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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC.
Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?Your Answer: T10
Correct Answer: T8
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The average diastolic blood pressure of a control group was found out to be 80 with a standard deviation of 5 in a study aimed at exploring the efficiency of a novel anti-hypertensive drug. The trial was randomised.
Making an assumption that the data is normally distributed, find out the number of patients that had diastolic blood pressure over 90.Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 3%
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed, 95% of the values lie with in the interval 70 to 90. This can be calculated as follows:
Interval= Mean ± ( 2 times standard deviation)
= 80 ± 2(5)
= 80 ± 10
= 70 & 90The rest of the 5% are distributed symmetrically beyond 90 and below 70 which means 2.5% of the values lie above 90.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which artery is NOT a branch of the hepatic artery?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Correct Answer: Pancreatic artery
Explanation:The common hepatic artery arises from the celiac artery and has the following branches:
1. hepatic artery proper that branches into –
a. cystic artery to supply the gallbladder
b. left and right hepatic arteries to supply the liver
2. gastroduodenal artery that branches into
a. right gastroepiploic artery
b. superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
3. right gastric arteryThe pancreatic artery is a branch of the splenic artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur and requires emergency surgery.
On history and examination, she appears to also have a possible heart failure for which an echocardiogram is scheduled.
Her measurements are:
End-diastolic volume: 40mL (70-240)
End-systolic volume: 30mL (16-140)
Calculate her approximate ejection fraction.Your Answer: 35%
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:An echocardiogram provides real-time visualisation of cardiac structures. The ejection fraction (EF) is normally measured using this system.
The ejection fraction (EF) can be deduced mathematically if the patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV), end-systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV) are known, as:
SV = EDV – ESV, and
EF = SV/EDV x 100
The normal range for EF is >55-70%.
For this patient,
SV= 40 – 30 = 10 mL, therefore
EF = 10/40 x 100 = 25%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?
Your Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis
Explanation:The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:
Your Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants
Explanation:Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.
Three groups of CCBs include
1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.
Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine
Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?
Your Answer: A thermistor is located at the tip of the pulmonary artery catheter
Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause
Explanation:Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.
During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.
The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.
Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 9
Correct
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Campylobacter is which type of bacteria?
Your Answer: sdgsdf
Explanation:Campylobacter is the commonest bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The majority of cases are caused by the Gram-negative bacillus Campylobacter jejuni which is spread by the faecal-oral route. The incubation period is 1-6 days.
Features include a prodrome phase with headaches and malaise, then diarrhoea occurs which is often bloody.
There is often abdominal pain which may mimic appendicitis.It is usually self-limiting but treatment is warranted if the infection is severe or the infection occurs in an immunocompromised patient.
Severe infection comprises of high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day or symptoms last for more than one week.
This management would include antibiotics and the first-line antibiotic is clarithromycin.
Ciprofloxacin is an alternative but there are strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin which can be frequently isolated.Complications include:
1.Guillain-Barre syndrome may follow Campylobacter
2. Jejuniinfections
3. Reactive arthritis
4. Septicaemia, endocarditis, arthritis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 10
Correct
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Weight of all of your patients in the ICU is analysed, and shows that your date set is skewed.
Which of the following will correctly show the average weight of your patients?Your Answer: Median
Explanation:The question mentions a quantitative, ratio scale data set. The use of mean would be ideal under normal circumstances, however, in this situation median is preferred as it is less sensitive to the skewness of data. The median is usually preferred to other measures of central tendency when your data set is skewed (i.e., forms a skewed distribution)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 11
Correct
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Which peripheral nerve of the foot is often utilized to evaluate for neuromuscular blockade?
Your Answer: Posterior tibial nerve
Explanation:The posterior tibial nerve lies on the posterior surface of the tibialis posterior and, lower down the leg, on the posterior surface of the tibia. The nerve accompanies the posterior tibial artery and lies at first on its medial side, then crosses posterior to it, and finally lies on its lateral side. The nerve, with the artery, passes behind the medial malleolus, between the tendons of the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus.
It gives off muscular branches to the soleus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior. A medial calcaneal branches off to supply the skin over the medial surface of the heel, and an articular nerve to supply the ankle joint. Finally, it terminates to become the medial and lateral plantar nerves.
The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve that gives off branches that supply the skin on the posteromedial surface of the leg.
The sural nerve is a branch of the tibial nerve that supplies the skin on the lower part of the posterolateral surface of the leg.
The superficial peroneal nerve is one of the terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. It arises in the substance of the peroneus longus muscle on the lateral side of the neck of the fibular. It ascends between the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, and in the lower part of the leg it becomes cutaneous. Muscular branches of the superficial peroneal nerve supply the peroneus longus and brevis muscles, while medial and lateral cutaneous branches are distributed to the skin on the lower part of the leg and dorsum of the foot. In addition, the cutaneous branches supply the dorsal surfaces of the skin of all the toes, except the adjacent sides of the first and second toes and the lateral side of the little toe.
The superficial peroneal, sural and saphenous nerves cannot be used to assess neuromuscular blocks since they are sensory nerves.
The deep peroneal nerve enters the dorsum of the foot by passing deep to the extensor retinacula on the lateral side of the dorsalis pedis artery. It divides into terminal, medial, and lateral branches. The medial branch supplies the skin of the adjacent sides of the big and second toes. The lateral branch supplies the extensor digitorum brevis muscle. Both terminal branches give articular branches to the joints of the foot. This nerve is too deep to use for neuromuscular blockade assessment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Correct
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A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following:
Serum Na: 138 mmol/l
Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l
If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?
Your Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose
Explanation:Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.
The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.
Body weight Fluid volume
first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
>20 kg 1 ml/kg/hrIn the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.
A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.
A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.
If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.
If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 13
Correct
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What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on examination?
Your Answer: Smooth muscle
Explanation:The blood vessel well is divided into 3 parts, namely:
The tunica intima, which is the deepest layer. It contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions
The tunica media, primarily consisting of the involuntary smooth muscle fibres, laid out in spiral layers with elastic fibres and connective tissue.
The tunica adventitia, which is the most superficial layer. It consists of the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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Ondansetron is serotonin antagonist indicated for post-operative nausea and vomiting.
In which of the following anatomic structures does ondansetron produce its effects?Your Answer: Nucleus tractus solitarius
Explanation:Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist at the 5HT3 receptor. 5HT3 receptors in the gastrointestinal tract and in the vomiting centre of the medulla participate in the vomiting reflex. They are particularly important in vomiting caused by chemical triggers such as cancer chemotherapy drugs.
The nucleus solitarius is the recipient of all visceral afferents, and an essential part of the regulatory centres of the internal homeostasis, through its multiple projections with cardiorespiratory and gastrointestinal regulatory centres. It participates in the reflexes of the nerves innervating the nucleus, so it mediates cough reflex, carotid sinus reflex, gag reflex, and vomiting reflex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood was studied. The mean height was found to be 169cm with the data having a standard deviation of 16cm. What will be the standard error associated with the mean?
Your Answer: 0.16
Correct Answer: 1.6
Explanation:Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
= (16) / √(100)
= 16 / 10
= 1.6 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 16
Incorrect
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With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform nerve blocking?
Your Answer: They deliver a stimulus lasting 1-2 seconds
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The nerve stimulators deliver a stimulus lasting for 1-2 milliseconds (not second) to perform nerve blockage.
There are just 2 leads (not 3); one for the skin and other for the needle.
Prior to the administration of the local anaesthesia, a current of 0.25 – 0.5 mA (not 1-2mA) at the frequency of 1-2 Hz is preferred.
If the needle tip is close to the nerve, muscular contraction could be possible at the lowest possible current.
Insulated needles have improved the block success rate, as the current is only conducting through needle tip.
Stimulus to the femoral nerve which is placed in the mid lingual line causes withdrawer of the quadriceps and knee extension, that’s the dancing patella ( not plantar flexion).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 17
Correct
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A 50-year-old man has complained of persistent hoarseness and dry cough. He has a history of smoking 20 cigarettes per day. The examination reveals no significant clinical signs of cranial nerve damage.
Referred to an ENT specialist, the patient is explained how coughing is usually a defence mechanism of the body which is activated more than usual by the chemical irritants in cigarette smoke. However, the ENT doctor suspects a nerve involvement in the cough reflex as the patient also presents with hoarseness with the dry cough.
Which nerves is the ENT doctor suspecting to have been affected in this patient?Your Answer: CN IX and X
Explanation:Cough is an important defensive reflex that helps clear secretions and particulates from the airways. A complex reflex arc generates each cough.
The cough reflex begins with irritation of the cough receptors present in the epithelium of the trachea, main carina, branching points of large airways, and more distal smaller airways. These receptors are responsive to both mechanical and chemical stimuli.
Afferent pathway:
Impulses from stimulated receptors are transmitted via sensory nerve fibres of the vagus nerve (mainly) and glossopharyngeal nerve and travel to the medulla diffusely. CN 5 is also thought to contribute to the afferent limb. However, the vagus is the main nerve.Central pathway:
The cough centre is located in the upper brain stem and ponsEfferent pathway:
Impulses from the centre travel via the vagus, phrenic nerve, and spinal motor nerves to the diaphragm, abdominal wall, and muscles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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At sea level, Sevoflurane is administered via a plenum vaporiser. 100 mL of the fresh gas flow is bypassed into the vaporising chamber. Temperature within the vaporising chamber is maintained at 20°C.
The following fresh gas flows approximates best for the delivery of 1% sevoflurane.Your Answer: 2.7 L/minute
Explanation:The equation for calculating vaporiser output is:
Vaporiser output (VO) mL = Carrier gas flow (mL/minute) × SVP of agent (kPa)
Ambient pressure (kPa) − SVP of agent (kPa)The saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane at 1 atm (100 kPa) and 20°C is 21 kPa.
VO = (100 mL × 21 kPa)/(100 kPa − 21kPa) for sevoflurane,
VO = 26.6 mL26.6 mL of 100% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is being added to the fresh gas flow per minute.
2660 mL of 1% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is approximately 2.7 L/minute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.
The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?Your Answer: CYP2D6
Explanation:Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.
As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).
The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.
Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.
All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman admitted following a tonsillectomy has developed stridor with a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and obstructive movements of the chest and abdomen that is in a see-saw pattern .
Her SpO2 is 92% on 60% oxygen with pulse rate 120 beats per minute while her blood pressure is 180/90mmHg. She is repeatedly trying to remove the oxygen mask and appears anxious.
Her pharynx is suctioned and CPAP applied with 100% oxygen via a Mapleson C circuit.
Which of these is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Administer intravenous propofol 0.5 mg/kg
Explanation:Continuous closure of the vocal cords resulting in partial or complete airway obstruction is called Laryngospasm. It is a reflex that helps protect against pulmonary aspiration.
Predisposing factors include: Hyperactive airway disease, Insufficient depth of anaesthesia, Inexperience of the anaesthetist, Airway irritation, Smoking, Shared airway surgery and Paediatric patients
Its primary treatment includes checking for blood or stomach aspirate in the pharynx, removing any triggering stimulation, relieving any possible supra-glottic component to airway obstruction and application of CPAP with 100% oxygen.
In this patient, all the above has been done and the next treatment of choice is the administration of a rapidly acting intravenous anaesthetic agent such as propofol (0.5 mg/kg) in increments as it has been reported to relieve laryngospasm in approximately 75% of cases. Administering suxamethonium to an awake patient would be inappropriate at this stage.
Magnesium and lidocaine are used for prevention rather than acute treatment of laryngospasm. Superior laryngeal nerve blocks have been reported to successfully treat recurrent laryngospasm but it is not the next logical step in index patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway?
Your Answer: The larynx is more anterior than in an adult
Explanation:In the neonatal stage, the tongue is usually large and comes to the normal size at the age of 1 year. The vocal cords lie inverse C4 and as it reaches the grown-up position inverse C5/6 by the age of 4 (not 1 year).
Due to the immature cricoid cartilage, the larynx lies more anterior in newborn children. That’s why the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the paediatric respiratory tract, while in the adults the tightest portion of the respiratory route is vocal cords. The epiglottis is generally expansive and slants at a point of 45 degrees to the laryngeal opening.
The carina is the ridge of the cartilage in the trachea at the level of T2 in newborn (T4 in adults), that separates the openings of right and left main bronchi.
Neonates have a comparatively low number of alveoli and then this number gradually increases to a most extreme by the age of 8 (not 3 years).
Neonates are obligatory nose breathers and any hindrance can cause respiratory issues (e.g., choanal atresia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry?
Your Answer: Vital capacity
Explanation:Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).
It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.
During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
FEV1/FVC ratio
Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.
Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution
The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 23
Correct
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Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?
Your Answer: Heliox
Explanation:Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:
1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpO₂ level of 94 98%.
2. Use high-dose inhaled ?₂ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
intravenous ?₂ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4–6 hourly) to ?₂ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to ?₂ agonist therapy.
5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.
Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine?
Your Answer: Can be used in the management of refractory status epilepticus
Explanation:Ketamine is a phencyclidine (hallucinogenic) derivative that is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg and acts by blocking NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors of glutamate.
It is a powerful bronchodilator agent and is, therefore, an intravenous anaesthetic of choice in bronchial asthma (halothane is an inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice for bronchial asthma). It is also used in the management of refractory status epilepticus.
It is an acid solution with an elimination half-life of three hours.
It has S (+) enantiomer and R (-) enantiomer. the S(+) enantiomer is two to four times more potent than the R(-) and is less likely to produce hallucinations.
Its use is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease because it increased sympathetic outflow leading to tachycardia and increased cardiac output which in turn increases the myocardial oxygen demand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is safe to be used in porphyria?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Porphyria is a group of disorders in which there is excess production and excess excretion of porphyrins and their precursors. They are usually genetic and are caused due to defects in the haem metabolic pathway. However, other factors like infection, pregnancy, mensuration, starvation may precipitate the attack.
Sulphonamides, barbiturates (methohexitone and thiopental), and phenytoin are considered to be precipitants so are not safe to use
Chloral hydrate is thought to be safe to use.
Etomidate lacks proper studies and may be used with caution but it is generally advised not to use this drug especially if other alternatives are available. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein?
Your Answer: Scalenus medius
Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior
Explanation:The subclavian artery and vein have a similar path throughout their course, with the subclavian vein running anterior to the subclavian artery. The artery and vein are separated by the insertion of the scalenus anterior muscle.
There are three scalene muscles, found on each side of the neck:
1. Anterior scalene
2. Middle scalene
3. Posterior scaleneThe scalenus anterior muscle is the anterior most of the three scalene muscles. It originates from the transverse processes of vertebrae C3-C6 and is inserted in the first rib.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of these statements is true about spirometry?
Your Answer: A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes
Explanation:Functional residual capacity (FRC) is 1.7 to 3.5L/kg
A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes. The total lung capacity (TLC) is total sum of the volume of gas present in all lung compartments upon maximum inspiration. It is represented mathematically as:
Total lung capacity (TLC) = Vital capacity (VC) + Residual volume (RV)
The residual volume (RV) is the volume of gas still present within the lung post maximum exhalation. It cannot be measured by spirometry, but can be using a body plethysmograph and also with the helium dilution technique.
Closing capacity (CC) is the volume of gas within the lungs at which small airways close upon expiration. It increases with age and is especially important when it surpasses the FRC as it causes changes in ventilation/perfusion mismatch and hypoxia.
In the supine position, a patient with a normal body mass index and no history of lung pathology, the CC equals the FRC at approximately 44, and at approximately 66 at standing position. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?
Your Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)
Explanation:Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.
Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.
Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 0 C. At temperatures below this the nitrous oxide component may separate.
Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Correct
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A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.
Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?
Your Answer: Dynamic second-order response
Explanation:The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:Zero-order:
Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.First-order:
Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.Second-order
Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 30
Correct
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Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer: Hypoxaemia
Explanation:The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.
Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:
Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.
MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.
MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension (<40 mmHg), depressant drugs e.g. opioids and low level of catecholamines; alpha methyl dopa. Carbon dioxide O2 at the pressure > 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 31
Correct
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Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root value?
Your Answer: Knee reflex: L3/L4
Explanation:Reflexes are a routine part of clinical examination. Hyperreflexia (abnormally brisk reflexes) is the sign of upper motor neuron damage whereas diminished or absent jerks are most commonly due to lower motor neuron lesions. Reflexes may be Monosynaptic (deep tendon reflexes) or polysynaptic (superficial reflexes)
Here are deep tendon reflexes with their nerve root
Biceps = C5, C6
Supinator (Brachioradialis) = C5, C6
Triceps = C6, C7
Knee reflex = L3,L4
Ankle reflex = S1Polysynaptic superficial reflexes with their nerve root are listed below
Planter response = S1-2
Abdominal reflexes = T8-12
Cremasteric reflex = L1-2 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 32
Correct
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Iron is one of the most important micronutrients in the body.
Out of the following, which one has the most abundant storage of iron in the body?Your Answer: Haemoglobin
Explanation:Iron is a necessary micronutrient for proper erythropoietic function, oxidative metabolism, and cellular immune responses. Although dietary iron absorption (1-2 mg/d) is tightly controlled, it is only just balanced by losses.
The adult body contains 35-45 mg/kg iron (about 4-5 g)
Iron can be found in a variety of forms, including haemoglobin, ferritin, haemosiderin, myoglobin, haem enzymes, and transferrin bound proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 33
Correct
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A subject in a study is to take 100 mg of tramadol tablets for the next eight hours. Urine samples will be taken during the 8-hour course, which will undergo analysis via liquid chromatography.
Given the following metabolites, which one would have the highest analgesic property?Your Answer: Mono-O-desmethyl-tramadol
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 34
Correct
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After establishing a cardiopulmonary bypass, the right atrium is opened to repair the tricuspid valve.
Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the right atrium?Your Answer: Trabeculae carnae
Explanation:The right atrium receives blood supply from the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus. It forms the right border of the heart.
The interior of the right atrium has 5 distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – an anterior rough, wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetusThe trabeculae carneae are irregular muscular elevations that form the interior of the right ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 35
Correct
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A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the emergency department. On examination, he complains of nausea and is notably sweating. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads, as well as sinus bradycardia. A myocardial infarction can cause a sinus bradycardia.
The sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node receive arterial supply from which vessel?Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The left marginal artery comes off the left circumflex artery, and runs alongside the heart.
The left circumflex artery is one of the bifurcations of the left coronary artery, and eventually forms the left marginal artery.
An occlusion in the left circumflex artery often results in a lateral MI.
The right marginal artery originates from the right coronary artery.
The left anterior descending artery (LAD) is another bifurcation of the left coronary artery. An occlusion in the LAD would often result in an anteroseptal MI as is diagnosed on ECG by noting changes in leads V1-V4.
The right coronary artery originates from the right aortic sinus of the ascending aorta, and bifurcates to give rise to many branches, including the sinoatrial artery which supplies the sinoatrial (SA) node in 50-70% of cases, the artery of the atrioventricular (AV) node in 50-60% of cases, the right acute marginal artery which supplies the right ventricle. It also supplies the right atrium, interatrial septum and the posterior inferior third of the interventricular septum.
Arrhythmias and inferior MI often occurs as a result of an occlusion in the right coronary artery, and can be diagnosed by ECG changes in leads II, III and aVF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 36
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?
Your Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl
Explanation:Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.
Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.
Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)
It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain.
Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the tonsillar fossa?Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:A tonsillar sinus or fossa is a space that is bordered by the triangular fold of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches in the lateral wall of the oral cavity. The palatine tonsils are in these sinuses.
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the main sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The tonsillar branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve supply the palatine tonsils forming a plexus around it. Filaments from this plexus are distributed to the soft palate and fauces where they communicate with the palatine nerves. A lesser contribution is made by the lesser palatine nerve. Because of this otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Levels of serum potassium in around 1000 patients that were on ACE inhibitor were measured. The mean value was calculated to be 4.6mmol/L and a standard deviation of 0.3mmol/L was recorded.
Which among the given options is correct?Your Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.5 and 4.75 mmol/l
Correct Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l
Explanation:Its known that 68.3% of the total values of a normally distributed variable are found within a range of 1 standard deviation from the mean which makes the range to be 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease.
Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?Your Answer: 98.30%
Correct Answer: 95.40%
Explanation:Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.
Properties of the Normal distribution
symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median
68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean
95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean
99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean
The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.SD = square root (variance)
The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer: Predicts the incidence of post-anaesthetic recall
Correct Answer: Sevoflurane lowers BIS more than ketamine
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) monitors works to determine the level of consciousness of a patient by processing electroencephalographic (EEG) signals to obtain a value between 0 and 100, where 0 reflects no brain activity, and 100 reflects a patient is completely awake.
The general meaning of BIS values are:
>95: Patient is in an awake state.
65-85: Patient is in a sedated state.
40-65: Patient is in a state that is optimal for general surgery.
<40: Patient is in a deep hypnotic state It is important in measuring the depths of anaesthesia to prevent haemodynamic changes or patient awareness during surgery. The nature of anaesthetic agent used is a determinant factor in resultant BIS values. Intravenous agents, such as propofol, thiopental and midazolam, result in a deeper hypnotic state, whilst inhalation agents have a lesser hypnotic effect at the same BIS values. Certain agents result in inaccurate BIS values such as ketamine and nitrous oxide (NO). These two agents appear to increase the BIS value, whilst putting the patient in a deeper hypnotic state, and should therefore not be used with BIS monitoring. Hypothermia also affects the BIS value as it causes a 1.12 per °C decrease in body temperature. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 41
Correct
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A 25-year old man needs an emergency appendicectomy and has gone to the operating room. During general anaesthesia, ventilation is achieved using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1L/min, with and air/oxygen and sevoflurane combination. The capnograph trace is normal.
Changes to the end tidal and baseline CO2 measurements at 10 and 20 mins respectively are seen on the capnograph below:
10 minutes 20 minutes
End-tidal CO2 4.9 kPa 8.4 kPa
Baseline end-tidal CO2 0.2 kPa 2.4 kPa
The other vitals were as follows:
Pulse 100-105 beats per minute
Systolic blood pressure 120-133 mmHg
O2 saturation 99%.
The next most important immediate step is which of the following?Your Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:This scenario describes rebreathing management.
Changes is exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit deadspace is the most likely explanation for the capnograph.
It is important that the soda lime canister is inspected for a change in colour of the granules. Initially fresh gas flow should be increased and then if necessary, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies include changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister after the fresh gas flow is increased.
Any other causes of increased equipment deadspace should be excluded.
Intraoperative hypercarbia can be caused by:
1. Hypoventilation – Breathing spontaneously; drugs which include anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual neuromuscular blockade, pre-existing respiratory or neuromuscular disease and cerebrovascular accident.
2. Controlled ventilation- circuit leaks, disconnection, miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
3. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits, increased breathing system deadspace.
4. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
5. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 absorption from the pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 42
Correct
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The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true?
Your Answer: High protein diets may improve survival
Explanation:Patients who have sustained thermal injuries are at high risk of becoming hypercatabolic with larger cardiac outputs and oxygen consumptions.
The hypermetabolic states increase with an increase in the burn severity and surface area of the skin affected. A patient with thermal injuries affecting 60% of the total surface area of the body will have twice the normal metabolic rate.
The optimal temperature for nursing patients with burn injuries is 30°C to conserve the energy usage. The areas affected by the burn injuries should be covered to reduce loss of fluid via evaporation. Resetting hypothalamic thermoregulation will cause a 1-2°C increase in core temperature.
Burn injuries will have an immediate effect on the intestine, destroying the barrier function and allowing for the movement of bacteria and endotoxins within hours.
Enteral nutrition allows for the delivery of nutrients directly to the stomach or intestine. It has correlation with a dampened hypermetabolic response to a thermal and injury, especially when initiated early as it helps to protect the integrity of the mucosal lining and prevents the movement of bacteria into circulation.
Diet changes have been linked to reduced mortality due to burn injuries. Diets high in protein especially (calorie: nitrogen ratio of 100: 1), have the highest correlation with improved survival rates.
Parenteral feeds may be required alongside enteral nutrition, even with the increased risks of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A study aimed at assessing a novel proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in aged patients taking aspirin. The new PPI is prescribed to 120 patients and the already prevalent PPI is given to the 240 members of the control group. In the next 5 years, the instances of upper GI bleed reported in the experimental and control group were 24 and 60 respectively.
What is the value of absolute risk reduction?Your Answer: 20
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (24/120)-(60/240)
ARR= 0.2-0.25
ARR= 0.05 (Numerical Value)
ARR= 5%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 44
Correct
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Regarding oxygen consumption, which of these organs has the highest consumption at rest?
Your Answer: Kidney
Explanation:Oxygen delivery is related to blood flow as most of the oxygen binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells, although a small amount is dissolved in the plasma. Blood flow per 100 g of tissue is greatest in the kidneys.
The following is the oxygen consumption rate of different organs in ml/minute/100g
Hepatoportal = 2.2
Kidney = 6.8
Brain = 3.7
Skin = 0.38
Skeletal muscle = 0.18
Heart = 11 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 45
Correct
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Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female is undergoing a lymph node biopsy from the posterior triangle of his neck.
What structure forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid muscle
Correct Answer: Trapezius muscle
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 47
Correct
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A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated with mitral valve repair.
What is true regarding the mitral valve?Your Answer: Its closure is marked by the first heart sound
Explanation:The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.
The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.
The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricleThe anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 48
Incorrect
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An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister for his comments on incidence and prevalence. The minister had said that they both are two separate entities. It can be therefore inferred that the patient thinks that prevalence and incidence are the same thing.
Is he right?Your Answer: Yes. Only in acute disease is prevalence greater than incidence.
Correct Answer: No. In chronic disease prevalence is greater than incidence.
Explanation:Only on rare occasions has it been found that the prevalence and incidence were same. Incidence can be greater than prevalence in acute cases only. In case of chronic diseases prevalence is far greater than incidence. One needs to have a deeper understanding of both the concepts to understand the health literature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 49
Incorrect
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The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:
Your Answer: intracellular>interstitial
Correct Answer: intracellular>extracellular
Explanation:Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14LECF comprises:
Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
Extravascular fluid = 11LExtravascular fluids comprises:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
Transcellular fluid = 0.5L -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 50
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman's blood pressure readings in the clinic are 170/109 mmHg, 162/100 mmHg and 175/107 mmHg and her routine haematology, biochemistry, and 12-lead ECG are normal.
She is assessed on the day of surgery prior to laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair and is found to be normally fit and well. Documentation of previous blood pressure measurements from her general practitioner in the primary healthcare setting are not available.
What is your next course of action?Your Answer: Proceed with scheduled surgery without treatment
Explanation:The AAGBI and the British Hypertension Society has published guidelines for the measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery.
The objective is to ensure that patients admitted for elective surgery have a known systolic blood pressure below 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressures below 100 mmHg. The primary health care teams, if possible, should ensure that this is the case and provide evidence to the pre-assessment clinic staff or on admission.
Avoiding cancellation on the day of surgery because of white coat hypertension is a secondary objective.
Patients with blood pressures below 180 mmHg systolic and 110 mmHg diastolic (measured in the preop assessment clinic), who present to pre-operative assessment clinics without documented evidence of primary care blood pressures should proceed to elective surgery.
In this question, the history/assessment does not appear to point to obvious end-organ damage so there is no indication for further investigation for secondary causes of hypertension or an echocardiogram at this point. Further review and treatment at this point is not required.
However, you should write to the patient’s GP and encourage serial blood pressure measurements in the primary health care setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 51
Correct
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Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.
Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?Your Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2
Explanation:Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.
Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.
Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.
Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 52
Correct
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The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have electrical safety requirements for the protection of hospital staff and patients.
Of the different classes of electrical equipment listed, which is least likely to cause a patient to suffer a microshock?Your Answer: II (CF)
Explanation:Microshock refers to ventricular fibrillation caused by miniscule amounts of currents or voltages (100-150 microamperes) passing through the myocardial tissue from external cables arising from electrical components within the cardiac muscle, for example, pacemaker electrodes or saline filled venous catheters.
The risk of shock changes with the construction of electrical equipment in question. The main classes of electrical equipment include: I: Appliances have a protective earth connected to an outer casing which prevents live elements from coming in contact with conductive elements. A fault in this equipment class will result in live elements coming in contact with the outer casing and allowing electrical flow into the protective earth. This triggers the protective fuse to disconnect the electric supply to the appliance.
II: These appliances have reinforced insulation. In the event of a fault which causes the first layer of insulation to fail, the second layer is able to prevent contact of live elements with outer casing.
III: These appliances have no insulation to provide safety, and rely solely on the use of separated extra low voltage source (SELV) which limits voltage to 25V AC or 60V DC allowing for a person to come in contact with it without risk of a shock under normal dry conditions. Under wet conditions, voltage supply should be lowered to reduce risk of shock. These devices have no risk of macroshocks, but some risk of microshocks.
Class I and II electrical appliances are further divided into subtypes developed to limit current leakage in the event of a singular fault:
B (body): Upper limit of current leakage is 500 µA. This current can cause skin tingling and microshocks, but is not sufficient to cause injury.
BF (body floating): These appliances have an isolating capacitor or transformer which separate the secondary circuit from the protective earth. The upper limit of current leakage is the same as type B.
CF (cardiac floating): Upper limit of leakage current during a singular fault is 50 microamps. It is least likely to result in a microshock -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 53
Correct
-
These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:
Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and
Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000.
What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?Your Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B
Explanation:The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:
1. To Increase the duration of block
2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).
The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 54
Correct
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The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism.
Which of the following liver cells is most important in phase I of drug metabolism?Your Answer: Centrilobular cells
Explanation:The metabolism of drugs in the liver occurs in 3 phases
Phase I: This involves functionalization reactions, which are of 3 types, namely hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction reactions catalysed by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes.
Phase II: This involves conjugation or acetylation reactions. The goal is to create water soluble metabolites that can be excreted from the body.
The liver is the second largest organ. It’s smallest functional unit is the acinus which is divided into 3 zones:
Zone I (periportal): This zone receives the largest amount of oxygen supply as it is the closest to the blood vessels. It is the site of plasma protein synthesis.
Zone II (mediolobular): This is located between the portal triad and central vein.
Zone III (centrilobular): This is closest to the central vein and receives the least amount of oxygen supply.
Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the periportal zone of the liver, and function to remove foreign particles and breakdown red blood cells via phagocytosis.
Ito cells are fat-storing liver cells found in the space of Disse. Their function is to take-uo, store and secrete retinoids, as well as manufacture and release proteins that make up the extracellular matrix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 55
Correct
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A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.
If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?Your Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease
Explanation:A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.
FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.
Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 56
Correct
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You have always been curious about the effects of statins. While going through a study, something ticks you off and makes you think that they are way more common then the data suggests and are mostly under reported. In search of some concrete evidence, you decide to conduct a study of your own. While doing research, you come across a recent study that highlights the long term effects of statins.
Which of the following types of study could that have been?Your Answer: Clinical trial, Phase 4
Explanation:In general practice, majority of phase 3 trials and some of the trials conducted in phase 2 are randomized. Because phase 4 trials require a huge sample size, they are not randomized as much. The primal reason behind conducting phase 3 trials is to test the efficiency and safety in a significant sample population. At this point it is assumed that the drug is effective up to a certain extent.
During a case-control study, subjects that exhibit outcomes of interest are compared with those who don’t show the expected outcome. The extent of exposure to a particular risk factor is then matched between cases and controls. If the exposure among cases surpasses controls, it becomes a risk factor for the outcome that is being studied.
Pilot studies are conducted on a lower and much smaller level, to assess if a randomized controlled trial of the crucial components of a study will be plausible.
Phase 4 trials are the ones that are conducted after its established that the drug is effective and is approved by the regulating authority for use. These trials are concerned with the side effects and potential risks associated with the long term usage of the drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 57
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is admitted to the emergency department with atrial fibrillation. The patient develops ventricular fibrillation shortly after receiving pharmacotherapy to treat his arrhythmia, from which he is successfully resuscitated.
He has a PR interval of 40 Ms, a prominent delta wave in lead I, and a QRS duration of 120 Ms, according to an ECG from a previous admission.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be involved in this patient's development of ventricular fibrillation?Your Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is linked to an additional electrical conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles. This accessory pathway (bundle of Kent), unlike the atrioventricular (AV) node, is incapable of slowing down a rapid rate of atrial depolarization. In other words, a short circuit bypasses the AV node. Patients with a rapid ventricular response or narrow complex AV re-entry tachycardia are more likely to develop atrial fibrillation or flutter.
Digoxin can promote impulse transmission through this accessory pathway if a patient with WPWS develops atrial fibrillation because it works by blocking the AV node. This can cause ventricular fibrillation and an extremely rapid ventricular rate. As a result, it’s not advised.
Adenosine, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, among other drugs that interfere with AV nodal conduction, are also generally contraindicated.
The class III antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone and ibutilide (K+ channel block) and procainamide (Na+ channel block) are the drugs of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.
Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.
The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.
The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 59
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?
Your Answer: Stimulates ACTH secretion
Explanation:Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A double-blinded randomised controlled trial is proposed to assess the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication.
Which type of bias can be avoided by ensuring the patient and doctor are blinded?Your Answer: Recall bias
Correct Answer: Expectation bias
Explanation:Observers may subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favours the expected study outcome. Therefore, by blinding the study we can eliminate expectation bias.
Recall bias is a systematic error that occurs when the study participants omit details or do not remember previous events or experiences accurately.
Verification can occur during investigations when there is a difference in testing strategy between groups of individuals, which might lead to biasness due to differing ways of verifying the disease of interest.
Nonresponse bias is the bias that occurs when the people who respond to a survey differ significantly from the people who do not respond to the survey.
A distortion that modifies an association between an exposure and an outcome because a factor is independently associated with the exposure and the outcome. Randomization is the best way to reduce the risk of confounding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 61
Incorrect
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Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of causality?
Your Answer: Coherence
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Explanation:For establishing a cause effect relationship, following criteria must be met:
1. Coherence & Consistency
2. Temporal Precedence
3. Specificity
As can be seen, sensitivity (The probability of a positive test) is not among these deciding factors..
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 62
Correct
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One of the following sets of arterial blood gases best demonstrates compensated respiratory acidosis?
Your Answer: pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L
Explanation:pH=7.36, PaCO2=8.5kPa, PaO2=7.5kPa, HCO3- = 43mmol/L is the correct answer.
Since the pH is the lower limit of normal, it is compensated despite a raised PaCO2. Retention of bicarbonate ions by the renal system suggests this process is chronic.
pH=7.24, PaCO2=3.5kPa, PaO2=8.5kPa, HCO3- =18mmol/L represents an acute uncompensated metabolic acidosis
The remaining stems are degrees of uncompensated respiratory acidosis and therefore incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 63
Correct
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Compared to the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) has:
Your Answer: Nicotinic receptors in pre and post ganglionic synapses
Explanation:With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
1. It is not under voluntary control
2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.
The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.
There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.
There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.
Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.
The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.
The cranial outflow consists of
1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreasThe sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.
The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
There are:
M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
M5 = brainThe lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 64
Correct
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Which statement is correct concerning breathing systems?
Your Answer: The reservoir bag can limit the pressure in the breathing system to about 40 cm of water
Explanation:Mapleson classified breathing systems into A, B, C, D and E. Jackson-Rees subsequently modified the Mapleson E by adding a double-ended bag to the end of the reservoir tubing, creating the Mapleson F. A Mapleson E or T-piece does not have a reservoir bag.
A Mapleson A system is a very efficient system for use during spontaneous ventilation. However, it is not suitable for use with patients less than 25 kg, due to the increased dead space at the distal / patient end. This system can be modified into a Lack system or coaxial Mapleson A, where the fresh gas flows through an outer tube (30 mm) and exhaled gases flow through the inner tube (14 mm).
The adjustable pressure limiting valve (APL) or expiratory valve allows exhaled gas and excess fresh gas to leave the breathing system. It is a one-way, adjustable spring-loaded valve, and gases escape when the pressure in the system exceeds the valve opening pressure. During spontaneous ventilation a pressure of less than 1 cm of water (0.1 kPa) is needed when the valve is in the open position (not 2 cm of H2O).
The reservoir bag is highly compliant and when over inflated, the rubber bag can limit the pressure in the system to about 40 cm of H2O.
This is due to the law of Laplace, which states that the pressure will fall as the radius of the bag increases:
Pressure = 2 x tension/radius.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic artery using the angiography catheter. As she continues to advance the catheter, what vessels will the catheter enter?
Your Answer: Left axillary artery
Correct Answer: Right subclavian artery
Explanation:As there is no brachiocephalic artery on the left side, the artery is entered by the catheter on the right side.
The brachiocephalic artery branches into the common carotid and the right subclavian artery, so the catheter is most likely to enter the right subclavian artery, or also possibly the right carotid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 66
Correct
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All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except:
Your Answer: Can be detected in the lymph
Explanation:Insulin is secreted from the ? cells of the pancreas. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two chains. It interacts with cell surface receptors (not the nuclear receptors and thus mechanism of action is not similar to steroids).
Since insulin can pass from plasma to interstitium and lymphatics, it can be measured in lymph but the concentrations here can be up to 30% less than that of plasma.It decreases blood glucose by stimulating the entry of glucose in muscle and fat (by increasing the synthesis of Glucose transporters)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 67
Correct
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A 32-year-old man has multiple stab wounds to his abdomen and is rushed into the emergency. Resuscitative measures are performed, but the patient remains hypotensive.
Emergency laparotomy is performed, and it reveals a vessel is bleeding profusely at a certain level of lumbar vertebrae. The vessel is the testicular artery and is ligated.
At which lumbar vertebrae is the testicular artery identified?Your Answer: L2
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 68
Correct
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With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of the following is responsible?
Your Answer: Efflux of potassium
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 69
Correct
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A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?
Your Answer: Poor prognostic EEG
Explanation:CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).
Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?
Your Answer: Bicipital aponeurosis
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.
It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 71
Correct
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Monitoring of which of the following is indicated in the prevention of propofol infusion syndrome?
Your Answer: Lactate
Explanation:Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is characterized by lactic acidosis, bradyarrhythmia, rhabdomyolysis, cardiac and renal failure, and often leads to death. So, lactate monitoring is advised in patients with propofol infusion syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 72
Correct
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What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?
Your Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram
Explanation:An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.
A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.
Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.
A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.
A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 73
Correct
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Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?Your Answer: 1120 mg
Explanation:Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
16×70 = 1120 mg.Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 74
Correct
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A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.
Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
1st Month 0
2nd Month 3
3rd Month 1
4th Month 45
5th Month 2
6th Month 0
7th Month 1
8th Month 4
9th Month 4
10th Month 2
Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?Your Answer: Median
Explanation:Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.
Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.
The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.
Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.
In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 75
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken from both the small and large intestinal linings.
Which of the following is found in the small intestine lining but not in that of the large intestine in a normal biopsy?Your Answer: Villi
Explanation:The small and large intestinal walls are composed of the following common layers:
1. Mucosa
2. Submucosa
3. Muscularis Externa
4. AdventitiaIntestinal villi are highly vascular projections of the mucosal surface that cover the entire small intestinal mucosa. They increase the lumen’s surface area, which aids in absorption and digestion, the primary functions of the small intestine. Villi are large and most abundant in the duodenum and jejunum.
In both the small and large intestines, the muscularis mucosae are found within the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus is found innervating the muscularis externa. The mucosa is lined with columnar epithelial cells, and goblet cells may be present to secrete mucins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his left groin. Upon examination, his doctor is able to diagnose a direct inguinal hernia. There are many structures present in the inguinal canal.
Where is the ilioinguinal nerve located in relation to the spermatic cord?Your Answer: Within the spermatic cord
Correct Answer: Anterior to the spermatic cord
Explanation:The answer is anterior to the spermatic cord.
The inguinal canal in men contains the ilioinguinal nerve, the genitofemoral nerve and the spermatic cord.
The ilioinguinal nerve arises of the L1 nerve root with the Iliohypogastric nerve, before entering the inguinal canal from the side, through the muscles of the abdomen, travelling superficial to the spermatic cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding correlation coefficient?
Your Answer: It is stated in the same units as the dependent variable
Correct Answer: It can assume any value between -1 and 1
Explanation:The degree of correlation is summarised by the correlation coefficient (r). This indicates how closely the points lie to a line drawn through the plotted data. In parametric data this is called Pearson’s correlation coefficient and can take any value between -1 to +1. A correlation of -1.0 indicates a perfect negative correlation, and a correlation of 1.0 indicates a perfect positive correlation.
For example
r = 1 – strong positive correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always increases with age)
r = 0 – no correlation (e.g. there is no correlation between systolic blood pressure and age)
r = – 1 – strong negative correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always decreases with age)
Whilst correlation coefficients give information about how one variable may increase or decrease as another variable increases they do not give information about how much the variable will change. They also do not provide information on cause and effect.
In contrast to the correlation coefficient, linear regression may be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 78
Correct
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Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true?
Your Answer: Uncuffed RAE tubes have two Murphy eyes
Explanation:Tracheal tubes are made of either disposable plastic or reusable red rubber.
The tube size refers to the internal diameter (ID) in mm which is marked on the outside of the tube (some manufacturers mark the external diameter on the outside).
Plastic tubes have a radiopaque line spanning the entire length of the tube, which allows their position to be identified on x-rays. The bevel located at the end of the tube is left-facing and oval in shape, which improves the view of the vocal cords during intubation.
Oxford tubes are L-shaped and have a bevel that faces posteriorly. They have thick walls that increase the external diameter, making for a wider internal diameter.
RAE (Ring, Adair, and Elwyn) tubes are preformed and can either be north or south facing and cuffed or uncuffed. The cuffed RAE tubes have one Murphy eye, whereas the uncuffed has two Murphy eyes. Uncuffed tubes are primarily used in paediatric anaesthesia and the two Murphy eyes ensure adequate ventilation- should the tube be too long.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 79
Correct
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A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable.
What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?Your Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis
Explanation:According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 80
Correct
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A 89-year old male has hypertension, with a blood pressure of 170/68 mmHg and has been admitted to the hospital. He is on no regular medications. His large pulse pressure can be accounted for by which of the following?
Your Answer: Reduced aortic compliance
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 81
Correct
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Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer: It decreases during normal sleep
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.
Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).
BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.
BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.
BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 82
Correct
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Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.
In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?Your Answer: Calcium ions
Explanation:Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.
These include:
Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
Apoptosis
Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
Lymphocyte activation
Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.
The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:
Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
Dopamine (D1 and D5)
Histamine (H2)
Glucagon
Vasopressin (V2).The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.
The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 83
Correct
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A 77-year-old man, is scheduled for an angiogram to investigate gastro-intestinal bleeding. The radiologist performing the angiogram inserts the catheter into the coeliac axis.
What level of the vertebrae does the coeliac axis normally arise from the aorta?Your Answer: T12
Explanation:The coeliac axis refers to one of the splanchnic arteries located within the abdomen.
It arises from the aorta almost horizontally at the level of the T12 vertebrae
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 84
Correct
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Question 85
Correct
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A medical student performed a case control study for her final dissertation. It involved examining marijuana exposure in a group of patients with and without COPD.
What form of bias is the study most susceptible to?Your Answer: Recall bias
Explanation:Case control studies in particular are prone to recall bias, people who are suffering from COPD might sometimes relate the ailment to marijuana usage in past and hence contrary to the control group, they are more able to describe to what extent they have been using the drug in the past.
As recommended, all the doctors should make sure that there practice is based on evidence and thus it is paramount that the doctors learn to appraise the paper in a critical manner i.e. ability to detect any potential source of bias.
Detection Bias: Outcomes are more looked for in one group than the other.
Observer Bias: Subjectivity of observers regarding the outcome.
Publication bias: Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.
Recall bias: Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.
Response Bias: The participants that filled out the response forms containing information that was going to be used for a trial, don’t represent the target population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 86
Incorrect
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What is the name of the space between the vocal cords?
Your Answer: Rima vestibuli
Correct Answer: Rima glottidis
Explanation:The rima glottidis is a narrow, triangle-shaped opening between the true vocal cords.
The vocal folds (true vocal cords) control sound production. The apex of each fold projects medially into the laryngeal cavity.
Each vocal fold includes these vocal ligaments:
Vocalis muscle (most medial part of thyroarytenoid muscle)
The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes and rima glottidis.
The rima glottidis is the narrowest potential site within the larynx, as the vocal cords may be completely opposed, forming a complete barrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 87
Correct
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You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted following a cardiac arrest. He was rescued from a river, but little else is known about him.
CPR is being performed on the patient, who has been intubated. He's received three DC shocks and is still in VF. A rectal temperature of 29.5°C is taken with a low-reading thermometer.
Which of the following statements about his resuscitation is correct?Your Answer: No further DC shocks and no drugs should be given until his core temperature is greater than 30°C
Explanation:The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.
In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:
If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:
DC shocks are used as usual.
Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.
Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 88
Correct
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Regarding the classification of breathing systems, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: The Conway classification describes a functional classification based on whether a CO2 absorber is required
Explanation:Breathing system is an assembly of components which connects patient’s airway to anaesthesia machine through which controlled composition of gas mixture is dispensed. It delivers gas to the patient, removes expired gas and controls the temperature and humidity of the inspired mixture. It allows spontaneous, controlled, or assisted respiration. It may also provide ports for gas sampling, airway pressure, flow and volume monitoring.
Breathing systems have been classified by Conway and Mapleson.
Conway suggested a functional classification:
– Circuits requiring a CO2 absorber
– Circuits not requiring a CO2 absorberWilliam Mapleson designated varying arrangements of breathing system components (masks, breathing tubes, fresh gas flow inlets, adjustable pressure-limiting valves, and reservoir bags) as Mapleson A-E circuits.
Mapleson A: Arranged as FGF inlet, reservoir bag, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, because the reservoir bag is between the FGF inlet valve and the APL valve, expired gas from the patient may re-enter the system and fill the reservoir bag during controlled ventilation. This is the most efficient system for spontaneous breathing as the FGF must only be equal to a patient’s minute ventilation to prevent rebreathing.Mapleson B: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the FGF inlet is closer to the APL valve, which helps prevent the rebreathing concern in the Mapleson A circuit as above during controlled ventilation.Mapleson C: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement is the same as the Mapleson B circuit. However, this circuit is shorter as it does not contain elongated corrugated tubing. This circuit also has the FGF inlet close to the APL valve to aid in preventing rebreathing.Mapleson D: Arranged as reservoir bag, APL valve, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement interchanges the FGF inlet and APL valve of the Mapleson A circuit. This system prevents rebreathing by directing FGF towards the APL valve rather than towards the patient during exhalation.Mapleson E: Arranged as corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, there is no reservoir bag and no APL valve. Given the inability to alter the pressure of the circuit, this is ideal for spontaneously ventilating neonates or paediatric patients where low-pressure ventilation is desired. The system prevents rebreathing, similar to the Mapleson D circuit.Jackson Rees later modified the Mapleson E by adding an open ended bag, which has since become known as the Mapleson F.
Mapleson F: Arranged as APL valve directly connected to reservoir bag, corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
The system prevents rebreathing similarly to Mapleson D by directing FGF towards the APL valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 89
Correct
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The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the following muscles?
Your Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:The external laryngeal nerve arises from the superior laryngeal nerve and provides innervation to the cricothyroid muscle.
The other muscles mentioned receive their innervations from the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 90
Correct
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Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination half-life?
Your Answer: Thiopental
Explanation:Thiopental has the longest elimination half-life of 6-15 hours.
Elimination half-life of other drugs are given as:
– Propofol: 5-12 h
– Methohexitone: 3-5 h
– Ketamine: 2 h
– Etomidate: 1-4 h -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 91
Correct
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A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?
Your Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency
Explanation:Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?
Your Answer: +90mV
Correct Answer: -90mV
Explanation:The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.
The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?
Your Answer: Stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas
Correct Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle
Explanation:Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have noted the patient's symptoms as unilateral left-sided weakness of the upper and lower limbs, homonymous hemianopia and dysphasia.
She has previous personal and family history of deep vein thromboses.
The report of her CT scan suggests a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery.
Post recovery, she undergoes further diagnostic investigations to determine the cause of a stroke at her young age. She is eventually diagnosed with a hypercoagulable state disease called Factor V Leiden thrombophilia.
An emboli in the middle cerebral artery results in dysfunction of which areas of the brain?Your Answer: Parietal and occipital lobes
Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The middle cerebral artery is a part of the circle of Willis system of anastomosis within the brain, and the most often affected by brain pathology.
The primary function of the middle cerebral artery is providing oxygenated blood to related regions of the brain. It achieves this by giving off different branches to supply different brain regions, namely:
The cortical branches: which supplies the primary motor and somatosensory cortical areas of some parts of the face, trunk and upper limbs.
The small central branches: which supply the basal ganglia and internal capsule via the lenticulostriate vessels.
The superior division: which supplies the lateral inferior frontal lobe, including the Broca area which is responsible for production of speech, language comprehension, and writing.
The inferior division: which supplies the superior temporal gyrus, including Wernicke’s area which controls speech comprehension and language development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 95
Correct
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With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric outlet obstruction is admitted to the surgical ward.
The serum biochemical results listed below are available:
Sodium 128 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Chloride 50 mmol/L (95-107)
Urea 12 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 180 µmol/L (60-110)
Which of the following do you think you are most likely to encounter?Your Answer: The standard base excess will be higher than actual base excess
Explanation:Hydrochloric acid is lost when you vomit for a long time (HCl). As a result, the following can be expected, in varying degrees of severity:
Hypokalaemia
Hypochloraemia
Increased bicarbonate to compensate for chloride loss and metabolic alkalosisThe alkalosis causes potassium to move from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment at first. Long-term vomiting and dehydration cause potassium to be excreted by the kidneys in order to conserve sodium. Dehydration can cause urea and creatinine levels to rise.
The actual base excess is always greater than the standard base excess.
The actual base excess (BE) is a measurement of a base’s contribution to a blood gas picture’s metabolic component. It’s the amount of base that needs to be added to a blood sample to bring the pH back to 7.4 after the respiratory component of a blood gas picture has been corrected (PaCO2 of 40 mmHg or 5.3 kPa). The BE has a normal range of +2 to 2. A large positive BE indicates a severe metabolic alkalosis, while a large negative BE indicates a severe metabolic acidosis. As a result, the actual BE in vitro is unaffected by CO2.
In vivo, however, standard BE is not independent of pCO2 because blood with haemoglobin acts as a better buffer than total ECF.
As a result, it is impossible to tell the difference between compensating for a respiratory disorder and compensating for the presence of a primary metabolic disorder.
The differences between in vitro and in vivo behaviour can be mostly eliminated if the BE is calculated for a haemoglobin concentration of 50 g/L (the ‘effective’ or virtual value of Hb if it was distributed throughout the extracellular space) rather than the actual haemoglobin. Because haemoglobin has a lower buffering capacity, the standard BE is higher than the actual BE. It reflects the BE better in the extracellular space rather than just the intravascular compartment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 96
Correct
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Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.
Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?
Your Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria
Explanation:Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.
Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.
Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.
In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?
Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.Your Answer: 97.40%
Correct Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
1. Multiply the standard error by 3.
2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 98
Correct
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What is the primary purpose of funnel plots?
Your Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses
Explanation:Funnel plot is essentially a scatterplot of the effect of treatment against a particular measure of study precision. Its primal purpose is to serve as a visual aid and help in detection of bias or systematic heterogenity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 99
Incorrect
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Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?
Your Answer: Catecholamines
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.
Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.
Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery
Explanation:The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.
The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)
1. Bronchial arteries
2. Mediastinal arteries
3. Oesophageal arteries
4. Pericardial arteries
5. Superior phrenic arteriesThe posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.
The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and has gone into a cardiogenic shock. As part of her treatment, she is prescribed a dobutamine infusion and placed on full haemodynamic monitoring.
Over the next four days, her measurement are:
Day1 Day2 Day3 Day4
Infusion rate of dobutamine (mcg/kg/min): 5 10 15 25
Cardiac output (L/min): 3.4 3.2 3.1 3.2
Pulse rate (beats/min): 110 112 105 100
Blood pressure (mmHg): 80/60 75/61 83/60 81/56
Haemodynamic changes are noted as a result of response to treatment. What is the most probable cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tolerance by down-regulation of beta1 receptors
Explanation:Tachyphylaxis is the swiftly declining response to successive drug doses which vastly reduces its effectiveness in a short space of time, mostly as a result of an acute consumption of neurotransmitters.
Tolerance or desensitisation is the slow decline in a person’s reaction to a drug due to continued use. It requires a longer time span than tachyphylaxis, usually over days or weeks.
Down- regulation is a reduction in the amount of receptors available on target cells which decreases the affinity of the agent to the cells. For this to occur, the down-regulation of receptors must occur at a rate faster than receptor synthesis. This down-regulation often occurs with beta1 receptors due to:
1) The transportation or receptors from the cell surface to the interior of the cell
2) Degradation of receptors occurring over time.
In this case, dobutamine is prescribed to treat cardiogenic shock. It is able to function by binding to beta1-adrenergic receptors to increase the contraction of the heart, thereby improving cardiac output. It also binds to beta2- and alpha1-adrenergic receptors to balance out the effects produced by binding to beta1 receptors and reduce the risk of system vasculature responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 102
Incorrect
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Post thyroidectomy, a 50-year-old male singer noticed some hoarseness in his voice. Now, he presents to his general physician as it has been the same for the past few weeks.
A complication is noted in the post-thyroidectomy report regarding an injury to the external laryngeal nerve.
Which muscle has been affected due to loss of innervation by the damaged nerve, and whose improper functioning can lead to hoarseness in the patient's voice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:All of the muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve, except the cricothyroid muscle.
Cricothyroid muscle is located deep in the anterior neck, between the cricoid and thyroid cartilage and is innervated by the external laryngeal nerve. Any injury to this muscle can cause paralysis and lead to hoarseness. When cricothyroid muscle contracts, it leads to tightening, stretching and thinning of the vocal folds. This produces higher-pitched sounds during vocalization.
A patient experiencing hoarseness due to possible injury to the external laryngeal nerve should be reassured that the hoarseness will resolve in time due to increased compensation from the other muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 103
Incorrect
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All of the following options describes a thermistor for the measurement of temperature except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resistance of the bead increases exponentially as the temperature increases
Explanation:There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:
Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially
Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)
Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature
Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output
Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 104
Incorrect
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The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus (DA) and ductus venosus (DV) are the three important cardiac shunts in-utero.
At birth the umbilical vessels constrict in response to stretch as they are clamped. Blood flow through the ductus venosus (DV) decreases but the DV closes passively in 3-10 days.
As the pulmonary circulation is established, there is a drastic fall in pulmonary vascular resistance and an increased pulmonary blood flow. This increases flow and pressure in the Left Atrium that exceeds that of the right atrium. The difference in pressure usually leads to the IMMEDIATE closure of the foramen ovale.
The DA is functionally closed within the first 36-hours of birth in a healthy full-term newborn. Subsequent endothelial and fibroblast proliferation leads to permanent anatomical closure within 2 – 3 weeks.
Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes via the umbilical vein to the liver. Blood also bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava (IVC). The Crista dividens is a tissue flap situated at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium (RA). This flap directs the oxygen-rich blood, along the posterior aspect of the IVC, through the foramen ovale into the left atrium (LA).
The Eustachian valve also known as the valve of The IVC is a remnant of the crista dividens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 105
Incorrect
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Which type of epithelium lines the luminal surface of the oesophagus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
Explanation:Normally, the oesophagus is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. This epithelium can undergo metaplasia and convert to the columnar epithelium (stomach’s lining) in long-standing GERD that leads to Barret’s oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 106
Incorrect
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Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pKA
Explanation:For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).
The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.
Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X rays
Explanation:Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.
Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.
Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 109
Incorrect
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Which of the following facts about IgE is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is increased in the serum of atopic individuals
Explanation:Immunoglobulin E (IgE) are an antibody subtype produced by the immune system. They are the least abundant type and function in parasitic infections and allergy responses.
The most predominant type of immunoglobulin is IgG. It is able to be transmitted across the placenta to provide immunity to the foetus.
IgE is involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction as it stimulates mast cells to release histamine. It has no role in type 2 hypersensitivity.
Its concentration in the serum is normally the least abundant, however certain reactions cause a rise in its concentration, such as atopy, but not in acute asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The probability associated with a type I error is the significance level
Explanation:The null hypothesis states that there is no significant difference between two groups.
The alternative hypothesis states that there is a significant difference between two groups.
A type I error (false positive) occurs when a null hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.
A type II error (false negative) occurs when the alternative hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.
The probability determines the rejection of a null hypothesis.
The level of significance is set at p <0.05.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Critical damping
Explanation:A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.
Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.
In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.
Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.
In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old patient is brought to ER with a chief complaint of chest pain for two hours. Chest pain was tightness in nature, located in the centre of the chest and radiate into the neck and left arm. The patient otherwise looks fit and well.
Just after admitting the patient, he suffered VF cardiac arrest and is immediately defibrillated with the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
On clinical examination following was the finding:
BP: 82/45 mmHg
Heart rate: 120 beats/min
Oxygen saturation on air: 25%
Heart sounds: Normal
There is no sign of pulmonary oedema. The patient is anxious, cold, and clammy.
A 12 lead ECG was done which revealed a sinus rhythm of 120 with ST-segment depression and T wave inversion in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is considered best for the initial treatment of the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral aspirin
Explanation:This is a classical case of unstable angina or NSTEMI (Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction). As soon as the diagnosis of unstable angina or NSTEMI is made the initial treatment is Aspirin and antithrombin therapy.
Betablocker is known to reduce mortality from acute myocardial infarction by reducing oxygen demand. If there is no contraindication (heart block, bradycardia, hypotension, severe left ventricular dysfunction, and asthma), a beta-blocker should be given early. This patient has hypotension and therefore metoprolol is contraindicated.
If three doses of nitroglycerine tablets or Nitrolingual sprays and intravenous beta-blockers too cannot relieve the symptoms intravenous Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) should be considered provided that there is no hypotension. But in this case, the patient is hypotensive, and therefore, it is contraindicated.
If the symptoms are not relieved after three serial doses of nitroglycerine or if symptoms recur despite adequate anti-anginal treatment morphine sulphate is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple exposure
Explanation:Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.
Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an external fixation of a pelvic fracture sustained in a road traffic accident earlier in the day. Additionally, he has stable L2/L4 vertebral fractures but no other injuries.
He is a known intravenous drug abuser currently on 200 mg heroin per day. He has been admitted for observations postop and pain control. He has regular paracetamol and NSAIDs prescribed.
Which is the most appropriate postoperative pain regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PCA morphine alone with background infusion
Explanation:With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.
Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.
2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).
Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.
The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
During the analysis phase, which of the provided options serves to control confounding factors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stratification
Explanation:During analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. This technique involves sorting out the data into discernible groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the left kidney. He will be operated on, and as part of the surgery, the left renal artery has to be located and dissected.
Which of the following vertebral levels gives rise to this artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:The renal arteries branch from the abdominal aorta just below the origin of the superior mesenteric artery. The right renal artery is higher and longer than the left renal artery. The left renal artery passes behind the left renal vein, the body of the pancreas, and the splenic vein.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T10 – oesophageal opening in the diaphragm
T12 – Coeliac trunk, aortic hiatus in the diaphragm
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman with a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and hypothyroidism was brought to ER with a change in her mental state over the past few hours. Medications used by her were hydrochlorothiazide, aspirin, ramipril, and levothyroxine.
On physical examination, decreased skin turgor, orthostatic hypotension, and disorientation of time and place were found. There were no significant neurological signs.
Initial biochemical tests are as follows:
Na: 111 mmol/L (135-145)
K: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.1)
Cl: 105 mmol/L (99-101)
Bic: 29 mmol/L (22-29)
Urea: 16.4 mmol/L (1.7-8.3)
Creatinine: 320µmol/L (44-80)
Glucose: 13.5mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Plasma osmolality: 278mOsm/kg
Urinary osmolality: 450mOsm/kg
TSH: 6.2 miu/L (0.1-6.0)
Free T4: 10.1 pmol/L (10-25)
Free T3: 1.4nm/L (1.0-2.5)
Which of the following is most likely cause for this condition of the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug idiosyncrasy
Explanation:Based on the laboratory reports, the patient is suffering from significant hyponatremia. The symptoms of hyponatremia are mainly neurological and depend on the severity and rapidity of onset of hyponatremia.
Patient symptom according to the hyponatremia level is correlated below:
125 – 130mmol/L – Nausea and malaise
115 – 125mmol/L – Headache, lethargy, seizures, and coma
<120mmol/L - Up to 11% present with coma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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The whole water content of the body is calculated by multiplying body mass with 0.6. This water is diffused into distinct compartments.
Which fluid compartment can be measured indirectly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intracellular volume
Explanation:The total body water content of a 70kg man is (70 × 0.6) = 42 litres. For a woman, the calculation is (70 × 0.55) = 38.5 litres.
For a man, it is subdivided into:
Extracellular fluid (ECF) = 14L (1/3)
Intracellular fluid (ICF) = 28L (2/3).The ECF volume is further divided into:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5 litres
Plasma = 3 litres
Transcellular fluid (CSF/synovial fluid) = 0.5 litres.Directly measured fluid compartments:
Heavy water (deuterium) can be used to measure total body water content, which is freely distributed.
Albumin labelled with a radioactive isotope or using a dye called Evans blue can be used to measure Plasma volume . They do not diffuse into red blood cells.
Radiolabelled (Cr-51) red blood cells can be used to measure total erythrocyte volume.
Inulin as the tracer can be used to measure ECF volume as it circulate freely in the interstitial and plasma volumes.Indirectly measured fluid compartments:
Total blood volume can be calculated with the level of haematocrit and the volume of total circulating red blood cells.
ICF volume can be calculated by subtracting ECF volume from total blood volume. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 120
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about Calcium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Only 1% of total body Calcium is found in the plasma
Explanation:Only 1 percent of the calcium in the human body is found in the plasma where it performs the most critical functions.
Out of this 1 percent, approximately 15% is complexed calcium bound to organic and inorganic anions, 40% is bound to albumin, and the remaining 45% circulates as free ionized calcium.
The Chvostek sign is a clinical finding associated with hypocalcaemia, or low levels of calcium in the blood. This clinical sign refers to a twitch of the facial muscles that occurs when gently tapping an individual’s cheek, in front of the ear.
Prolonged QT interval are associated with hypocalcaemia as reported in multiple studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about closing capacity is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is less than the functional residual capacity in a 30-year-old
Explanation:Closing capacity refers to volume of gas within the lungs at which the conducting small airways begin to close, that is, the point during expiration when small airways close.
It is calculated mathematically as:
Closing capacity = Closing volume (CV) + Residual volume (RV)
Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas still present within the lungs post expiration.
Closing capacity is lower than the functional residual capacity in younger adults, but begins to rise to eventually equal, and then exceed it with increasing age (at about middle age), increasing intrabdominal pressure, decreasing blood flow in the pulmonary system and parenchymal disease within the pulmonary system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.
Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV
Explanation:The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.
Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.
Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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At what site would you palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behind and below the medial ankle
Explanation:The posterior tibial artery originates from the popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa. It passes posterior to the popliteus muscle to pierce the soleus muscle. It descends between the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles.
The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the posterior compartment of the lower limb. The artery can be palpated posterior to the medial malleolus.
There are 4 main pulse points for the lower limb:
1. Femoral pulse 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point
2. Popliteal partially flexed knee to loosen the popliteal fascia
3. Posterior tibial behind and below the medial ankle
4. Dorsal pedis dorsum of the foot over the navicular bone -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like to find out his survival time for the condition.
Which statistical method is used to predict survival rate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator
Explanation:The Weibull distribution are used to describe various types of observed failures of the components. it is used in reliability and survival analysis.
Regression Analysis is used to measure the relationship between among two or more variable. It determines the effect of independent variables on the dependent variables.
Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.
A time series is a collection of observations of well-defined data obtained at regular interval of time.
Kaplan-Meier estimator is used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. It can be derived from maximum likelihood estimation of hazard function. It is most likely used to measure the fraction of patient’s life for a certain amount of time after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription.
He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.
What is the name of this structure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.
The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.
The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman is listed for clipping of a cerebral aneurysm, following a diagnosis of surgical third nerve palsy.
Which of the following clinical findings correlate with surgical third nerve palsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ptosis, inferolateral rotation of globe and mydriasis
Explanation:Ptosis and mydriasis are visible in surgical third nerve palsy, and the eye looks ‘down and out.’ The loss of innervation to all of the major structures supplied by the oculomotor nerve is reflected in these characteristics.
Ptosis is caused by the paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris in oculomotor nerve palsy. Due to the unopposed actions of the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles, the eye rotates down and out.
Mydriasis is caused by surgical (compressive) causes of third nerve palsy, which disrupt the parasympathetic pupillomotor fibres on the nerve’s periphery.
Medical (ischaemic) causes of a third nerve palsy, on the other hand, leave the superficial parasympathetic fibres relatively unaffected and the pupil unaffected.
Horner’s syndrome is characterised by ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis, which are caused by a loss of sympathetic innervation to the tarsal muscle of the upper lid, facial skin, and dilator pupillae, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 127
Incorrect
-
A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.
1 mg midazolam is used to induce anaesthesia, followed by 75 mg propofol.
Which of the following options best describes how these two drugs interact pharmacologically?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synergism
Explanation:Drug interactions can be seen in the following examples:
Additive interaction (summation).
Additive effects are described for intravenous drug combinations such as ketamine and thiopentone or ketamine and midazolam. Different mechanisms of action are used by them. Thiopentone and midazolam are GABAA receptor agonists, whereas ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nitrous oxide and halothane are two other examples.
Synergism is a supra-additive interaction.
Refers to the administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological properties and closely related sites of action, resulting in a combined effect that is greater than the sum of the contributions of each component. The construction of an isobologram can be used to interpret and understand these. The best example is the hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines and intravenous induction agents like propofol. As part of a co-induction technique, midazolam is frequently given before propofol.
Potentiation
In a dose-dependent manner, volatile agents enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. Electrolyte disturbance (hypomagnesaemia), Penicillin, and probenecid can all increase the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (the latter has no similar pharmacological activity).
Infra-additive interaction (antagonism).
This can be subdivided into the following categories:
-Pharmacokinetic interference occurs when one drug affects the absorption of another through the gastrointestinal tract or when hepatic microsomal enzyme induction influences metabolism.
-Heparin and protamine, for example, or heavy metals and chelating agents, are examples of chemical antagonists.
-Competitive reversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors, such as opioids and naloxone, and irreversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the smallest value of pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14.69 psi
Explanation:The SI unit of pressure is the pascal (Pa) and it is equal to one newton (N) per square meter (m2) or N/m2.
1 atmosphere (atm) is the equivalent of:
101325 Pa760 mmHg
1.01325 bar
1033.23 cmH2O.
14.69 pounds per square inch (psi)
1013.25 millibar (mbar) or hectopascals (hPa), and14.69 psi is equal to one atmosphere. The other values are equal to two atmospheres of pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 129
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4
Explanation:The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:
Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.
Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.
Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.
Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.
The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:
8th rib in the midclavicular line
10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line
T12 at its termination.
Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.
The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.
Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Explanation:Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.
False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).
Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.
For a standard 12-lead ECG, which of the following bandwidth and voltage combinations is the best?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bandwidth 0.05-150 Hz, voltage 100-4000 microvolts
Explanation:The potential difference (amplitude) and bandwidth frequencies of bioelectric signals are typical.
These are the following:
ECG: A bandwidth of 0.5-50 Hz is usually sufficient in monitoring mode, but a typical diagnostic bandwidth is 0.05-150 Hz (up to 200 Hz) with a typical voltage range of 0.1-4 millivolts (100-4000 microvolts).
EEG has a frequency range of 0.5-100 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5-100 microvolts.
EMG has a frequency range of 0.5 to 350 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5 to 30 millivolts.Prior to display, these small signals will need to be amplified and processed further.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 132
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump in her groin area. The lump is painless and is more prominent in coughing.
On examination, the lump's location is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle. This points towards the diagnosis of femoral hernia, where part of her intestines has entered the femoral canal, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral triangle is an anatomical region in the upper thigh.
Name the structures found in the femoral triangle, laterally to medially.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Explanation:The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Adductor longus
Lateral: Sartorius
Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineusThe contents include: (medial to lateral)
Femoral vein
Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
Femoral nerve
Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Lateral cutaneous nerve
Great saphenous vein
Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less biodegradation
Explanation:Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.
Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).
Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.
Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 134
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery disease. He is recovering well post-surgery. However, on follow-up in the ward, he has hoarseness of his voice.
Which of the following explains the hoarseness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Damage to the vagus
Explanation:During carotid endarterectomy, injury to the vagus nerve or its branches can cause hoarseness. Injury to the vagus nerve can result in adductor vocal cord paralysis. It can also cause other symptoms like dysphagia or even vocal cord immobility.
Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. Because of the internal carotid artery relations, there is a risk of cranial nerve injury during the procedure involving one or more of the following nerves: CN IX, CN X (or its branch, the superior laryngeal nerve), CN XI, or CN XII.
However, only damage to the vagus would account for speech difficulties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 135
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root
Explanation:The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.
Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.
The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.
The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.
The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.
Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries.
What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 137
Incorrect
-
A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.
Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Campylobacter
Explanation:Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.
Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.
Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa.
Which of the following veins also connects to the cephalic vein other than the median cubital vein?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basilic vein
Explanation:The upper limb venous drainage is divided into superficial and deep. The superficial veins are accessible to draw blood for investigations. The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are superficial veins.
The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein and basilic vein. It is located anteriorly in the antecubital fossa and is preferred for venepuncture due to its palpability and ease of access.
The basilic vein and cephalic vein are the primary veins that drain the upper limb. They begin as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side, while the cephalic vein originates from the radial side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few hours later, the patient developed fever of 38°C, hypertension, and agitation.
According to the patient's medical history, he is maintained on Levodopa and Selegiline for Parkinson's disease.
Which of the following is the most probable cause of his manifestation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pethidine
Explanation:Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase leads to increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system.
Pethidine, also known as meperidine, is a strong agonist at the mu and kappa receptors. It inhibits pain neurotransmission and blocks muscarinic-specific actions.
Administering opioid analgesic is relatively contraindicated to individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors. This is because of the high incidence of serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. Onset of symptoms is within hours, and the treatment is mainly through sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.
The clinical findings are more consistent with Serotonin syndrome rather than exacerbation of Parkinson’s. Parkinson’s Disease (PD) exacerbations are defined as patient-reported or caregiver-reported episodes of subacute worsening of PD motor function in 1 or more domains (bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity, or PD-related postural instability/gait disturbance) that caused a decline in functional status, developed over a period of < 2 months, did not fluctuate with medication timing, and are not caused by intentional adjustments of PD medications by the treating neurologist. Malignant hyperthermia usually occurs within minutes of administration of a volatile anaesthetic, such as halothane, or succinylcholine. There is massive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to fever, acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, trismus, clonus, and hypertension. In sepsis, it more common for patients to present with hypotension rather than hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 140
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type A and type B are found in the liver and brain
Explanation:Monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes are responsible for the catalyses of monoamine oxidative deamination. It assists the degradation of serotonin, norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine.
They are found in the mitochondria of most central and peripheral nerve tissues.
There are 2 different types:
Type A: Whose main function it to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, norepinephrine and 5-hydroxytryptamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain gastrointestinal tract, pulmonary endothelium and placenta
Type B: Whose main function is to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, tryptamine and phenylethylamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain (especially in the basal ganglia) and blood platelets. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
A healthy 27-year old male who weighs 70kg has appendicitis. He is currently in the operating room and is being positioned to have a rapid sequence induction.
Prior to preoxygenation, the compartment likely to have the best oxygen reserve is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Red blood cells
Explanation:The following table shows the compartments and their relative oxygen reserve:
Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
Myoglobin 200 200
Interstitial space 25 160Oxygen reserves in the body, with room air and after oxygenation.
FAO2-alveolar fraction of oxygen rises to 95% after administration of 100% oxygen (CO2 = 5%)
FRC- Functional residual capacity – (the most important store of oxygen in the body) – 2,500-3,000 mL in medium sized adults
PaO2-partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood (80 mmHg breathing room air and 500 mmHg breathing 100% oxygen)
DF -dissolved form (0.3%)
PV-plasma volume (3L)
TG-total globular volume (5L)
Hb-haemoglobin concentration
SaO2-arterial oxygen concentration (98% breathing air and 100% when preoxygenated) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.
Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small arterioles
Explanation:Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.
These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.
Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.
Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5
It can be calculated from the following equation:
SVR = (mean arterial pressure − mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type CF is considered to safe for direct connection with the heart
Explanation:There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:
Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply
Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.
Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.
Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)
Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.
Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 145
Incorrect
-
Regarding anaesthetic breathing circuits, which one would be the best for spontaneous breathing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack circuit
Explanation:Among the breathing circuits, the Lack circuit is the most efficient for spontaneous breathing.
An outer coaxial tube is present to deliver fresh air; exhaust air is routed to an inner tube, which is then delivered to a scavenging system. An expiratory valve is seen at the patient end, which is an advantage over other circuits. Moreover, the Lack circuit prevents rebreathing slightly greater than the alveolar minute ventilation at 4-5 litres per minute.
The Bain circuit prevents rebreathing at 160-200ml/kg per minute, and is a co-axial version of the Mapleson D circuit.
The Mapleson E circuit prevent rebreathing at a fresh gas flow (FGF) of approximately twice the patient’s normal minute volume. A modification of this, the Mapleson F, has a reservoir bag at the opposite end for the FGF. This circuit is appropriate for paediatric patients with a body weight less than 20 kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 146
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis.
Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases
Explanation:A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
Heart rate: ≥110/min
Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.
A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
If mechanical ventilation is indicatedA peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.
An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.
What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100 mL
Explanation:The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.
The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.
A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.
The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.
Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.
Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:
Dental patients undergoing procedures
Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.
To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
previous valve replacement
structural congenital heart disease
past history of IE, or
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.
Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
A pulmonary function tests results are:
Measurement Predicted result Test result
Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) 3.85 2.36
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) 3.34 0.97
FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) 85.1 39.9
Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) 7.33 2.11
Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) 116 44.4
What does this indicate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture
Explanation:Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:
Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35% This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as %FEV1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3 FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her left side of the face with a drooping mouth and difficulty speaking. With no significant past medical history and after relevant investigations, you rule out stroke as a possible cause. The lady is suspected to have suffered Bell's palsy, an idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve.
What symptoms are you most likely to find on examination in a patient with Bell's palsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue
Explanation:Bell’s palsy is facial muscle weakness or paralysis that arises from idiopathic damage to the facial nerve. It can occur at any age but is commonly associated with some conditions:
1. pregnancy
2. diabetes
3. upper respiratory ailment
4. GBS
5. ToxinsThe common symptoms of Bell’s palsy are:
1. Abnormal corneal reflex as the facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex.
2. The loss of control of facial muscles and eyelids leads to decreased tear production.
3. mild weakness to total paralysis on one side of the face, occurring within hours to days.
4. Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion that usually spares the forehead while the upper motor near lesions, like stroke, involves the entire face.
5. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, thus resulting in loss of taste.
6. Ptosis can be a feature of Bell’s palsy but Bell’s palsy would typically show unilateral symptoms rather than bilateral. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 151
Incorrect
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When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas.
Which of its property is responsible for this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Critical temperature
Explanation:The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C
The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.
The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.
There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
Two different anti-viral treatments are being evaluated for COVID-19 in a clinical study.
Which of the following statistical method should be opted to compare survival time with?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hazard ratio
Explanation:The hazard ratio (HR) is simply a comparison of two hazards in a study. It provides an estimate of the ratio of the hazard rates between the experimental group and a control group over the entire study duration. It is typically used when analysing survival over time, hence is the most suitable statistical method in this case.
An odds ratio is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. It is the “measure of association” for a case-control study.
The Pearson product-moment correlation coefficient (Pearson’s correlation, for short) is a measure of the strength and direction of association that exists between two variables. An example would be if scientists wanted to evaluate the relationship between quality of certain population of rice and their genetic make-up.
Relative risk is the ratio of the risks for an event for the exposure group to the risks for the non-exposure group. Thus relative risk provides an increase or decrease in the likelihood of an event based on some exposure. Relative risk measures the association between the exposure and the outcome.
Absolute risk reduction is the number of percentage points your own risk goes down if you do a preventive act such as stop drinking alcohol. It depends on what your risk factors are to begin with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
In which of the following situations will a regional fall in cerebral blood flow occur, suppose there is no changes in the mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperoxia
Explanation:The response of cerebral blood flow (CBF) to hyperoxia (PaO2 >15 kPa, 113 mmHg), the cerebral oxygen vasoreactivity is less well defined. A study originally described, using a nitrous oxide washout technique, a reduction in CBF of 13% and a moderate increase in cerebrovascular resistance in subjects inhaling 85-100% oxygen. Subsequent human studies, using a variety of differing methods, have also shown CBF reductions with hyperoxia, although the reported extent of this change is variable. Another study assessed how supra-atmospheric pressures influenced CBF, as estimated by changes in middle cerebral artery flow velocity (MCAFV) in healthy individuals. Atmospheric pressure alone had no effect on MCAFV if PaO2 was kept constant. Increases in PaO2 did lead to a significant reduction in MCAFV; however, there were no further reductions in MCAFV when oxygen was increased from 100% at 1 atmosphere of pressure to 100% oxygen at 2 atmospheres of pressure. This suggests that the ability of cerebral vasculature to constrict in response to increasing partial pressure of oxygen is limited.
Increases in arterial blood CO2 tension (PaCO2) elicit marked cerebral vasodilation.
CBF increases with general anaesthesia, ketamine anaesthesia, and hypoviscosity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the following equations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measures the minute volume to within an accuracy of +/- 10%
Explanation:A Wrights Respirometer measures the volume of air exhaled over the course of one minute of normal breathing
It is unidirectional and measures tidal volume and minute volume of gas flow in one direction. It is placed at the expiratory side (lower pressure than inspiratory side therefore lower chances of gas leaks)
Slits are arranged such that incoming gas will rotate the vane at a rate of 150 revolutions per litre of flowing gas
The Wright respirometer tends to over-read at high flow rates and under-read at low flows because of mechanical causes like friction and inertia and the accumulation of water vapour
The ideal flow for accurate readings is 2 L/min for the respirometer. The respirometer reads the tidal volume and minute volume with a ±5–10% accuracy within the range of 4–24 L/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements regarding anticholinergic drugs (hyoscine hydrobromide, atropine and glycopyrrolate) is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyoscine hydrobromide use may precipitate excitement and ataxia
Explanation:Anticholinergic agents are a group of drugs that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter called acetylcholine at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous system.
Hyoscine, atropine, and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic which acts at muscarinic receptors with little activity at the nicotinic receptors.
Hyoscine and atropine are naturally occurring esters. Since Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary amine, it does not cross the blood brain barrier. Noteworthy, hyoscine, butylbromide also does not cross the blood brain barrier significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diameter of tube
Explanation:Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:
1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
2. Few directional changes
3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminarPoiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant, in preventing stroke in patients suffering from atrial fibrillation, relative to those already available in the market was performed. A 59 year old woman volunteered for it and was randomised to the treatment arm. A year later, following findings were reported:
165 out of 1050 patients who were prescribed the already prevalent medicine had a stroke while the number of patients who had a single stroke after using the new drug was 132 out of 1044.
In order to avoid one stroke case, what is the number of patients that need to be treated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 32
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)
ARR= (0.157-0.126)
ARR= 0.031
NNT= 1/0.031
NNT=32.3
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathormone (PTH).
Which of the following PTH actions is most likely to cause calcium to be released from bone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indirect stimulation of osteoclasts
Explanation:The hormone parathyroid hormone (PTH) and the receptor parathyroid hormone type 1 (PTH1-Rc) are important regulators of blood calcium homeostasis.
PTH can cause a rapid release of calcium from the matrix in bone, but it also affects long-term calcium metabolism by acting directly on bone-forming osteoblasts (by binding to PTH1-Rc) and indirectly on bone-resorbing osteoclasts.
PTH causes changes in the synthesis and/or activity of several proteins, including osteoclast-differentiating factor, also known as TRANCE or RANKL, when it acts on osteoblasts.
RANK receptors are found on the cell surfaces of osteoclast precursors. The osteoclasts are activated when RANKL binds to the RANK receptors. Osteoclasts lack PTH receptors, whereas osteoblasts do. Osteoclasts are activated indirectly when the RANK receptor binds to the RANKL secreted by osteoblasts, resulting in bone resorption. PTH1 receptors are found in osteoclasts, but they are few.
PTH activates G-protein coupled receptors in all target cells via adenylate cyclase.
The PTH2 receptor is most abundant in the nervous system and pancreas, but it is not a calcium metabolism regulator. It is abundant in the septum, midline thalamic nuclei, several hypothalamic nuclei, and the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, as well as the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia. Expression in pancreatic islet somatostatin cells is the most prominent on the periphery.
The distribution of the receptor is being used to test functional hypotheses. It may play a role in pain modulation and hypothalamic releasing-factor secretion control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 161
Incorrect
-
Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is connected to the circle of Willis via the superior cerebellar artery
Explanation:The posterior cerebral arteries are the terminal branches of the basilar artery and are connected to the circle of Willis via the posterior communicating artery. The posterior cerebral artery supplies the visual areas of the cerebral cortex and other structures in the visual pathway.
The posterior cerebral artery is separated from the superior cerebellar artery near its origin by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve) and, lateral to the midbrain, by the trochlear nerve.
PCA strokes will primarily cause a visual field loss or homonymous hemianopia to the opposite side. This large occipital or PCA stroke causes people to be “blind” on one side of the visual field. This is the most common symptom of a large occipital lesion or PCA stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 162
Incorrect
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Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.
The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.
The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.
No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man is to be operated.
His past history is significant for a stroke, and some residual neurological deficit. The cranial nerves are examined clinically. He is unable to rotate his head to the left side when resistance is applied. Moreover, there is tongue wasting on the right side. There are no unusual sensory signs and symptoms.
The most likely reason for these clinical findings is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Damage to hypoglossal (XII) and spinal accessory (XI) nerves
Explanation:The upper five cervical segments of the spinal cord give rise to the XI cranial nerve. They connect with a few smaller branches before exiting the skull through the jugular foramen. The sternomastoid and trapezius muscles get their motor supply from the accessory root. Except for the palatoglossus, the hypoglossal nerve supplies motor supply to all tongue muscles.
The inability to shrug the shoulder on the affected side and rotate the head to the side against resistance is caused by damage to the spinal accessory nerve. This is due to the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles’ weakness.
The hypoglossal nerve is damaged, resulting in tongue wasting and inability to move from side to side.
The stylopharyngeus receives motor supply from the glossopharyngeal nerve. It also carries taste sensory fibres from the back third of the tongue, as well as the carotid sinus, carotid body, pharynx, and middle ear.
Motor supply to the larynx, pharynx, and palate; parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gut; and sensory fibres from the epiglottis and valleculae are all provided by the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
An otherwise fit 7-year-old boy for an elective tonsillectomy is seen holding a bottle of sugared orange squash at anaesthetic assessment . He appears to have consumed 120 mL of the bottle's contents.
What is the minimal safe fasting time prior to proceeding with a general anaesthetic in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 hour
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes
Explanation:Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.
Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.
The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.
The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.
The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.
Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 166
Incorrect
-
Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates the diaphragm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 167
Incorrect
-
Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.
If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96×SE either side of the mean.
A 95% confidence interval:
lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)
upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)
Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).
Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 168
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
On clinical examination:
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius
On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
The most sensitive indicator of mild obstructive airway disease is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forced expiratory flow (FEF25-75%)
Explanation:The volume expired in the first second of maximal expiration after a maximal inspiration is known as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and it indicates how quickly full lungs can be emptied. It is the most commonly measured parameter for bronchoconstriction assessment.
The maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximal inspiration is known as the ‘slow’ vital capacity (VC). VC is normally equal to FVC after a forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (VC) manoeuvre, unless there is an airflow obstruction, in which case VC is usually higher than FVC.
The FEV1/FVC (Tiffeneau index) is a clinically useful index of airflow restriction that can be used to distinguish between restrictive and obstructive respiratory disorders.
The average expired flow over the middle half (25-75 percent) of the FVC manoeuvre is the forced expiratory volume (FEF25-75). The airflow from the resistance bronchioles corresponds to this. It’s a more sensitive indicator of mild small airway narrowing than FEV1, but it’s difficult to tell if the VC (or FVC) is decreasing or increasing.
The maximum expiratory flow rate achieved is called the peak expiratory flow (PEF), which is usually 8-14 L/second.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine in CNS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most of the administered dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting occur commonly due to Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) stimulation by dopamine (Domperidone but not metoclopramide can be used for the treatment of this vomiting)
Dopamine itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) but its precursor levodopa can cross BBB.
Dopamine can modulate extrapyramidal symptoms like acute dyskinesia, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Dopamine inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 171
Incorrect
-
Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge to measure temperature?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles's law
Explanation:Charles’ Law states that there is a direct correlation between temperature and volume, where pressure and amount gas are constant. As temperature increases, volume also increases.
Boyle’s Law states that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, assuming that temperature and amount of gas are constant. As volume increases, pressure decreases. In Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the gases in mixture.
According to Henry’s Law for concentration of dissolved gases, at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An equivalent way of stating the law is that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.
Gay-Lussac’s Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant. This law is very similar to Charles’ Law, with the only difference being the type of container. Whereas the container in a Charles’ Law experiment is flexible, it is rigid in a Gay-Lussac’s Law experiment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
Which among the given options can be used to find out the number needed to treat?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 173
Incorrect
-
At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100 nanomol/L
Explanation:pH is the negative log to the base 10 of hydrogen ion concentration:
So, what power produces the answer?
pH = – log10 [H+]
Making [H+] the subject:
[H+] = 10-pH
Substituting, [H+] = 10-7
One nanomole = 1 x 10-9 or 0.000000001
10-7 = 1x 0.0000001 or 10 x 0.00000001 or 100 x 0.000000001
100 nanomole
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
Which of the following ionic changes is associated with the ventricular myocyte action potential's initial repolarization phase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ceased Na+ and increase K+ conductances
Explanation:The Purkinje system, as well as the action potentials of ventricular and atrial myocytes, have the same ionic changes. It lasts about 200 milliseconds and has a resting membrane potential, as well as fast depolarisation and plateau phases.
There are five stages to the process:
Increased Na+ and decreased K+ conductance in Phase 0 (rapid depolarisation).
1st phase (initial repolarisation) : Na+ conductance decreased, while K+ conductance increased.
Phase two (plateau phase) : Ca2+ conductance increased
Phase three (repolarisation phase) : Lower Ca2+ conductance and higher K+ conductance
4th Phase (resting membrane potential) : K+ conductance increased, Na+ conductance decreased, and Ca2+ conductance decreased. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true of albumin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is synthesised and stored in the liver
Explanation:Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.
Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.
Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.
If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
It is not catabolised during starvation.
Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.Causes of low albumin are
1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
4. Increased catabolism (very rare) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old soldier is shot in the abdomen. He has multiple injuries, including a major disruption to the abdominal aorta. The bleeding is torrential and needs to be controlled by placing a vascular clamp immediately inferior to the diaphragm.
During this manoeuvre, which vessel may be injured?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior phrenic arteries
Explanation:The inferior phrenic nerves are at the highest risk of damage as they are the first branches of the abdominal aorta. The potential space at the level of the diaphragmatic hiatus is a potentially useful site for aortic occlusion. However, leaving the clamp applied for more than 10 -15 minutes usually leads to poor outcomes.
The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.
The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
2. Coeliac artery: T12
3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
8. Median sacral artery: L4
9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart
Explanation:Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.
The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.
The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
Regarding pre-eclampsia with warning signs, which of the following laboratory tests is the most appropriate to establish a platelet dysfunction or disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Platelet count
Explanation:Decreased platelet concentrations with eclampsia were described as early as 1922 by Stancke. The platelet count is routinely measured in women with any form of gestational hypertension. The frequency and intensity of thrombocytopenia vary and are dependent on the severity and duration of the preeclampsia syndrome and the frequency with which platelet counts are performed.
Overt thrombocytopenia defined by a platelet count < 100,000/microliter - indicates severe disease. In general, the lower the platelet count, the higher the rates of maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. In most cases, delivery is advisable because thrombocytopenia usually continues to worsen. After delivery, the platelet count may continue to decline for the first day or so. It then usually increases progressively to reach a normal level within 3-5 days. In some instances with HELLP syndrome, the platelet count continues to fall after delivery. If these do not reach a nadir until 48 to 72 hours, then preeclampsia syndrome may be incorrectly attributed to one of the thrombotic microangiopathies. The following are other severe features associated with preeclampsia: Proteinuria: >/= 300 mg/24 hours; or urine protein: creatinine ratio >/= 0.3; or dipstick 1+
Renal insufficiency: serum creatinine > 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of creatinine in the absence of other renal disease
Impaired liver function: two times elevated AST/ALT or unexplained right upper quadrant pain or epigastric pain unresponsive to medications
Pulmonary oedema
Cerebral or visual symptoms: headache, visual disturbances
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 179
Incorrect
-
Which term among the following is used for the proportion of a particular disease that would be eradicated from a population if the rate of disease were to be reduced to that of the group that has not been exposed to it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Attributable proportion
Explanation:The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it. It involves the measure of association that is pertinent to making decisions for the individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 180
Incorrect
-
Which is correct about normal distribution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median
Explanation:The normal distribution is a symmetrical, bell-shaped distribution in which the mean, median and mode are all equal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
A 45-year old male who was involved in a road traffic accident has had to receive a large blood transfusion of whole blood which is two weeks old. Which of these best describes the oxygen carrying capacity of this blood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It will have an increased affinity for oxygen
Explanation:With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right
Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperatureBohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl complains of right iliac fossa pain, and a provisional diagnosis of appendicitis is made.
Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the appendix?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midgut
Explanation:The midgut gives rise to the appendix.
At week 6, the caecal diverticulum appears and is the precursor for the cecum and vermiform appendix. The cecum and appendix undergo rotation and descend into the right lower abdomen. The appendix can take up various positions:
1. Retrocecal appendix: behind the cecum
2. Retrocolic appendix: behind the ascending colon
3. Pelvic appendix: appendix descends into the pelvisThe appendix grows in length so that at birth, it is long and worm-shaped, or vermiform. After birth, the caecal wall grows unequally, and the appendix comes to lie on its medial side.
The midgut develops into the distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.
Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.
Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 ml
Explanation:Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.
The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 185
Incorrect
-
All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Requires dose adjustment in renal disease
Explanation:Therapy with gabapentin requires dose adjustment with renal diseases. However, plasma monitoring of the drug is not necessary.
Gabapentin is not a liver enzyme inducer unlike other anticonvulsants like phenytoin and phenobarbitone
Gabapentin has not been shown to be associated with visual disturbances.
Gabapentin is used for add-on therapy in partial or generalized seizures and used in the management of chronic pain conditions but is of no use in petit mal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down attached to a monitor. He is hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/70mmHg and he is also tachycardic with a pulse of 120 beats/minute. After adjusting the bed with the patient's legs raised by 45 degrees, you reassess the blood pressure after 1 minute and his blood pressure has increased to 100/75mmHg. You then prescribe IV fluids and ask for 500ml of normal saline to be given intravenously over 15 minutes. The increase in the blood pressure can be explained by which physiological association?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venous return is proportional to stroke volume
Explanation:A passive leg raise can lead to transient increases in blood pressure and stroke volume as it increased the amount of venous return to the heart. Venous return increases in this situation as it transfers a larger volume of blood from the lower limbs to the right heart. It therefore mimics a fluid challenge. However its effects are short lasting and often lead to minimal increases in blood pressure. It therefore should not be used to treat shock in isolation. The passive leg raise is useful in determining the likelihood that a patient with shock will respond to fluid resuscitation.
Stroke volume (via a cardiac monitor) and/or pulse pressure (via an arterial line) should be measured to assess the effects of a passive leg raise. An increase in stroke volume by 9% or in pulse pressure by 10% are considered indicative of fluid responsiveness.
Blood that enters the ventricles during diastole causes stretching of sarcomeres within cardiac muscle. The extent to which they stretch is proportional to the strength of ventricular muscle contraction. Therefore, the venous return (amount of blood returned to the heart) is proportional to stroke volume. The end diastolic volume is determined by venous return and is also proportional to stroke volume.
Cardiac muscle contraction strength is dependent on the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline, but these hormones contribute to cardiac contractility, not to stroke volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 187
Incorrect
-
A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow, laboured breathing. A relative reported that he's maintained on codeine 60 mg, taken orally every 6 hours for severe pain from oesophageal cancer. His creatinine was elevated, and glomerular filtration rate was severely decreased at 27 ml/minute.
Given the scenario above, which of the metabolites of codeine is the culprit for his clinical findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine-6-glucuronide
Explanation:Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.
The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 188
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis
Explanation:Ligamentum venosum is an anterior relation of the liver: The ligamentum venosum, the fibrous remnant of the ductus venosus of the fetal circulation, lies posterior to the liver. It lies in the fossa for ductus venosus that separates the caudate lobe and the left lobe of the liver.
The portal triad contains three important tubes: 1. Proper hepatic artery 2. Hepatic portal vein 3. Bile ductules It also contains lymphatic vessels and a branch of the vagus nerve.
The bare area of the liver is a large triangular area that is devoid of any peritoneal covering. The bare area is attached directly to the diaphragm by loose connective tissue. This nonperitoneal area is created by a wide separation between the coronary ligaments.
The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures (except the hepatic veins) and hepatic ducts enter or leave the liver via the porta hepatis. It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve. The caudate lobe (segment I) lies in the lesser sac on the inferior surface of the liver between the IVC on the right, the ligamentum venosum on the left, and the porta hepatis in front
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
The following statements are about the cervical plexus. Which one is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve block is a complication of a cervical plexus block
Explanation:The cervical plexus is a complex network of nerves within the head and neck region, providing nerve innervation to regions within the head, neck and trunk.
It is comprised of nerves arising from the anterior primary rami of the C1-C4 nerve roots.
The cervical plexus gives off superficial and deep branches. The superficial branches penetrate through the deep fascia at the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. It provides sensory innervation from the lower border of the mandible to the 2nd rib. The deep branches provide motor innervation to the neck and diaphragmatic muscles.
Cervical plexus block is surgically relevant as it is used to provide regional anaesthesia for procedures in the neck region. The anaesthesia should be injected into the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. Complications arise when anaesthesia is instead injected into the wrong point, including into the vertebral artery, subarachnoid and epidural spaces, blockade of phrenic and recurrent laryngeal nerves, and the cervical sympathetic plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 190
Incorrect
-
All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Starvation
Explanation:Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.
Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.
Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.
If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
It is not catabolised during starvation.
Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.Causes of low albumin are
1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
4. Increased catabolism (very rare) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 191
Incorrect
-
Lisa is a 75-year-old female rushed into the emergency department by first-aid responders. The ambulance team give a history of vomiting, homonymous hemianopia, weakness of the left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia. Lisa adds that she has a headache that keeps worsening.
Lisa takes Warfarin as she is a known case of atrial fibrillation. Her INR is 4.3 despite the ideal target being 2-3.
CT scan of the head suggests anterior cerebral artery haemorrhage.
What areas of the brain are affected by an anterior cerebral artery stroke?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The anterior cerebral artery supplies the midline portion of the frontal lobe and the superior medial parietal lobe of the brain. It also supplies the front four-fifths of the corpus callosum and provides blood to deep structures such as the anterior limb of the internal capsule, part of the caudate nucleus, and the anterior part of the globus pallidus.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries.
Clinically, the internal carotid arteries and their branches are often referred to as the anterior circulation of the brain. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected by the anterior communicating artery. Near their termination, the internal carotid arteries are joined to the posterior cerebral arteries by the posterior communicating arteries, completing the cerebral arterial circle around the interpeduncular fossa, the deep depression on the inferior surface of the midbrain between the cerebral peduncles.
The middle cerebral artery supplies part of the frontal, temporal and parietal lobes.
The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase
Explanation:Bilirubin is formed by metabolizing heme, mostly from haemoglobin in red blood cells.
Bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocytes by the glucuronyl transferase enzyme in order to enable it to become soluble and allow for its secretion across the canalicular membrane and into bile.
The conjugation process is increased by rifampicin and decreased by valproate.
Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a decrease in glucuronyl transferase in the hepatic system, decreasing the transport of bilirubin into the hepatocyte, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.
Crigler-Najjer syndrome is caused by mutations in the genes responsible for hepatic glucuronyl transferase, decreasing the activity of the enzyme, meaning bilirubin cannot be conjugated, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.
Dubin-Johnson syndrome does not cause an impairment in the conjugation of bilirubin, but it blocks the transport of bilirubin out of the hepatocyte resulting in conjugated bilirubinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 193
Incorrect
-
Which of the following anaesthetic agents is most suitable for inhalational induction in an 8-year-old child for inhalational induction of anaesthesia before routine surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sevoflurane at 4%
Explanation:The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.
Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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Provided below is an abstract of a study conducted recently.
A consensus was developed among international experts. A total of 27 experts were invited. 91% of them decided to show up. A systematic review was performed. This comprised of open ended questions and the participants were encouraged to provide suggestions by e-mail. In the second phase google forms were used. Participants were asked to rate survey items on a scale of 5 points. Items that were rated critical by no less than 80% of the experts were included. Items that were rendered important by 65-79% of experts were inducted in the next survey for re rating. Items that were rated below 65% were rejected.
Which of the following methods was used in the study from which the abstract has been taken?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Delphi method
Explanation:The process used in the study is Delphi method. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round.
Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 195
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about an acute pulmonary embolism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombolysis administered through a peripheral vein is as effective as through a pulmonary artery catheter
Explanation:Acute pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot becomes embedded in a pulmonary artery and restricts lung blood flow.
Thrombolysis is recommended in patients with extremely compromised circulation rather than reduced oxygen in the blood. It is effective when administered via a peripheral vein or a pulmonary artery catheter.
Anticoagulant therapy (heparin use) decreases the risk of further embolic evens and decreases constriction of pulmonary vessels.
An ECG may be normal in patients with an acute pulmonary embolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes.
Which pair is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glutamic acid decarboxylase and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Explanation:Glutamic acid decarboxylase is responsible for the catalyses of glutamate to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Catechol-o-methyl transferase catalyses the degradation and inactivation of dopamine into 3-methoxytyramine, epinephrine into metanephrine, and norepinephrine into normetanephrine and vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA).
Monoamine oxidase catalyses the oxidation of norepinephrine to vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA) and serotonin to 5-hydeoxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA).
Cholinesterase functions to catalyse the split of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.
Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.
The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.
However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 198
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin
Explanation:Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.
Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the examination. He is a known case of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis. Suspecting mesenteric ischemia, he was thoroughly investigated, and a mesenteric angiography shows ischemia of the left colic flexure.
Which artery gives off branches that supply this region directly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)
Explanation:Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening, especially if the small intestine is involved.
The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery to supply the following:
– distal 1/3 of the transverse colon
– descending colonAt approximately the left colic flexure (splenic flexure), a transition occurs in the blood supply of the GI tract. The SMA supplies the proximal part to the flexure, and the IMA supplies the part distal to the flexure. This is why the left colic flexure is a watershed area and is prone to ischemia exacerbated by atherosclerotic changes or hypotension. The dominant arterial supply of the splenic flexure is usually from the left colic artery, but it may also get collaterals from the left branch of the middle colic artery.
The AMA and PMA do not exist.
The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and has branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas.
The proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to aspirin after a myocardial infraction. The recorded results give us the percentage of patients that reported myocardial infraction within a three month period. The percentage was 4% and 3% for aspirin and the combination of drugs respectively.
How many further patients needed to be treated in order for one patient to avoid any more heart attacks during 3 months?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (0.04-0.03)
ARR= 0.01
NNT= 1/0.01
NNT=100
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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