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Question 1
Correct
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Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?
Your Answer: Tubular interstitial cells
Explanation:Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 2
Correct
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An effect of aging on the kidney includes?
Your Answer: Decreased GFR
Explanation:The normal range of GFR, adjusted for body surface area, is 100 to 130 mL/min/1.73m2 in men and 90 to 120 ml/min/1.73m2 in women younger than the age of 40. After age 40, GFR decreases progressively with age, by about 0.4 mL/min to 1.2 mL/min per year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent infection. Bone marrow aspiration revealed a calcium level of 3.9 mmol/l and alkaline phosphatase level of 160u/l. What type of cell would be found in abundance in the marrow spear?
Your Answer: Plasma cells
Explanation:Multiple myeloma or plasma cell myeloma, is a cancer of plasma cells, responsible for producing antibodies. It often, presents early with no symptoms followed by bone pain and pathological fractures (metastases), raised calcium levels, bleeding, frequent infections, and anaemia. It usually occurs around the age of 61 and is more common in men than women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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The energy needed for glycogen synthesis comes from which compound?
Your Answer: UTP
Explanation:Glycogen synthesis is, unlike its breakdown, endergonic—it requires the input of energy. Energy for glycogen synthesis comes from uridine triphosphate (UTP)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension and angina. He continues to smoke about 20 cigarettes per day despite being advised about lifestyle modifications.Blood investigations obtained in the emergency department show:Na+: 133 mmol/lK+: 3.3 mmol/lUrea: 4.5 mmol/lCreatinine: 90 μmol/lWhich among the following is the most likely explanation for the abnormalities seen in the above investigations?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy
Explanation:The blood investigations in this patient reveal hyponatremia as well as hypokalaemia. Among the options provided, Bendroflumethiazide therapy can cause the above presentation with the electrolyte disturbances. Note:- Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is associated with hyperkalaemia.- Enalapril therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, hypotension, cough, and rarely a rash.- Felodipine therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, headache, cough, and palpitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which one of the following nerve fibers has the fastest conduction velocity?
Your Answer: α fiber
Explanation:α nerve fibers are characterized by being highly myelinated, which confers them with fast conduction properties. They innervate extrafusal skeletal muscle fibers, and their conduction velocity is between 80-120 m/s.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?
Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans
Explanation:Viridans Alpha-haemolytic streptococci, that are present in the mouth are the most frequently isolated microorganisms when the infection is acquired in a community setting. In contrast, Staphylococcus blood stream infections are frequently acquired in a health care setting where they can enter the blood stream through procedures that cause break in the integrity of skin like surgery, catheterisation or during access of long term indwelling catheters or secondary to intravenous injection of recreational drugs.Prosthetic valve endocarditis is commonly caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis as it is capable of growing as a biofilm on plastic surfaces
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria delivers the toxin extracellular in a 2 stage process to the host?
Your Answer: I
Correct Answer: II
Explanation:Gram negative bacteria contain two membranes and there are about six specialized secretion systems. The secreted proteins play a key role in pathogenesis. Type II secretion systems (T2SS) are conserved in most Gram-negative bacteria, where they transport proteins from the periplasm into the extracellular environment. Because the T2SS channel is only found in the outer membrane, proteins secreted through this apparatus must first be delivered to the periplasm via the Sec or Tat secretion pathways and then to the extracellular environment making it a two-stage process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:
Your Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following foods contain Vitamin B 12?
Your Answer: Liver, meat
Explanation:No fungi, plants, nor animals (including humans) are capable of producing vitamin B12. Only bacteria and archaea have the enzymes needed for its synthesis. Proved food sources of B12 are animal products (meat, fish, dairy products).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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The basic unit of contraction in myocytes is:
Your Answer: Sarcomere
Explanation:Sarcomere is the organelle where calcium is stored to be released during contraction of the muscle. It is the basic unit of contraction in striated muscle fibers. As myocytes are also striated muscles, sarcomeres also forms the basic unit of contraction. The impulses travel along the membrane and via its interaction with the dihydropyridine receptors it releases the stored calcium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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The production of bile is increased by: Stimulation of the ____ nerve and the hormone ____.
Your Answer: Vagus, CCK
Explanation:Cholecystokinin is synthesized and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum, the first segment of the small intestine, and causes the release of digestive enzymes and bile from the pancreas and gallbladder, respectively. It also acts as a hunger suppressant. Release of CCK is stimulated by monitor peptide released by pancreatic acinar cells as well as CCK-releasing protein, a paracrine factor secreted by enterocytes in the gastrointestinal mucosa. In addition, release of acetylcholine by the parasympathetic nerve fibers of the vagus nerve also stimulate its secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 13
Correct
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Which one of the following is not part of the WHO diagnostic criteria for the metabolic syndrome?
Your Answer: High LDL
Explanation:The World Health Organization 1999 criteria require the presence of any one of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, AND two of the following:
- Blood pressure: ≥ 140/90 mmHg
- Dyslipidaemia: triglycerides (TG): ≥ 1.695 mmol/L and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) ≤ 0.9 mmol/L (male), ≤ 1.0 mmol/L (female)
- Central obesity: waist: hip ratio > 0.90 (male); > 0.85 (female), or body mass index > 30 kg/m2
- Microalbuminuria: urinary albumin excretion ratio ≥ 20 µg/min or albumin: creatinine ratio ≥ 30 mg/g
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Concerning coronary arteries, what is the net effect of B2 stimulation on the heart (e.g. Running athlete)?
Your Answer: Vasodilation directly
Correct Answer: Vasodilation via production of metabolites
Explanation:The coronary arterioles contain α-adrenergic receptors, which cause vasoconstriction, and β-adrenergic receptors, which cause vasodilation. Activity in the noradrenergic nerves to the heart and injections of norepinephrine cause coronary vasodilation. However, norepinephrine also increases the heart rate and the force of cardiac contraction, and the vasodilation is due to production of vasodilator metabolites in the myocardium secondary to the increase in its activity. As exercise has the same effect as sympathetic stimulation, it will result in vasodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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The lower oesophageal sphincter is under neural control. Which of the following causes contraction of the intrinsic sphincter?
Your Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:The lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) is a specific region of the oesophageal circular smooth muscle. It allows the passage of a food bolus to the stomach and prevents the reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus. The tone of the LOS is myogenic in origin and depends on smooth muscle properties that lead to the opening of Ca2+ channels but can also be modulated by enteric motor neurons, the parasympathetic and sympathetic extrinsic nervous system and several neurohumoral substances. Nitric oxide causes LOS relaxation. Acetylcholine and tachykinins are involved in the LOS contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Regarding bronchial innervation which of the following is correct:
Your Answer: Beta 2 receptors decrease bronchial secretions
Correct Answer: Alpha 1 receptors increase bronchial constriction
Explanation:Stimulation of β2 receptors results in smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation. α1 receptors cause smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles although minor to the β2 effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Correct
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Select the correct statement regarding the portal vein.
Your Answer: It drains most of the gastrointestinal tract and the spleen.
Explanation:The portal vein supplies 75% of total blood flow to the liver and enters the liver centrally via the porta hepatis. Portal venous flow increases after meals. The portal vein receives blood from the intestines via the superior and inferior mesenteric veins, from the stomach via gastric veins and from the spleen and pancreas via the splenic vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is:
Your Answer: Brodmann area 3,1,2
Correct Answer: Brodmann area 44
Explanation:A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:Primary Sensory 3,1,2Primary Motor 4Premotor 6Primary Visual 17Primary Auditory 41Brocas 44
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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Question 21
Correct
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In the blood supply of the heart, ‘dominance’ refers to the coronary artery which supplies the?
Your Answer: Posterior interventricular artery
Explanation:Dominance of the coronary artery system is defined by the artery that gives rise to the posterior interventricular artery. Dominance of the right coronary artery is more common (68%). It gives rise to the large posterior interventricular branch which goes down to the apex of the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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Southern Blotting and DNA probes:
Your Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting
Explanation:A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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Myocardium requires more oxygen to expel blood in:
Your Answer: A stenotic aortic valve
Explanation:In aortic valve stenosis, increased ventricular pressure Is needed to expel the blood into the aorta. Increased pressure means increased contractility hence increase O2 consumption by the heart muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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A 24 year old male, known case of hereditary angioneurotic oedema presents with recurrent fever and arthralgia which is accompanied by a rash on face and upper chest. These attacks have been refractory to treatment and have occurred recurrently requiring adrenaline on several occasions. Lab results reveal persistently reduced C4 levels. Which of the following is most likely causing his current symptoms?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:Angioedema secondary to C1 inhibitor deficiency has been rarely reported to be associated with systemic lupus erythematosus. A genetic defect of C1 inhibitor produces hereditary angioedema, which is usually presented with cutaneous painless oedema, but oedema of the genital area, gastrointestinal and laryngeal tracts have also been reported. In lupus patients, angioedema may be the result of an acquired type of C1 inhibitor deficiency, most probably due to antibody formation directed against the C1 inhibitor molecule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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The largest energy reserves among both lean and obese subjects are from?
Your Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:The energy required for sustained exercise is provided by the oxidation of two fuels, glucose stored as glycogen in the liver and muscle, and long-chain fatty acids, stored as adipose tissue triglycerides. The latter provides the largest energy reserve in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 26
Correct
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A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which of the following?
Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea
Explanation:Vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP) is found in the nerves innervating the GIT. It markedly stimulates the secretion of intestinal electrolytes and also with them water. This results in secretary diarrhoea. Along with that it also relaxes intestinal smooth muscle including the sphincters, it also results in dilation of the peripheral blood vessels and along with this its also inhibits gastric acid secretions. A VIPoma will exaggerate all this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into an amino acid sequence?
Your Answer: Translation
Explanation:Messenger RNA (mRNA) is decoded in a ribosome, outside the nucleus, to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide. This is known as translation and follows after the process transcription of DNA to RNA in the cell’s nucleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 28
Correct
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Neurogenesis occurs throughout life in the following two areas:
Your Answer: Hippocampus and striatum
Explanation:In humans, neurogenesis or new neurons are continually born during adulthood in two regions of the brain: The subgranular zone (SGZ), part of the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the striatum. In other species of mammals, adult-born neurons also appear in the olfactory bulb. In humans, however, few if any olfactory bulb neurons are generated after birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 29
Correct
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B1 adrenergic stimulation produces:
Your Answer: Increase in calcium cytosolic concentration
Explanation:Norepinephrine secreted by the sympathetic endings binds to B1 receptors, and the resulting increase in intracellular cAMP facilitates the opening of L channels, increasing Ica and the rapidity of the depolarization phase of the impulse and activates PKA which leads to phosphorylation of the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, causing them to spend more time in the open state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days back. Which among the following statements is true regarding ezetimibe?
Your Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption
Explanation:Ezetimibe is a cholesterol-lowering agent that acts to prevent cholesterol absorption by directly inhibiting cholesterol receptors on enterocytes.It does not affect the absorption of drugs (e.g. digoxin, thyroxine) or fat-soluble vitamins (A, D and K) as the anion-exchange resins do. It does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.The increased risk of myositis associated with the statins is not seen with ezetimibe.The most common adverse effects include headache, runny nose, and sore throat. Less common reactions include body aches, back pain, chest pain, diarrhoea, joint pain, fatigue, and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?
Your Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C
Explanation:MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 32
Correct
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Calcium is mobilized from the sarcoplasmic reticulum through:
Your Answer: Ryanodine receptor (RyR2) calcium release channels
Explanation:During the plateau phase of the action potential, calcium from the extracellular fluid enters through the L type of calcium channels. This entry triggers the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum via the ryanodine receptors. As a result intracellular calcium increases binding to troponin C resulting in contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 33
Correct
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Where is Vitamin B 12 absorbed?
Your Answer: Terminal ileum
Explanation:Protein-bound vitamin B12 must be released from the proteins by the action of digestive proteases in both the stomach and small intestine. Gastric acid releases the vitamin from food particles; therefore antacid and acid-blocking medications (especially proton-pump inhibitors) may inhibit absorption of B12. B12 must be attached to Intrinsic Factor (IF) for it to be efficiently absorbed, as receptors on the enterocytes in the terminal ileum of the small bowel only recognize the B12-IF complex; in addition, intrinsic factor protects the vitamin from catabolism by intestinal bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 34
Correct
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Which is primarily responsible for the conversion of T4 to T3 in the periphery?
Your Answer: Deiodinase 1
Explanation:Type 1 iodothyronine deiodinase, also known simply as deiodinase 1, is an enzyme which can produce both triiodothyronine (active form) or inactivate metabolites from T4. It is responsible for almost 80% of the conversion of peripheral T4 to T3. Iodothyronine deiodinases are not to be confused with iodotyrosine deiodinases, which are also part of the deiodinase enzymes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 35
Correct
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Which hormone results in the production of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes but low in volume?
Your Answer: Cholecystokinin
Explanation:Cholecystokinin (CCK) mediates digestion in the small intestine by inhibiting gastric emptying and decreasing gastric acid secretion. It stimulates the acinar cells of the pancreas to release a juice rich in pancreatic digestive enzymes, hence the old name pancreozymin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 36
Correct
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The interstitium of the kidney is most hypertonic in the:
Your Answer: Papillary tip of the medulla
Explanation:The medullary interstitium is the tissue surrounding the loop of Henle in the renal medulla. It functions in renal water reabsorption by building up a high hypertonicity, which draws water out of the thin descending limb of the loop of Henle and the collecting duct system. This hypertonicity, in turn, is created by an efflux of urea from the inner medullary collecting duct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 37
Correct
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When during the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
Your Answer: S phase
Explanation:The S phase is known as the synthesis phase. During this phase DNA will begin to replicated, as well as the synthesis of the centrosomes and associated proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 38
Correct
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In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete gastric lipase?
Your Answer: Chief cell
Explanation:Chief cells produce pepsinogen and gastric lipase. Parietal cells produce stomach acid and intrinsic factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 39
Correct
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Pendrin is a Cl-/I- exchanger whose function is:
Your Answer: Transfer of iodide across the thyrocyte apical membrane into the colloid
Explanation:Pendrin is an anion transporter present in the inner ear, thyroid and kidney. It regulates the entrance of iodide from the thyroid cell to the colloid space. It has been proposed that its role could be the maintenance of the ionic composition of the endolymph.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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The transporter responsible for most glucose absorption in the lumen of the small intestine is called?
Your Answer: GLUT 2
Correct Answer: SGLT 1
Explanation:GLUT = Glucose transporter. GLUT are a family of proteins of different types. GLUT 1 is mainly expressed in erythrocytes, whereas GLUT 2 is mainly expressed by, liver cells and renal tubular cells. GLUT 5 is a sucrose transporter in enterocytes. SGLT- Sodium-dependent glucose cotransporter or sodium-glucose linked transporter are a family of proteins of different types. SGLT1 transporter is found in the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine and SGLT2 in the proximal tubule of the nephron.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures is not part of the conducting system of the heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular wall
Explanation:The conduction system of the heart consists of the SA node, AV node, internodal pathway between these two nodes, Bundle of His and the purkinje fibers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Regarding the structure of the 3 pituitary glycoprotein hormones FSH, LH, and TSH, which of the following is true about the α- and β-subunits of each hormone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maximal physiological activity occurs only on their combination
Explanation:Glycoprotein hormones (GPHs) are the most complex molecules that function as hormones. They each consist of two different subunits, α and β, which are non-covalently associated. The combination of these subunits results in an increase in their activity and β structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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During which phase are the 2 chromatids pulled apart at the centromere?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaphase
Explanation:During the prometaphase the microtubule organizing centre completely develops. The spindle fibers attach to the chromosome and the centriole. It is in the Anaphase however that the spindle fibers contract pulling the sister chromatids apart. Later in the anaphase a cleave furrow beings to forms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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The position of the kidneys besides the vertebral column retroperitoneally spans levels:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T12 – L3
Explanation:The asymmetry within the abdominal cavity, caused by the position of the liver, typically results in the right kidney being slightly lower and smaller than the left, and being placed slightly more to the middle than the left kidney. The left kidney is approximately at the vertebral level T12 to L3, and the right is slightly lower.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in a night club. His friends who accompanied him admit that, of recent, he has been using increasing amounts of cocaine. Which among the following is commonly associated with cocaine overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Metabolic acidosis is associated with cocaine overdose. In overdose, cocaine leads to agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, hallucinations, and finally convulsions. Metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, and ventricular arrhythmias also occur.Chronic use may be associated with premature coronary artery disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage.There are 3 stages for acute cocaine toxicity:Stage I: CNS symptoms of headache, vertigo, pseudo hallucinations, hyperthermia, hypertension. Stage II: increased deep tendon reflexes, tachypnoea, irregular breathing, hypertension.Stage III: Areflexia, coma, fixed and dilated pupils, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, apnoea, and respiratory failure.Treatment:- Airway, breathing, and circulation to be secured. The patient’s fever should be managed, and one should rule out hypoglycaemia as a cause of the neuropsychiatric symptoms. – Cardiovascular toxicity and agitation are best-treated first-line with benzodiazepines to decrease CNS sympathetic outflow.- The mixed beta/alpha blocker labetalol is safe and effective for treating concomitant cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia.- Non-dihydropyridine calcium channels blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil have been shown to reduce hypertension reliably, but not tachycardia. – Dihydropyridine agents such as nifedipine should be avoided, as reflex tachycardia may occur. – The alpha-blocker phentolamine has been recommended but only treats alpha-mediated hypertension and not tachycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate
Explanation:Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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The structure of haemoglobin A in adults includes
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haem, globin polypeptide chains α and β
Explanation:Haemoglobin A (HbA), also known as adult haemoglobin or α2β2, is the most common human haemoglobin tetramer, comprising over 97% of the total red blood cell haemoglobin. It consists of two alpha chains and two beta chains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is most suitable to describe necrosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Significant inflammatory response
Explanation:Necrosis is the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply. Cellular death due to necrosis does not follow the (regulated) apoptotic signal transduction pathway, but rather various receptors are activated, and result in the loss of cell membrane integrity and an uncontrolled release of products of cell death into the extracellular space. This initiates in the surrounding tissue an inflammatory response which attracts leukocytes and nearby phagocytes which eliminate the dead cells by phagocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Cyclic AMP activates the following enzyme
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protein Kinase A
Explanation:Cyclic AMP works by activating protein kinase A (PKA, or cAMP-dependent protein kinase). Protein kinase A can also phosphorylate specific proteins that bind to promoter regions of DNA, causing increases in transcription.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 68 year old female is on long term prednisolone therapy for polymyalgia rheumatica. Which of the following would be the most suitable protection against osteoporosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Prevention of osteoporosis associated with chronic glucocorticoid therapy is done by administrating bisphosphonates. Oral bisphosphonates are indicated for patients aged above 65 who have been on steroid therapy for over 3 months, so as to reduce the risk of steroid induced osteoporosis. HRT is usually done in post menopausal women who have oestrogen related bone resorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her friends following the consumption of an unknown drug whilst clubbing. Which of the following features point towards the use of ecstasy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temperature of 39.5ºC
Explanation:Hyperthermia (Temperature 39.5 C) points towards the use of ecstasy.MDMA (3,4 – methylenedioxymethamphetamine), or more commonly known as Molly or Ecstasy, is a synthetic psychoactive substance.Patients who consumed MDMA may present in a tachycardic, hypertensive, hyperthermic, and agitated state. Adverse effects, even at minor recreational doses, include increased muscle activity (such as bruxism, restless legs, and jaw clenching), hyperactivity, insomnia, difficulty concentrating and feelings of restlessness.Treatment of MDMA overdose:Emphasis should be on maintaining the airway along with the stabilization of breathing and circulation.Patients may present obtunded due to hyponatremia requiring endotracheal intubation.For the hyperthermic patient, evaporative cooling along with ice packs to the groin and axilla are beneficial.Patients who present in severe toxicity within one hour of ingestion can receive activated charcoal PO or via an NG tube. Antipyretics, such as acetaminophen, should be avoided as they have no role and can worsen an already compromised liver.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about her short-term memory problems for the past 10 months. He has to remind her to take her medications and she has had two incidents of falling over in the last 10 months. Which of the following assists in the diagnosis of above condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progressive loss of function
Explanation:The clinical presentation is dementia. To differentiate Alzheimer disease and vascular dementia, the progressive loss of function is important. Progressive loss of function is usually associated with vascular dementia and rest of the responses are associated with Alzheimer disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
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Question 55
Incorrect
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol
Explanation:Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreezeFeatures of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertensionStage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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Preload:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is the degree to which the myocardium is stretched before is contracts
Explanation:Preload is end diastolic volume. It is the degree to which the heart muscle fiber is stretched when it fills up completely just before the heart contracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 59
Incorrect
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The action of progesterone on different organs/systems includes:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breasts: stimulation of lobular and alveolar development
Explanation:Progesterone is a sex hormone which affects mainly the reproductive system. In the breasts, it mediates the lobuloalveolar maturation to allow for milk production; this is done in conjunction with prolactin. It acts to maintain female reproductive and sex characteristics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 60
Incorrect
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What effect does osmotic diuresis have on net Na+ excretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Markedly increased Na+ excretionÂ
Explanation:Osmotic diuresis is the increase of urination rate caused by the presence of certain substances in the small tubes of the kidneys. The excretion occurs when substances such as glucose enter the kidney tubules and cannot be reabsorbed (due to a pathological state or the normal nature of the substance). The substances cause an increase in the osmotic pressure within the tubule, causing retention of water within the lumen, and thus reduces the reabsorption of water, increasing urine output (i.e. diuresis). Sodium, chloride, potassium are markedly excreted in osmotic diuresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
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Question 61
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram negative cocci
Explanation:Neisseria meningitidis, often referred to as meningococcus, is a gram negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease such as meningococcaemia, a life-threatening sepsis. The bacterium is referred to as a coccus because it is round, and more specifically, diplococcus because of its tendency to form pairs. About 10% of adults are carriers of the bacteria in their nasopharynx.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 62
Incorrect
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The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1
Explanation:Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following symptoms would point towards an inflammatory joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Marked stiffness for more than an hour in the mornings
Explanation:In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), clinical symptoms of joint stiffness, pain, and functional disability are commonly most severe in the early morning. These symptoms closely follow the circadian rhythm of the pro-inflammatory cytokine, interleukin (IL)-6. In RA, the increase in nocturnal anti-inflammatory cortisol secretion is insufficient to suppress ongoing inflammation, resulting in the morning symptoms characteristic of RA. Established diagnostic criteria for RA include prolonged morning stiffness that could last up to an hour. Loss of joint mobility, pain, malaise and swelling of finger joints are features that are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis, and are found in many other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 64
Incorrect
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What is the effect of oxytocin on the breast?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Milk ejection
Explanation:Oxytocin is a peptide hormone and neuropeptide, produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. It causes the milk ejection or let-down reflex, causing the milk to be transported to the subareolar sinuses, allowing it to be released through the nipple. This response is initiated by the act of suckling by the baby, but it can be conditioned to be triggered by different stimuli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 65
Incorrect
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The process by which depolarization of the muscle fiber initiates contraction is called?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Action potential
Explanation:This process is known as an action potential. Upon generation of an action potential when depolarization reaches threshold, it spreads throughout the muscle fiber, resulting in generation of an excitation-contraction coupling leading to contraction of the muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 66
Incorrect
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Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on the microvilli of the intestinal epithelium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrolases
Explanation:There are certain enzymes which are part of the brush border cells including hydrolases also known as the brush border hydrolases. They perform the final step in digestion of certain nutrients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 67
Incorrect
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Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commensal flora that gain access to an inappropriate area
Explanation:All answers A, B, C, and D are examples of exogenous infections. Endogenous infection is an infection by organisms that normally reside in the body but have previously been dormant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
- Medicine
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not innervated by the parasympathetic nerve supply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial muscle of iris
Explanation:The sphincter pupillae is supplied by the parasympathetic fibers from the Edinger Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor nerve. The dilator pupillae (radial muscle) is supplied by the postganglionic fibers of the superior cervical sympathetic ganglion. The parasympathetic nerve supply to the salivary glands originate in the parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerve (superior salivatory nucleus) and the glossopharyngeal nerve (inferior salivatory nucleus). The parasympathetic preganglionic fibers originate in the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve and descend into the thorax in the vagus nerve. The fibers terminate by synapsing with postganglionic neurons in the cardiac plexuses. Postganglionic fibers terminate on the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes and on the coronary arteries Parasympathetic supply to the stomach is via the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Which of the following forms the language areas of the cerebral cortex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Broca’s area, Wernicke’s area, the submarginal sulcus and the angular gyrus all form the language areas of the cerebral cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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The complex twisting and folding of peptide chains describes which order of protein structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secondary structure
Explanation:Secondary Structure refers to the coiling or folding of a polypeptide chain that gives the protein its 3-D shape. There are two types of secondary structures: the alpha (α) helix and the beta (β) pleated sheet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 72
Incorrect
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Regarding the innervation of the cerebral blood vessels, postganglionic sympathetic neurons have their cell bodies in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglia
Explanation:The superior cervical ganglion (SCG) is a part of autonomic system which plays a major role in maintaining homeostasis of the body. This ganglion innervates structures in the head and neck and is the largest and the most superiorly located ganglion. The SCG provides sympathetic innervation to structures within the head, including the pineal gland, the blood vessels in the cranial muscles and the brain, the choroid plexus, the eyes, the lacrimal glands, the carotid body, the salivary glands, and the thyroid gland. The postganglionic axons of the SCG innervate the internal carotid artery and form the internal carotid plexus. The internal carotid plexus carries the postganglionic axons of the SCG to the eye, lacrimal gland, mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, and pharynx, and numerous blood-vessels in the head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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Regarding Southern Blotting and DNA probes, which answer is FALSE
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting
Explanation:Restriction enzymes always cut at different positions. There are different restriction endonucleases for different nucleotide sequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male with type II diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic with a history suggestive of erectile dysfunction. You decide to start him on sildenafil citrate. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor
Explanation:Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications:- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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What is the role of cyclin and cyklin-dependent kinases in mitosis:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phosphorylation of proteins that make up pre-replication complexes
Explanation:There are certain regulators of the cell cycles that mediate progression through the cell cycle. These are cyclins and cyklin-dependent kinases (CDKs). They form a complex that phosphorylates protein involved in the cell cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 76
Incorrect
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The main breakdown of fatty acids (by B-oxidation) occurs in which part of the cell?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondria
Explanation:Once inside the mitochondria, the β-oxidation of fatty acids occurs via five recurring steps:Activation by ATPOxidation by FAD,Hydration,Oxidation by NAD+,Thiolysis,The final product is acetyl-CoA, the entry molecule for the citric acid cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Metabolism
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Question 77
Incorrect
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The only APCs that can activate naive T lymphocytes are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dendric cells
Explanation:Only professional antigen-presenting cells (macrophages, B lymphocytes, and dendritic cells) are able to activate a resting helper T-cell when the matching antigen is presented. However, macrophages and B cells can only activate memory T cells whereas dendritic cells can activate both memory and naive T cells, and are the most potent of all the antigen-presenting cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Medicine
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Question 78
Incorrect
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Question 79
Incorrect
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With regards to P53, which statement is NOT true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: P53 is a RNA binding protein
Explanation:P53 is a tumour suppressor gene. It is not an RNA binding protein. It has been implicated in almost all tumours. It regulates the progression from G1 to the S phase of the cell cycle and is activated in response to damaged DNA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 80
Incorrect
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From which of the following can niacin be synthesized in humans
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tryptophan
Explanation:Niacin, is also known as vitamin B3. The liver can synthesize niacin from the essential amino acid tryptophan, requiring 60 mg of tryptophan to make one mg of niacin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 81
Incorrect
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Cytochrome p450 enzymes expressed in hepatocytes serve to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facilitate oxidations or hydrolysis of drugs.
Explanation:Cytochrome p 450 are a family of proteins involved in drug metabolism which accounts for about 75% of the total metabolism. Most drugs are deactivated directly or by facilitated excretion from the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Medicine
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Question 82
Incorrect
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There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous blood flow. This is maintained by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options are correct
Explanation:There is an inverse relationship between the blood flow of the hepatic artery and portal vein. It is maintained by several factors such as chemicals like adenosine, neurohumoral substances, the morphology of the hepatic portal system (especially the ability of hepatic sinusoids to collapse) and myogenic control which causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
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Question 83
Incorrect
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Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GLUT 2
Explanation:Glucose transporter 2, also known as GLUT2 is a transmembrane carrier protein which is not insulin dependent. It is found in the liver and the pancreatic islet ß cells, where it functions as the primary glucose transporter that allows the transfer of glucose between these organs and blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monozygotic twin
Explanation:An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 85
Incorrect
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Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons. How many common amino acids are there and how many potential codon combinations make up the genetic code?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20 amino acids, 64 codon combinations
Explanation:There are around 20 amino acids and 61 out of the 64 combinations of codon code for these 20 common amino acids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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Question 88
Incorrect
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An obstruction in a pulmonary artery causes impaired perfusion to an area in the lung. The gas values in the unperfused alveoli at sea level will be:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PO2 = 149 C02 =0
Explanation:Partial pressure of oxygen at sea level is approximately 160 mmHg. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is around 150 mmHg and in an arteriole is around 80-100 mmHg. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide is around 35 mmHg in alveolar air and around 40 mmHg in the arteriole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
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Question 89
Incorrect
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Which of the following has the shortest duration:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial systole
Explanation:Atrial systole: 0.1s
Atrial diastole: around 0.4s
Ventricular diastole: 0.4-0.53s
Ventricular systole: 0.27s
PR interval: 0.12-0.2 s
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
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Question 90
Incorrect
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
Increase Gamma motor neuron activity produces what effect on the muscle spindle sensitivity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase
Explanation:The muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is via gamma motor neurons. These neurons also play a role in adjusting the sensitivity of muscle spindles. Increased neuron activity increases the muscle spindle sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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Choose the correct answer: The interposed nuclei…
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are the emboliform and globose nuclei in the paravermis
Explanation:The interposed nuclei are a part of deep cerebellar complex and are composed of the globose nucleus and the emboliform nucleus. It receives afferent fibers from the anterior lobe of the cerebellum and sends output via the superior cerebellar peduncle to the red nucleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
Wernicke’s area:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is concerned with comprehension of auditory and visual information
Explanation:Wernicke’s area is located in the categorical hemisphere or left hemisphere in about 95% of right handed individuals and 60% of left handed individuals. It is involved in the comprehension or understanding of written and spoken language. In contrast Broca’s area is involved in production of language.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-Sm
Explanation:Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
The extrinsic coagulation pathway is initiated by activation of which clotting factor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor VII
Explanation:The tissue factor pathway (extrinsic) begins following damage to the blood vessel. FVII leaves the circulation and comes into contact with tissue factor (TF) expressed on tissue-factor-bearing cells (stromal fibroblasts and leukocytes), forming an activated complex (TF-FVIIa).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
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Question 96
Incorrect
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The breakdown of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superoxide dismutase
Explanation:As superoxide is toxic, nearly all organisms living in the presence of oxygen contain isoforms of the superoxide-scavenging enzyme superoxide dismutase, or SOD. SOD is an extremely efficient enzyme; it catalyses the neutralization of superoxide nearly as quickly as the two can diffuse together spontaneously in solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Medicine
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Question 97
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions results from chromosomal ‘non-disjunction’?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options
Explanation:Non-disjunction can result in aneuploidy i.e. abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell. It results due to uneven division of chromosomes in the meiosis 1 or 2 phase. All the above mentioned examples are of non-disjunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What is the most abundant hormone release by the thyroid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T4
Explanation:T3 and T4 are the two tyrosine-based hormones produced and secreted by the thyroid gland. Although T3 is the active form of the hormone, and thus, it is much more potent; T4 is the most abundant hormone secreted by the thyroid (93% of the total thyroid secretion) and it also has a longer half life since it binds to proteins much more strongly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
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Question 100
Incorrect
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
