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  • Question 1 - Which condition is most frequently linked to Charles Bonnet syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is most frequently linked to Charles Bonnet syndrome?

      Your Answer: Visual impairment

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70 year old man visits the psychiatric clinic accompanied by his daughter....

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year old man visits the psychiatric clinic accompanied by his daughter. He suffered a stroke six months ago and has been experiencing severe depression. He is currently taking apixaban for atrial fibrillation. Which SSRI would be the most appropriate for him in this situation?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Direct-acting oral anticoagulants like apixaban and rivaroxaban are becoming popular alternatives to warfarin. However, they are metabolized by CYP3A4, an enzyme that is inhibited by most SSRIs (except citalopram). This inhibition can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with apixaban. Therefore, Maudsley recommends citalopram as a safer option in such cases.

      Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a risk factor associated with low socioeconomic class?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Social Class and Mental Disorder

      There is a consistent finding that shows an inverse relationship between social class and rates of mental illness. This means that individuals from lower social classes are more likely to experience mental health issues compared to those from higher social classes. However, this inverse relationship is not observed in the case of anorexia nervosa. This suggests that factors other than social class may play a more significant role in the development of this particular disorder. Overall, the relationship between social class and mental health is complex and requires further investigation to fully understand the underlying factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which statement accurately describes puberty? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes puberty?

      Your Answer: On average, puberty last 3-4 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty

      Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - After creating a scatter plot of the data, what would be the next...

    Correct

    • After creating a scatter plot of the data, what would be the next step for the researcher to determine if there is a linear relationship between a person's age and blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Pearson's coefficient

      Explanation:

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which statement accurately describes the measurement of serum potassium in 1,000 patients with...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the measurement of serum potassium in 1,000 patients with anorexia nervosa, where the mean potassium is 4.6 mmol/l and the standard deviation is 0.3 mmol/l?

      Your Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Standard Deviation and Standard Error of the Mean

      Standard deviation (SD) and standard error of the mean (SEM) are two important statistical measures used to describe data. SD is a measure of how much the data varies, while SEM is a measure of how precisely we know the true mean of the population. The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve that describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements.

      68.3% of the data lies within 1 SD of the mean, 95.4% of the data lies within 2 SD of the mean, and 99.7% of the data lies within 3 SD of the mean. The SD is calculated by taking the square root of the variance and is expressed in the same units as the data set. A low SD indicates that data points tend to be very close to the mean.

      On the other hand, SEM is an inferential statistic that quantifies the precision of the mean. It is expressed in the same units as the data and is calculated by dividing the SD of the sample mean by the square root of the sample size. The SEM gets smaller as the sample size increases, and it takes into account both the value of the SD and the sample size.

      Both SD and SEM are important measures in statistical analysis, and they are used to calculate confidence intervals and test hypotheses. While SD quantifies scatter, SEM quantifies precision, and both are essential in understanding and interpreting data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which investigation is not typically performed as part of a dementia diagnosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which investigation is not typically performed as part of a dementia diagnosis?

      Your Answer: EEG

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, the use of electroencephalography for the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease is not recommended.

      As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What condition would make it inappropriate to use the Student's t-test for conducting...

    Incorrect

    • What condition would make it inappropriate to use the Student's t-test for conducting a significance test?

      Your Answer: Using it to test whether the slope of a regression line differs significantly from 0

      Correct Answer: Using it with data that is not normally distributed

      Explanation:

      T-tests are appropriate for parametric data, which means that the data should conform to a normal distribution.

      Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What are the characteristics of the detachment trait as outlined in the ICD-11...

    Correct

    • What are the characteristics of the detachment trait as outlined in the ICD-11 diagnostic criteria for personality disorders?

      Your Answer: Avoidance of intimacy

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder: Avoidant

      Avoidant Personality Disorder (AVPD) is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. According to the DSM-5, individuals with AVPD exhibit at least four of the following symptoms: avoidance of occupational activities that involve interpersonal contact, unwillingness to be involved unless certain of being liked, restraint in intimate relationships due to fear of ridicule, preoccupation with being criticized of rejected in social situations, inhibition in new interpersonal situations due to feelings of inadequacy, viewing oneself as inept and inferior to others, and reluctance to take personal risks of engage in new activities due to potential embarrassment.

      In contrast, the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for AVPD but instead uses the qualifier of detachment trait. The Detachment trait domain is characterized by a tendency to maintain interpersonal and emotional distance. Common manifestations of Detachment include social detachment (avoidance of social interactions, lack of friendships, and avoidance of intimacy) and emotional detachment (reserve, aloofness, and limited emotional expression and experience). It is important to note that not all individuals with Detachment will exhibit all of these symptoms at all times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which statement accurately describes the clinical symptoms of Wernicke's? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the clinical symptoms of Wernicke's?

      Your Answer: Ataxia of the upper limbs is more common than the lower limbs

      Correct Answer: Ophthalmoplegia is an expected feature

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.

      The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.

      Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse And Addictions
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is a characteristic of data that is positively skewed? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of data that is positively skewed?

      Your Answer: Mode > median > mean

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Skewed Data: Understanding the Relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode

      When analyzing a data set, it is important to consider the shape of the distribution. In a normally distributed data set, the curve is symmetrical and bell-shaped, with the median, mode, and mean all equal. However, in skewed data sets, the distribution is asymmetrical, with the bulk of the data concentrated on one side of the figure.

      In a negatively skewed distribution, the left tail is longer, and the bulk of the data is concentrated to the right of the figure. In contrast, a positively skewed distribution has a longer right tail, with the bulk of the data concentrated to the left of the figure. In both cases, the median is positioned between the mode and the mean, as it represents the halfway point of the distribution.

      However, the mean is affected by extreme values of outliers, causing it to move away from the median in the direction of the tail. In positively skewed data, the mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode. In negatively skewed data, the mode is greater than the median, which is greater than the mean.

      Understanding the relationship between mean, median, and mode in skewed data sets is crucial for accurate data analysis and interpretation. By recognizing the shape of the distribution, researchers can make informed decisions about which measures of central tendency to use and how to interpret their results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What percentage of values fall within a range of 3 standard deviations above...

    Correct

    • What percentage of values fall within a range of 3 standard deviations above and below the mean?

      Your Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - How would you describe the behavior of a child who complains of stomach...

    Correct

    • How would you describe the behavior of a child who complains of stomach pains when taken to school but appears fine and eager to learn and play when allowed to stay at home?

      Your Answer: School refusal

      Explanation:

      Understanding School Refusal

      School refusal is a common problem that affects 1-5% of children, with similar rates in both boys and girls. Although it can occur at any age, it is more common in children aged five, six, 10, and 11 years. Unlike truancy, school refusal is not a formal diagnosis and is characterized by severe distress about attending school, often manifesting as temper tantrums and somatic symptoms. Parents are generally aware of the absence, and there is no antisocial behavior present. Children with school refusal often have a desire and willingness to do school work at home, whereas those who are truant show little interest in school work in any setting.

      The onset of school refusal symptoms is usually gradual and may occur after a holiday of illness. Stressful events at home of school, of with peers, may also cause school refusal. Presenting symptoms include fearfulness, panic symptoms, crying episodes, temper tantrums, threats of self-harm, and somatic symptoms that present in the morning and improve if the child is allowed to stay home.

      Behavioural approaches, primarily exposure-based treatments, are used to treat school refusal. However, it is important to note that school refusal is not a diagnosis but a presenting problem that may be linked to other diagnoses such as separation anxiety disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, depression, oppositional defiant disorder, learning disorders, and pervasive developmental disabilities such as Asperger’s disorder, autism, and mental retardation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - How would you rephrase the question to refer to the test's capacity to...

    Incorrect

    • How would you rephrase the question to refer to the test's capacity to identify a person with a disease as positive?

      Your Answer: Positive predictive value

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the estimated percentage of individuals with an autistic spectrum disorder who...

    Correct

    • What is the estimated percentage of individuals with an autistic spectrum disorder who also have an intellectual disability?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What statement accurately describes the recovery model? ...

    Correct

    • What statement accurately describes the recovery model?

      Your Answer: It involves helping patients learn to live with their illness

      Explanation:

      The recovery model raises questions about how to define recovery from a mental health problem. Mental health services tend to define recovery based on measures such as symptom remission, hospitalization, independence, and involvement in work of school. However, people with mental health problems define recovery differently, placing importance on factors such as overcoming the effects of being a patient, establishing a fulfilling life and positive identity, and discovering how to live well with enduring symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Public Mental Health, Community Psychiatry And Social Interventions
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Based on the AUCs shown below, which screening test had the highest overall...

    Correct

    • Based on the AUCs shown below, which screening test had the highest overall performance in differentiating between the presence of absence of bulimia?

      Test - AUC
      Test 1 - 0.42
      Test 2 - 0.95
      Test 3 - 0.82
      Test 4 - 0.11
      Test 5 - 0.67

      Your Answer: Test 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding ROC Curves and AUC Values

      ROC (receiver operating characteristic) curves are graphs used to evaluate the effectiveness of a test in distinguishing between two groups, such as those with and without a disease. The curve plots the true positive rate against the false positive rate at different threshold settings. The goal is to find the best trade-off between sensitivity and specificity, which can be adjusted by changing the threshold. AUC (area under the curve) is a measure of the overall performance of the test, with higher values indicating better accuracy. The conventional grading of AUC values ranges from excellent to fail. ROC curves and AUC values are useful in evaluating diagnostic and screening tools, comparing different tests, and studying inter-observer variability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What factors have been linked to a higher seizure threshold in individuals receiving...

    Incorrect

    • What factors have been linked to a higher seizure threshold in individuals receiving right unilateral ECT treatment?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam use in 48 hours prior to treatment

      Correct Answer: Advanced age

      Explanation:

      In patients who received right unilateral ECT, it was found through univariate analyses that a higher seizure threshold was linked to advanced age, male gender, a greater burden of medical illness, weight, longer duration of mood disorder, and a history of previous ECT. However, the average lorazepam dose taken in the 48 hours before ECT did not have a correlation with seizure threshold, but it was associated with a reduction in seizure duration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Public Mental Health, Community Psychiatry And Social Interventions
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the most frequent genetic factor that leads to learning disabilities? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequent genetic factor that leads to learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Aetiology of Intellectual Disability

      Intellectual disability (ID), previously known as learning disability, affects between 1% and 3% of the global population. The severity of ID varies, with mild cases being the most common, affecting around 85% of those with the condition. Moderate, severe, and profound cases affect 10%, 4%, and 2% of the population, respectively. The cause of ID can be attributed to environmental and/of genetic factors, although up to 60% of cases have no identifiable cause. Genetic factors are responsible for 25-50% of cases, with the likelihood increasing with the severity of the condition. Down Syndrome is the most common genetic cause of ID, while Fragile X syndrome is the most common X-linked cause and the second most common genetic cause of learning difficulty. Foetal alcohol syndrome is the most common acquired form of ID.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old female with a history of diabetes mellitus complains of feeling down,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female with a history of diabetes mellitus complains of feeling down, sleeping excessively, and overeating. She is diagnosed with atypical depression and prescribed an antidepressant. However, a few days after starting the medication, she experiences weakness and ultimately has a seizure. Her blood glucose level is found to be 2.6 mmol/L (4.0-5.5). What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine

      Explanation:

      Tranylcypromine belongs to the class of drugs known as monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), which are primarily used to treat atypical depression. However, it is important to note that MAOIs have been linked to a decrease in blood sugar levels in patients with diabetes. Furthermore, when taken together with oral hypoglycemic agents, MAOIs may intensify of prolong the hypoglycemic response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 21 - A study looks into the effects of alcohol consumption on female psychiatrists. A...

    Incorrect

    • A study looks into the effects of alcohol consumption on female psychiatrists. A group are selected and separated by the amount they drink into four groups. The first group drinks no alcohol, the second occasionally, the third often, and the fourth large and regular amounts. The group is followed up over the next ten years and the rates of cirrhosis are recorded.
      What is the dependent variable in the study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rates of liver cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Stats Variables

      Variables are characteristics, numbers, of quantities that can be measured of counted. They are also known as data items. Examples of variables include age, sex, business income and expenses, country of birth, capital expenditure, class grades, eye colour, and vehicle type. The value of a variable may vary between data units in a population. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled variables.

      The independent variable is something that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment. Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables, as these do not vary throughout the study.

      For instance, a researcher wants to test the effectiveness of a new weight loss medication. Participants are divided into three groups, with the first group receiving a placebo (0mg dosage), the second group a 10 mg dose, and the third group a 40 mg dose. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured. In this case, the independent variable is the dosage of the medication, as that is what is being manipulated. The dependent variable is the weight, as that is what is being measured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The data collected represents the ratings given by students to the quality of...

    Incorrect

    • The data collected represents the ratings given by students to the quality of teaching sessions provided by a consultant psychiatrist. The ratings are on a scale of 1-5, with 1 indicating extremely unsatisfactory and 5 indicating extremely satisfactory. The ratings are used to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching sessions. How is this data best described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ordinal

      Explanation:

      The data gathered will be measured on an ordinal scale, where each answer option is ranked. For instance, 2 is considered lower than 4, and 4 is lower than 5. In an ordinal scale, it is not necessary for the difference between 4 (satisfactory) and 2 (unsatisfactory) to be the same as the difference between 5 (extremely satisfactory) and 3 (neutral). This is because the numbers are not assigned for quantitative measurement but are used for labeling purposes only.

      Scales of Measurement in Statistics

      In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.

      Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.

      Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.

      Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What hormonal imbalance is observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What hormonal imbalance is observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Extensive research has been conducted on the endocrine alterations linked to anorexia nervosa, revealing compelling evidence of hypothalamic dysfunction. These changes are all secondary and can be reversed through weight gain. Additional changes associated with anorexia nervosa include decreased levels of gonadotropins (FSH and LH), normal of elevated cortisol levels, reduced sex hormones, and imbalanced thyroid hormones characterized by low T3, high reverse T3, and an elevated T4:T3 ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A young woman with no prior psychiatric history experiences mania during her initial...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman with no prior psychiatric history experiences mania during her initial pregnancy. What would be the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      The recommendation from NICE is to use antipsychotics for the treatment of mania in women.

      Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential

      Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.

      Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A decreased plasma clozapine to norclozapine ratio in an elderly patient with a...

    Incorrect

    • A decreased plasma clozapine to norclozapine ratio in an elderly patient with a stable clozapine dose indicates what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enzyme induction

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s plasma clozapine to norclozapine ratio decreases while on a consistent clozapine dose, it may indicate enzyme induction. Conversely, an increase in the ratio may suggest enzyme inhibition of saturation, recent non-trough sample, of poor compliance. The clozapine to norclozapine ratio is typically stable among patients with stable clozapine doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Public Mental Health, Community Psychiatry And Social Interventions
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  • Question 26 - What is the definition of secondary deviance? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of secondary deviance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An individual's reaction to experiences resulting from being labelled as deviant

      Explanation:

      Primary deviance refers to the initial act of breaking a social rule of expectation, which may include health-related norms. On the other hand, secondary deviance describes the consequences of being stigmatized as a result of the primary deviant behavior. An example of this could be an individual joining a gang as a means of finding acceptance after being rejected by mainstream society. For more information on this topic, one can refer to resources such as SOS Sociology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be the most appropriate first-line treatment for a 12 year old boy with mild depression that has failed to respond to group based CBT despite 3 months of therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Individual CBT

      Explanation:

      Depression in Young People: NICE Guidelines

      The NICE Guidelines for depression in young people are limited to those between the ages of 5-18. For mild depression without significant comorbid problems of active suicidal ideas of plans, watchful waiting is recommended, along with digital CBT, group CBT, group IPT, of group non-directive supportive therapy. For moderate to severe depression, family-based IPT, family therapy, psychodynamic psychotherapy, individual CBT, and fluoxetine may be used for 5-11 year olds, while individual CBT and fluoxetine may be used for 12-18 year olds. Antidepressant medication should not be used for initial treatment of mild depression, and should only be used in combination with concurrent psychological therapy for moderate to severe depression. Fluoxetine is the only antidepressant for which clinical trial evidence shows that the benefits outweigh the risks, and should be used as the first-line treatment. Paroxetine, venlafaxine, tricyclic antidepressants, and St John’s wort should not be used for the treatment of depression in children and young people. Second generation antipsychotics may be used for depression with psychotic symptoms, and ECT should only be considered for those with very severe depression and life-threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - What is the most probable diagnosis for an army officer, aged 19, who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for an army officer, aged 19, who presented with symptoms of unusual behavior, excessive sleepiness, and increased appetite, but recovered after a 7-day hospital stay?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kleine-Levin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Kleine-Levin Syndrome: A Mysterious Condition

      Kleine-Levin syndrome is a peculiar disorder that typically affects adolescent boys. It is characterized by an excessive need for sleep and an insatiable appetite when awake. The condition is also associated with emotional and behavioral issues such as irritability and aggression.

      The onset of symptoms is sudden and can last for several days to weeks before disappearing. This is followed by a period of normalcy, only to be followed by another episode. This pattern can continue for years, but the severity of symptoms tends to decrease over time. During the periods between episodes, those affected appear to be perfectly healthy with no signs of physical of behavioral dysfunction. The media has dubbed this condition as Sleeping Beauty syndrome.

      Despite extensive research, the cause of Kleine-Levin syndrome remains unknown. However, the prognosis is generally positive, with most individuals making a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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  • Question 29 - Levinson's theory of development identifies the midlife transition as occurring during which time...

    Incorrect

    • Levinson's theory of development identifies the midlife transition as occurring during which time frame?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40-45

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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  • Question 30 - How does the model of behaviour change proposed by Prochaska and DiClemente define...

    Incorrect

    • How does the model of behaviour change proposed by Prochaska and DiClemente define the ultimate phase of change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintenance

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change Model does not view relapse as a stage in the process.

      Stages of Change Model

      Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.

      The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.

      The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse And Addictions
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  • Question 31 - What are the safe drinking limits per week recommended by the Royal College...

    Incorrect

    • What are the safe drinking limits per week recommended by the Royal College of Psychiatrists?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Men 14/ Women 14

      Explanation:

      Delirium tremens (DTs) is a serious medical emergency that can occur in individuals who abruptly reduce their alcohol intake after prolonged excessive drinking.
      Withdrawal symptoms typically appear about 8 hours after a significant drop in blood alcohol levels, with the peak occurring on day two and significant improvement by day five. Minor withdrawal symptoms include insomnia, fatigue, tremors, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, headache, sweating, palpitations, anorexia, depression, and craving. Alcoholic hallucinosis can occur 12-24 hours after stopping alcohol and involves visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations. Withdrawal seizures can occur 24-48 hours after cessation and are generalized tonic-clonic seizures. DTs can occur 48-72 hours after cessation and is characterized by altered mental status, hallucinations, confusion, delusions, severe agitation, and seizures. It is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnea, tremor, and mydriasis. Patients at increased risk include those with a previous history of DTs of alcohol withdrawal seizures, co-existing infections, abnormal liver function, and older patients.

      DTs should be treated as a medical emergency with oral lorazepam as first-line treatment. If symptoms persist of medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol, of olanzapine should be given. Intensive care may be required. If DTs develop during treatment for acute withdrawal, the reducing regime should be reviewed. The mortality rate can be up to 35% if untreated, which reduces to 5% with early recognition and treatment.

      Patients with alcohol withdrawal seizures should be given a quick-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam. Phenytoin should not be given. Patients at high risk of alcohol withdrawal but with no of mild symptoms are typically given a reducing dose of chlordiazepoxide of diazepam over 5-7 days. Chlormethiazole may also be offered as an alternative, but is rarely used due to the risk of fatal respiratory depression, especially in patients with liver cirrhosis.

      It is also important to administer high-potency B vitamins, specifically thiamine (e.g. pabrinex), to all patients with a history of high alcohol intake to reduce the risk of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse And Addictions
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  • Question 32 - How can we best demonstrate 'Rose's paradox'? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can we best demonstrate 'Rose's paradox'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A situation where the majority of cases of a disease come from a population at low of moderate risk of that disease, and only a minority of cases come from the high risk population

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Public Mental Health, Community Psychiatry And Social Interventions
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  • Question 33 - What is the most frequently observed psychiatric disorder in children with PANDAS? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed psychiatric disorder in children with PANDAS?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder

      Explanation:

      PANDAS: Paediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections

      PANDAS is a condition characterized by sudden onset of worsening of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and tic disorders in children between the ages of 3 and puberty. It is associated with group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, which can be confirmed through a positive throat culture of history of scarlet fever. In addition to psychiatric symptoms, PANDAS is also associated with neurological abnormalities such as physical hyperactivity and jerky movements that are not under the child’s control. The presence of these diagnostic features can help identify PANDAS in affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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  • Question 34 - At what IQ level is someone considered to have a profound intellectual disability?...

    Incorrect

    • At what IQ level is someone considered to have a profound intellectual disability?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Classification of Intellectual Disability

      Intellectual disability affects approximately 2% of the general population, with an estimated 828,000 adults aged 18 of older affected in England alone. Those with an IQ below 70 are considered to have an intellectual disability, with the average IQ being 100. The severity of intellectual disability is categorized based on IQ scores, with mild intellectual disability being the most common (85% of cases) and profound intellectual disability being the least common (1-2% of cases). People with intellectual disability may require varying levels of support in their daily lives, depending on their individual needs. It is important to use the preferred term ‘people with intellectual disability’ when referring to individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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  • Question 35 - What tool of method would be most effective in examining the relationship between...

    Incorrect

    • What tool of method would be most effective in examining the relationship between a potential risk factor and a particular condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incidence rate

      Explanation:

      Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.

      Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.

      It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.

      Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
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  • Question 36 - A 42-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department on a Saturday evening seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department on a Saturday evening seeking to speak with the on-call psychiatrist regarding his dependence on opioids.
      He explains that he recently relocated to the area and has exhausted his supply of buprenorphine, which he requires to prevent relapse into heroin use.
      He plans to establish care with a primary care physician next week to obtain ongoing prescriptions.
      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request a urine drug screen

      Explanation:

      To ensure safe and appropriate treatment, it is crucial to verify the patient’s history of heroin dependence and methadone treatment through a urine drug screen and obtaining collateral information. Neglecting this step may result in prescribing methadone, which can be misused by the patient and potentially lead to fatal overdose if combined with injectable heroin. Additionally, methadone has a potential street value and can be sold illegally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse And Addictions
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  • Question 37 - A team of investigators aims to explore the perspectives of middle-aged physicians regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A team of investigators aims to explore the perspectives of middle-aged physicians regarding individuals with chronic fatigue syndrome. They will conduct interviews with a random selection of physicians until no additional insights are gained of existing ones are substantially altered. What is their objective before concluding further interviews?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Data saturation

      Explanation:

      In qualitative research, data saturation refers to the point where additional data collection becomes unnecessary as the responses obtained are repetitive and do not provide any new insights. This is when the researcher has heard the same information repeatedly and there is no need to continue recruiting participants. Understanding data saturation is crucial in qualitative research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research
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  • Question 38 - What is the highest approved dosage of risperidone that can be administered for...

    Incorrect

    • What is the highest approved dosage of risperidone that can be administered for treating aggression and agitation related to Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 mg BD

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley 14th, Risperidone is approved for a maximum dosage of 1 mg twice daily, but the recommended of optimal dose is 500 µg.

      Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia

      Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 39 - Which statement accurately reflects the relationship between migration and the risk of developing...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately reflects the relationship between migration and the risk of developing schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The relative risk for developing schizophrenia among second-generation migrants is 4.5

      Explanation:

      The risk of obstetric complications is about twice as high in individuals with schizophrenia compared to those without the condition.

      Schizophrenia and Migration: A Meta-Analysis and Review

      Migration is a significant risk factor for the development of schizophrenia, according to a comprehensive review of the topic. The study found that the mean weighted relative risk for first-generation migrants was 2.7, while the relative risk for second-generation migrants was 4.5. When analyzing both first- and second-generation migrants, the relative risk was 2.9. The study also found that migrants from developing countries and areas with a majority black population had significantly greater effect sizes. These findings highlight the importance of considering migration status when assessing risk for schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 40 - What is the name of the screening tool that combines a self-reported component...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the screening tool that combines a self-reported component and a semi-structured interview to assess personality disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IPDE

      Explanation:

      There are several screening tools available for personality disorder, including SAPAS, FFMRF, IPDE, PDQ-R, IPDS, and IIP-PD. SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete, while FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5. IPDE is a semi-structured clinical interview that includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview, while PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions. IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes, while IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4. A score of 3 of more on SAPAS warrants further assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Old Age Psychiatry (2/3) 67%
Psychotherapy (1/1) 100%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders (2/2) 100%
Research (4/7) 57%
General Adult Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Substance Misuse And Addictions (0/1) 0%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (2/2) 100%
Public Mental Health, Community Psychiatry And Social Interventions (1/2) 50%
Passmed