood gas analysis provided above is suggestive of a mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis characteristic of salicylate overdose.Pathophysiology:The direct stimulation of the cerebral medulla causes hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.As it is metabolized, it causes an uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria. Lactate levels then increase due to the increase in anaerobic metabolism. This, along with a slight contribution from the salicylate metabolites result in metabolic acidosis.Tinnitus is characteristic and salicylate ototoxicity may produce deafness. Other neurological sequelae include encephalopathy and agitation, seizures and CNS depression and coma. Cardiovascular complications include tachycardia, hypotension, and dysrhythmias (VT, VF, and asystole).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Relaxation of the cardiac muscle at the actin-myosin cross bridges is initiated by...

    Incorrect

    • Relaxation of the cardiac muscle at the actin-myosin cross bridges is initiated by binding of which molecule to the exposed site on the myosin.

      Your Answer: Calcium ATPase

      Correct Answer: ATP

      Explanation:

      A crossbridge is a myosin projection, consisting of two myosin heads, that extends from the thick filaments. Each myosin head has two binding sites: one for ATP and another for actin. The binding of ATP to a myosin head detaches myosin from actin, thereby allowing myosin to bind to another actin molecule. Once attached, the ATP is hydrolysed by myosin, which uses the released energy to move into the cocked position whereby it binds weakly to a part of the actin binding site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The brainstem reticular formation, consists of which important control system responsible for consciousness...

    Correct

    • The brainstem reticular formation, consists of which important control system responsible for consciousness and sleep?

      Your Answer: RAS reticular activating system

      Explanation:

      The reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei that are located along the brainstem. Reticular activating system (RAS) is a set of connected nuclei in the brain that is responsible for regulating wakefulness and sleep wake transitions and is the most influential component in the reticular formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The primary visual cortex is located in the: ...

    Correct

    • The primary visual cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Occipital lobe

      Explanation:

      The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Concerning surface anatomy, where is the mitral valve found? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning surface anatomy, where is the mitral valve found?

      Your Answer: Situated in the 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is situated in the left 4th intercostal space just beneath the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium, serves to? ...

    Correct

    • The coronary sinus, which empties into the right atrium, serves to?

      Your Answer: Drain the venous supply of the myocardium

      Explanation:

      The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the heart muscle (myocardium). It delivers deoxygenated blood to the right atrium, as do the superior and inferior vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are associated with yellow nail syndrome except:

      Your Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Yellow nail syndrome is a very rare medical syndrome that includes pleural effusions, lymphedema (due to under development of the lymphatic vessels) and yellow dystrophic nails. Approximately 40% will also have bronchiectasis. It is also associated with chronic sinusitis and persistent coughing and it usually affects adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its...

    Correct

    • There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)

      Explanation:

      Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution; the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student consumed a bottle of vodka at a party, the next day he finds that he feels excessively thirsty and is passing more urine than usual. Which of the following mechanisms best explains the polyuria due to excessive alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Ethanol reduces the calcium-dependent secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) by blocking channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal.Thus, ethanol’s inhibitory effect helps to explain the increased diuresis experienced during intoxicated states as well as increased free water loss; without appropriate ADH secretion, more water is excreted by the kidneys.Nausea associated with hangovers is mainly due to vagal stimulation to the vomiting centre. Following a particularly severe episode of alcohol excess, people may experience tremors due to increased glutamate production by neurons to compensate for the previous inhibition by ethanol.Management of alcoholism:Nutritional support: – Alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’.Pharmacological management:- Benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal- Disulfiram promotes abstinence – alcohol intake causes a severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.- Acamprosate reduces craving, known to be a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, improves abstinence in placebo-controlled trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual...

    Correct

    • The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual reflexes.

      Your Answer: Superior colliculus

      Explanation:

      The tectum is a part of the midbrain, specifically, the dorsal part of the midbrain. The tectum consists of the superior and inferior colliculi. The superior colliculus is involved in preliminary visual processing and control of eye movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following would be a contraindication to thrombolysis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would be a contraindication to thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: Intracranial neoplasm

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications to thrombolysis include:

      • Previous intracranial bleeding at any time
      • Stroke in less than 6 months
      • Closed head or facial trauma within 3 months
      • Suspected aortic dissection
      • Ischemic stroke within 3 months (except in ischemic stroke within 3 hours time)
      • Active bleeding diathesis
      • Uncontrolled high blood pressure (>180 systolic or >100 diastolic)
      • Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      • Arterio-venous malformations
      • Thrombocytopenia
      • Known coagulation disorders
      • Aneurysm
      • Brain tumours
      • Pericardial effusion
      • Septic embolus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by: ...

    Correct

    • The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by:

      Your Answer: A branch of the right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior aspect of the heart is supplied by the posterior interventricular artery which is a branch of the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity?

      Your Answer: α fiber

      Explanation:

      α nerve fibers are characterized by being highly myelinated, which confers them with fast conduction properties. They innervate extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers, and their conduction velocity is between 80-120 m/s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Myocardial contractility is improved by: ...

    Correct

    • Myocardial contractility is improved by:

      Your Answer: Caffeine

      Explanation:

      Caffeine and other theophyllines breakdown cAMP and have a positive ionotropic effect on the heart. Drugs like quinidine, procainamide and conditions like hypoxia and hypercapnia decreases the contractility of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Correct

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28 year old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever, arthralgia...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever, arthralgia and urethritis. On examination, the ankle is swollen and there is a pustular rash on the dorsal foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      DGI presents as two syndromes: 1) a bacteremic form that includes a triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis, and polyarthralgias without purulent arthritis and 2) a septic arthritis form characterized as a purulent arthritis without associated skin lesions. Many patients will have overlapping features of both syndromes. Time from infection to clinical manifestations may range from 1 day to 3 months. There is no travel history and the rash of Lyme disease is not purulent. Reactive arthritis presents with conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis usually with a red hot tender and swollen joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Di and tri peptides are absorbed via a different mechanism as amino acids,...

    Correct

    • Di and tri peptides are absorbed via a different mechanism as amino acids, this is due to the working of which transporter?

      Your Answer: PEPT 1

      Explanation:

      GLUT and SGLT are glucose transporters. Peptides which are longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cells of the small intestine via a transporter called PepT1 by co-transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The onset of puberty is triggered by ...

    Correct

    • The onset of puberty is triggered by

      Your Answer: Increase in pulsatile GNRH secretion from hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The onset of puberty is associated with high GNRH pulsing, which precedes the rise in sex hormones. Brain tumours which increase GNRH output may also lead to premature puberty. The cause of the GNRH rise is unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Regarding Polymerase Chain Reaction, all are true except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Polymerase Chain Reaction, all are true except:

      Your Answer: There is a linear rise of DNA copies during amplification.

      Explanation:

      All are true except there is a linear rise of DNA copies during amplification. There is an exponential rise in amplification of DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is? ...

    Correct

    • The function of Troponin T in cardiac muscle is?

      Your Answer: Allows attachment of troponin components to tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      Troponin T binds the troponin components to tropomyosin. Troponin I inhibits the interaction of myosin with actin, and troponin C contains the binding sites for the Ca2+ that helps initiate contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following ECG findings is least associated with digoxin use?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following ECG findings is least associated with digoxin use?

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Digoxin ECG features:•    ST depression (‘reverse tick’)•    flattened/inverted T waves•  Prolonged PR interval•    short QT interval•    arrhythmias e.g. AV block, bradycardia, ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation (for example paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with A-V block – so-called PAT with block) is said to be pathognomonic (i.e. diagnostic) of digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which one of the following have not been shown to improve mortality in...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following have not been shown to improve mortality in patients with chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      A number of drugs have been shown to improve mortality in patients with chronic heart failure:

      • ACE inhibitors (SAVE, SOLVD, CONSENSUS)
      • spironolactone (RALES)
      • beta-blockers (CIBIS)
      • hydralazine with nitrates (VHEFT-1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Carotid bodies... ...

    Correct

    • Carotid bodies...

      Your Answer: Are located near the bifurcation of the carotid arteries bilaterally

      Explanation:

      The carotid body is a small cluster of chemoreceptors and supporting cells located near the fork (bifurcation) of the carotid artery (which runs along both sides of the throat).The carotid body detects changes in the composition of arterial blood flowing through it, mainly the partial pressure of oxygen, but also of carbon dioxide. Furthermore, it is also sensitive to changes in pH and temperature. Carotid bodies trigger an action potential through the afferent fibers of the glossopharyngeal nerve,

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In blistering dermatological disorders e.g.. Pemphigus, which junctions are attacked by autoantibodies? ...

    Correct

    • In blistering dermatological disorders e.g.. Pemphigus, which junctions are attacked by autoantibodies?

      Your Answer: Desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus is an autoimmune disease caused by antibodies directed against both desmoglein 1 and desmoglein 3 present in desmosomes. Loss of desmosomes results in loss of cohesion between keratinocytes in the epidermis, and a disruption of the barrier function served by intact skin. The process is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length...

    Correct

    • In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer: Agarose gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the normal portal venous pressure? ...

    Correct

    • What is the normal portal venous pressure?

      Your Answer: 6 mm hg

      Explanation:

      Portal venous pressure is the blood pressure in the hepatic portal vein, and is normally between 5-10 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - According to Poiseuille’s formula, which 1 of the following will lead to increased...

    Correct

    • According to Poiseuille’s formula, which 1 of the following will lead to increased flow?

      Your Answer: Shorter tube

      Explanation:

      V = π p r4 / 8 η lwhere V = discharge volume flow (m3/s)p = pressure difference between the ends of the pipe (N/m2, Pa)r = internal radius of pipe (m)l = length of pipe (m)η = viscosity of fluid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - How does pregnancy affect the cardiac output of a patient? ...

    Correct

    • How does pregnancy affect the cardiac output of a patient?

      Your Answer: Increased cardiac output due to increase in heart rate and stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Output increases to a similar degree as the blood volume. During the first trimester cardiac output is 30-40% higher than in the non-pregnant state. Steady rises are shown on Doppler echocardiography, from an average of 6.7 litres/minute at 8-11 weeks to about 8.7 litres/minute flow at 36-39 weeks; they are due, primarily, to an increase in stroke volume (35%) and, to a lesser extent, to a more rapid heart rate (15%). There is a steady reduction in systemic vascular resistance (SVR) which contributes towards the hyperdynamic circulation observed in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      46
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (29/30) 97%
Pharmacology (4/4) 100%
Cardiovascular (10/11) 91%
Neurology (4/4) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Research Skills (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Passmed