The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).

MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as

Desflurane 18 6
Isoflurane 90 1.2
Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
Sevoflurane 53.4 2
Xenon 1.9 71

With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2

The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.

Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.

The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:

Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma correct.

Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines)
Minimal systolic pressure changes
Anxiety, fright or hostility
Can usually be stabilised by crystalloid, but may later require a blood transfusion.

Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state in which at least crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
Classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.

Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale
Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.

Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.

The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).

Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.

Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O

The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.

Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.

The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.

The popliteal fossa is the shallow, diamond-shaped depression located in the back of the knee joint.

The structures that lie within in from superficial to deep are:

The tibial and common fibular nerve: Most superficial. They arise from the sciatic nerve.
The popliteal vein
The popliteal artery: Lies deepest. It arises from the femoral artery

Boundaries of the popliteal fossa:

Laterally
Biceps femoris above, lateral head of gastrocnemius and plantaris below

Medially
Semimembranosus and semitendinosus above, medial head of gastrocnemius below

Floor
Popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of knee joint and popliteus muscle

Roof
Superficial and deep fascia

The arterial cannula inserted should have parallel walls in order to reduce the risk of interruption of blood flow to distal limbs.

It is essential that the monitor used to display the arterial pressure waves has a frequency capacity of 0.5-40Hz. This is because the pressure waves are a combination of different sine waves of varying frequencies and amplitudes.

The diameter of the catheter is directly proportional to the natural frequency which is the frequency at which the system responsible for monitoring the waves resonates and amplifies the signals. This should be at least ten fold in comparison to the fundamental frequency. The diameter of the catheter is also inversely proportional to the square root of the system compliance, the tubing length and the fluid density within the system.

The presence of an air bubble, a clot or an easily malleable diaphragm and tube can result in wave damping. Increased damping will cause a reduction in the systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure. The maximum damping value of an appropriate monitoring system would be 0.64.

A rigid, non-malleable diaphragm and tubing can cause a resonance within the system. This resonance will result in an increase in the systolic pressure and a reduction in the diastolic pressure

Cardiac conduction

Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.

1st Phase:

Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.

Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.

N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.

Phase II:

Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.

Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.

As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.

The subclavian artery lies behind and partly above the subclavian vein. 3-4% of the time, it can be inadvertently cannulated during cannulation of the subclavian vein

Because of its anatomical position, putting pressure on the subclavian artery is impossible so arresting bleeding with pressure when it is punctured is not viable.

One of the consequences of subclavian vein cannulation (1%) is pleural puncture leading to a pneumothorax. This is because the apical pleura is inferior and caudal to the subclavian vein.

There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.

Current Effect
1 mA Tingling
5 mA Pain
15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
50 mA Respiratory arrest
100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.

The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.

Refractometers measure the degree to which the light changes direction, called the angle of refraction. A refractometer takes the refraction angles and correlates them to refractive index (nD) values that have been established. Using these values, you can determine the concentrations of solutions.

Central cord syndrome is the most commonly occurring type of partial spinal cord lesion. It is more likely to occur in older patients with cervical spondylosis and a hyperextension injury. The injury to the spinal cord occurs in the grey matter causing the following symptoms:

Disproportionally higher motor function weakness in the upper limbs than in lower limbs
Dysfunction of the bladder
Degrees of sensory loss below the level of the lesion

An anterior spinal artery infarction will interrupt the corticospinal tract resulting in paralysis of motor function, loss of pain and temperature sensation, all occurring below the level of the injury.

Brown-Sequard syndrome occurs as a result of the hemisection of the spinal cord. Its symptoms include ipsilateral upper motor neurone paralysis and loss of proprioception, with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation.

Spinal cord infarctions rarely occur in the posterior spinal artery.

Cauda equina syndrome occurs as a result of compression of the lumbosacral spinal nerve roots below the level of the conus medullaris. Injury to these nerves will cause partial or complete loss of movement and sensation in this distribution.

The most likely of the differential diagnosis in this case is a duodenal ulcer located on the posterior abdominal wall.

These can cause an erosion of the abdominal wall, eventually affecting the gastroduodenal artery and resulting in major bleeding and haematemesis.

Gastroduodenal artery supplies the pylorus, proximal part of the duodenum, and indirectly to the pancreatic head (via the anterior and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries)

Arrhythmias and/or hypotension are the most common causes of death from tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose.

The quinidine-like actions of tricyclic antidepressants on cardiac tissues are primarily responsible for their toxicity. Conduction through the His-Purkinje system and the myocardium slows as phase 0 depolarisation of the action potential slows. QRS prolongation and atrioventricular block are caused by slowed impulse conduction, which also contributes to ventricular arrhythmias and hypotension.

Arrhythmias can also be caused by abnormal repolarization, impaired automaticity, cholinergic blockade, and inhibition of neuronal catecholamine uptake, among other things.

Acidaemia, hypotension, and hyperthermia can all exacerbate toxicity.

The anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants, as well as the blockade of neuronal catecholamine reuptake, cause sinus tachycardia. Sinus tachycardia is usually well tolerated and does not require treatment. It can be difficult to tell the difference between sinus tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia with QRS prolongation.

A QRS duration of more than 100 milliseconds indicates a higher risk of arrhythmia and should be treated with systemic sodium bicarbonate.

The tricyclic is dissociated from myocardial sodium channels by serum alkalinization, and the extracellular sodium load improves sodium channel function.

The internal jugular vein is found on both sides of the neck and collects blood from the brain, superficial regions of the face, and neck. It drains into the right atrium.

It is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and begins in the posterior cranial fossa and exits the skull via the jugular foramen.
It runs within the carotid sheath as it descends in the neck and is accompanied by the vagus nerve posteriorly and the common carotid anteromedially.

The hypoglossal nerve emerges from the hypoglossal canal medial to the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein and ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves.

The internal jugular vein crosses anterior to the thoracic duct on the left side.

The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

T12 – Coeliac trunk

L1 – Left renal artery

L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

The prostate gland is primarily supplied by the inferior vesical artery, which branches off from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. The inferior vesical artery supplies the base of the bladder, the distal ureters, and the prostate. The branches to the prostate communicate with the corresponding vessels of the opposite side.

The inferior vesical artery branches into two main arteries:
1. Urethral artery – supplies the transition zone and is the main arterial supply for the adenomas in BPH
2. Capsular artery – supplies the glandular tissue

The venous drainage of the prostate is from the prostatic venous plexus, which drains into the paravertebral veins.

Ligamentum venosum is an anterior relation of the liver: The ligamentum venosum, the fibrous remnant of the ductus venosus of the fetal circulation, lies posterior to the liver. It lies in the fossa for ductus venosus that separates the caudate lobe and the left lobe of the liver.

The portal triad contains three important tubes: 1. Proper hepatic artery 2. Hepatic portal vein 3. Bile ductules It also contains lymphatic vessels and a branch of the vagus nerve.

The bare area of the liver is a large triangular area that is devoid of any peritoneal covering. The bare area is attached directly to the diaphragm by loose connective tissue. This nonperitoneal area is created by a wide separation between the coronary ligaments.

The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures (except the hepatic veins) and hepatic ducts enter or leave the liver via the porta hepatis. It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve. The caudate lobe (segment I) lies in the lesser sac on the inferior surface of the liver between the IVC on the right, the ligamentum venosum on the left, and the porta hepatis in front

In anaesthesia, adductor pollicis neuromuscular monitoring with ulnar nerve stimulation is commonly used. It is the gold standard for measuring the degree of block and comparing neuromuscular blocking drugs and their effects on other muscles.

Electrodes are usually placed over the ulnar nerve at the wrist to monitor the adductor pollicis.

Neuromuscular blocking drugs have different sensitivity levels in different muscle groups.

To achieve the same level of blockade, the diaphragm requires 1.4 to 2 times the amount of neuromuscular blocking agent as the adductor pollicis muscle. The small muscles of the larynx and the ocular muscles are two other respiratory muscles that are less resistant than the diaphragm (especially corrugator supercilii).

The abdominal muscles, Orbicularis oculi, peripheral muscles of the limbs, Geniohyoid, Masseter, and Upper airway muscles are the most sensitive to neuromuscular blocking agents.

The C8-T1 nerve roots, which are part of the medial cord of the brachial plexus, form the ulnar nerve. It enters the hand via the ulnar canal, superficial to the flexor retinaculum, after following the ulnar artery at the wrist.

The nerve then splits into two branches: superficial and deep. The palmaris brevis is supplied by the superficial branch, which also provides palmar digital nerves to one and a half fingers. The dorsal surface of the medial/ulnar 1.5 fingers, as well as the corresponding skin over the hand, are also supplied by it (as well as the palmar surface).

The ulnar nerve’s deep branch runs between the abductor and flexor digiti minimi, which it supplies. It also innervates the opponens, and with the deep palmar arch, it curves around the hook of the hamate and laterally across the palm. All of the interossei, the medial two lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and, in most cases, the flexor pollicis brevis are supplied there.

The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.

Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.

0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
Tonicity – hypertonic
Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 107

0.9% N. Saline:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

5% Dextrose:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 170

Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

Hartmann’s solution:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 9

Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.

In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.

A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.

L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.

Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol.

Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).

All of the other connections are non-linear.

For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.

A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.

A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.

The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.

Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.

Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place

Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
FEV1/FVC ratio
Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.

Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.

Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)

It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation

Funnel plot is essentially a scatterplot of the effect of treatment against a particular measure of study precision. Its primal purpose is to serve as a visual aid and help in detection of bias or systematic heterogenity.

This scenario describes rebreathing management.

Changes is exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit deadspace is the most likely explanation for the capnograph.

It is important that the soda lime canister is inspected for a change in colour of the granules. Initially fresh gas flow should be increased and then if necessary, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies include changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister after the fresh gas flow is increased.

Any other causes of increased equipment deadspace should be excluded.

Intraoperative hypercarbia can be caused by:

1. Hypoventilation – Breathing spontaneously; drugs which include anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual neuromuscular blockade, pre-existing respiratory or neuromuscular disease and cerebrovascular accident.
2. Controlled ventilation- circuit leaks, disconnection, miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
3. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits, increased breathing system deadspace.
4. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
5. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 absorption from the pneumoperitoneum.

This data is in a 2 × 2 contingency table so a chi square test can be used. There is a special chi squared formula that gives a value that can be looked up in a table giving the p value.

Since we are comparing proportions not means, the Student’s t test CANNOT be used.

There is no linear regression to plot so Pearson’s co-efficient cannot be calculated.

Nothing is so obvious that no statistical analysis is needed.

The level of statistical significance required influences the sample size used. This is because sample size is used in the calculation of SD/SE.

Sample size does not affect

The level of acceptance
The alternative hypothesis with a general level set at p<0.05
The test to be used.

Experience of the investigator and the type of patient recruited should have no bearing on the required sample size.

Detsky’s Modified cardiac risk classification system in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery:

Age more than 70: 05 points

History of myocardial infarction:

Less than 6 months: 10 points
More than 6 months: 5 points

Angina Pectoris:

Angina with minimal exertion: 10 points

Angina at any level of exertion: 20 points

Pulmonary Oedema:

Within 7 days: 10 points
At any time: 5 points

Suspected aortic valve stenosis with valve area <0.6cm2: 20 points Arrhythmia: Any rhythm other than sinus or sinus with premature atrial complexes (PACs): 5 points More than 5 premature ventricular contractions: 5 points
Emergency Surgery: 10 points
Deficient general medical condition: 5 points

Risk classification:

Grade I: 0-15 points = low risk
Grade II: 15-30 points = moderate risk
Grade III: >30 points = high risk

Femoral nerve lesion (L2,L3 and L4) is characterised by weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle. This results in weakness of extension of the knee, loss of sensation over the front of the thigh, and loss of the knee jerk reflex.

The skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, and the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L1,2).

The adductors of the hip are supplied by the obturator nerve (L2-4). This nerve also supplies sensation to the inner thigh.

Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:

C = C0·e-kt

Where:

C = drug concentration
C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
k = Rate constant
t = Time

Enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.

Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.

The hypothalamus is primarily responsible for the regulation of the basal metabolic rate. It releases thyrotropin releasing hormones (TRH) in response to low levels of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). The TRH acts on the pituitary gland to release thyroid stimulating hormone, which will stimulate the thyroid gland to synthesize more T3 and T4.

Basal metabolic rate refers to the energy expended by an individual in a resting, post-absorptive state. It represents the energy required to carry out normal body functions, such as respiration.

External carotid artery originates at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage. It ascends and lies anterior to the internal carotid arteries and posterior to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle.

The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
Anterior surface:
1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
2. Lingual artery
3. Facial artery
Medial branch
4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
Posterior branches
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
Terminal branches
7. Maxillary artery
8. Superficial temporal artery

Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).

Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.

The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).

Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.

It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.

Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.

The relationship between bacterial growth and time is a tear-away exponential. The mathematical relationship between y and x in this case is:

y = ex

Where: the power is x, and the base is e.

Euler’s number (e) is a mathematical constant that is the base for all logarithms occurring naturally. Its value is 2.718.

The statement X increasing with an increase in Y is proportional to Y refers to the change in y in terms of x when considering any exponential relationship.

This is not a build-up exponential, and that is mathematically stated as y = 1-e-kt.

The negative x axis being a horizontal asymptote and the y intercept being 0, 1 are examples of tearaway exponentials , but do not describe an exponential process.

This patient’s limited haematological profile includes mild normocytic anaemia and a normal platelet count.

Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anaemia during pregnancy. It affects 75 to 95 percent of patients. A haemoglobin level of less than 110 g/L in the first trimester and less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters is considered anaemia. There will usually be a low mean cell volume (MCV), mean cell haemoglobin (MCH), and mean cell haemoglobin concentration in addition to a low haemoglobin (MCHC). The MCV may be normal in mild cases of iron deficiency or coexisting vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.

To determine whether you have an iron deficiency, you’ll need to take more tests. Low serum ferritin (15 g/L) and less reliable indices like serum iron and total iron binding capacity are among them.

A number of factors contribute to iron deficiency in pregnancy, including:

Insufficient dietary iron to meet the mother’s and foetus’ nutritional needs
Multiple pregnancies
Blood loss, as well as
Absorption of iron from the gut is reduced.

The volume of plasma increases by about 50% during pregnancy, but the mass of red blood cells (RBCs) increases by only 30%. Dilutional anaemia is the result of this situation. From the first trimester to delivery, the RBC mass increases linearly, while the plasma volume plateaus, stabilises, or falls slightly near term. As a result, between 28 and 34 weeks of pregnancy, haemoglobin concentrations are at their lowest. The effects of haemodilution will be negated in this patient because she is 37 weeks pregnant.

Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency are less common causes of anaemia in pregnancy. The diagnosis could be ruled out if the MVC is normal.

During pregnancy, the platelet count drops, especially in the third trimester. Gestational thrombocytopenia is the medical term for this condition. It’s due to a combination of factors, including haemodilution and increased platelet activation and clearance. Pre-eclampsia and HELLP syndrome are common causes of thrombocytopenia. Pre-eclampsia isn’t the only cause of anaemia during pregnancy.

A typical blood picture of a haemoglobinopathy like sickle cell disease shows quantitative and qualitative defects, with the former leading to a severe anaemia exacerbated by haemodilution and other factors that contribute to iron deficiency. Microcytic cells are the most common type.

The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.

The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:

suxamethonium: 0.27
rocuronium: 0.31
vecuronium: 0.04
pancuronium: 0.07
cisatracurium: 0.04
mivacurium: 0.08

The Drager Oxylog® 1000 is a pneumatically powered, time-dependent, volume-titrated emergency ventilator with a pressure limit. It is compatible with CD cylinder oxygen. The CD cylinder is a strong and lightweight cylinder usually composed of aluminium or Kevlar. The internal cylinder volume is 2 litres, and the pressure of a full cylinder is 230 bar. The volume of the full cylinder is determined by applying Boyle’s law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2

Where:
P1= pressure of a full cylinder (230 bar)
V1= volume of oxygen at that pressure (2 litres)
P2= final pressure (1 bar), and
V2= volume of oxygen in the full cylinder.

Substituting values into the equation:

230 × 2 = 1 x V2
V2 = 460 litres. The flow of fresh gas is 4 litres/minute + 1 litre/minute required by the control, making a total of 5 litres/minute. The amount of time it takes for the cylinder to empty would be the total volume of oxygen in the full cylinder divided by the amount of oxygen expelled per minute: 460/5 = 92, meaning it would take 92 minutes for the cylinder to empty.

Randomisation can be used to provide control over the confounding variables during the design stage of a study however during analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. Since the question asks for the information that is factually incorrect.

The left atrium is supplied by the left coronary artery and its major branch the left circumflex.

The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

The right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending artery

The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.

Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

The most likely diagnosis is a spinal epidural haematoma, a neurological emergency. A full examination must be carried out to determine the nature of the neurological problem before conducting any investigations or imaging.

The effects of spinal anaesthesia should have worn off by this time point, and the severe back pain is a red flag.

The patient will also require an urgent neurological team referral as a spinal epidural haematoma requires immediate evacuation for spinal decompression. Analgesics may be prescribed for pain management.

Heparin would have been fully metabolised and so a reversal is unnecessary.

A spinal epidural haematoma is a pooling of blood in the epidural space, which can cause compression of the spinal cord. Its presenting symptoms are:

Usually begins with severe backpain and percussion tenderness
Cauda equina syndrome
Paralysis of the lower extremities.
If infected, a fever occurs in 66% of cases
Lower limb weakness developing after stopping an epidural infusion or weakness of the lower limbs which does not resolve within four hours of cessation of infusion of epidural local anaesthetic
Meningism.

A beta-1 adrenoreceptor agonist is most likely the ligand that causes increased automaticity, increased chronotropy, increased excitability, and increased inotropy on the sino-atrial node. However, alpha-1 adrenoreceptor effects may cause an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and ephedrine are examples of drugs with mixed alpha and beta effects.

Adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine, dopexamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, and isoprenaline are examples of drugs that have some beta-1 activity. The beta-1 receptor is a G protein-coupled metabotropic receptor. When the beta-1 agonist binds to the cell surface membrane, it causes a conformational change in the Gs unit, which triggers a cAMP-dependent pathway and a calcium influx into the cell.

Catecholamines also help to relax the heart muscle (positive lusitropy). Dromotropy is the ability to increase the atrioventricular (AV) node’s conduction velocity.

Inodilators cause an increase in intracellular calcium as a result of phosphodiesterase III (PDIII) inhibition. Milrinone, enoximone, and amrinone are some examples. Positive inotropy is caused by increased calcium entry into the myocytes. Lusitropy is also increased by phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increased cAMP inhibits myosin light chain kinase, resulting in reduced phosphorylation of vascular smooth muscle myosin, lowering systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.

The mechanism of action of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonists is an increase in intracellular calcium caused by an increase in inositol triphosphate (IP3). IP3 is a second messenger that causes an increase in systemic vascular resistance by stimulating the influx of Ca2+ into smooth muscle cells. Reflex bradycardia can occur as a result of the subsequent increase in blood pressure. Phenylephrine and metaraminol are examples of pure alpha-1 agonists.

Levosimendin is a novel inotrope that makes myocytes more sensitive to intracellular Ca2+. It causes a positive inotropy without changing heart rate or oxygen consumption significantly.

The Na-K-ATPase membrane pump in the myocardium is inhibited by digoxin. This inhibition promotes sodium-calcium exchange, resulting in an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased contraction force. The parasympathetic effects of digoxin on the AV node result in bradycardia. Systemic vascular resistance will not be affected by it.

The anterior cerebral artery supplies the midline portion of the frontal lobe and the superior medial parietal lobe of the brain. It also supplies the front four-fifths of the corpus callosum and provides blood to deep structures such as the anterior limb of the internal capsule, part of the caudate nucleus, and the anterior part of the globus pallidus.

The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries.

Clinically, the internal carotid arteries and their branches are often referred to as the anterior circulation of the brain. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected by the anterior communicating artery. Near their termination, the internal carotid arteries are joined to the posterior cerebral arteries by the posterior communicating arteries, completing the cerebral arterial circle around the interpeduncular fossa, the deep depression on the inferior surface of the midbrain between the cerebral peduncles.

The middle cerebral artery supplies part of the frontal, temporal and parietal lobes.

The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe.

The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone into the cranial cavity. It does NOT groove the sphenoid bone.

The internal carotid artery gives off no branches in the neck and is a terminal branch of the common carotid artery.

These structures pass between the external and internal carotid arteries: the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus.

Accompanied by its sympathetic plexus, the internal carotid artery, passes through the cavernous sinus and is crossed by the abducent nerve.

The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.

Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Adductor longus
Lateral: Sartorius
Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineus

The contents include: (medial to lateral)
Femoral vein
Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
Femoral nerve
Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Lateral cutaneous nerve
Great saphenous vein
Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and acts to increase sodium reabsorption via intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron.

Its release is stimulated by hypovolaemia, blood loss ,and low plasma sodium and is inhibited by hypertension and increased sodium. It is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.

Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate)

Experimental event rate = 24 / 120 = 0.2

Control event rate = 60 / 240 = 0.25

Absolute risk reduction = 0.25 – 0.2 = 0.05 = 5% reduction

Tachyphylaxis is the swiftly declining response to successive drug doses which vastly reduces its effectiveness in a short space of time, mostly as a result of an acute consumption of neurotransmitters.

Tolerance or desensitisation is the slow decline in a person’s reaction to a drug due to continued use. It requires a longer time span than tachyphylaxis, usually over days or weeks.

Down- regulation is a reduction in the amount of receptors available on target cells which decreases the affinity of the agent to the cells. For this to occur, the down-regulation of receptors must occur at a rate faster than receptor synthesis. This down-regulation often occurs with beta1 receptors due to:

1) The transportation or receptors from the cell surface to the interior of the cell

2) Degradation of receptors occurring over time.

In this case, dobutamine is prescribed to treat cardiogenic shock. It is able to function by binding to beta1-adrenergic receptors to increase the contraction of the heart, thereby improving cardiac output. It also binds to beta2- and alpha1-adrenergic receptors to balance out the effects produced by binding to beta1 receptors and reduce the risk of system vasculature responses.

Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.

There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.

In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.

In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.

Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.

The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.

The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricle

The anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.

Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume

The midgut gives rise to the appendix.
At week 6, the caecal diverticulum appears and is the precursor for the cecum and vermiform appendix. The cecum and appendix undergo rotation and descend into the right lower abdomen. The appendix can take up various positions:
1. Retrocecal appendix: behind the cecum
2. Retrocolic appendix: behind the ascending colon
3. Pelvic appendix: appendix descends into the pelvis

The appendix grows in length so that at birth, it is long and worm-shaped, or vermiform. After birth, the caecal wall grows unequally, and the appendix comes to lie on its medial side.

The midgut develops into the distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon.

The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.

It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).

It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).

Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.

Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.

E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases.

Paediatric life support differs from adult life support in that hypoxia is the primary cause of deterioration.

After checking for danger, the child should be given a gentle stimulus (such as holding the head and shaking the arm) and asked, Are you alright? according to current advanced paediatric life support (APLS) guidelines. Safety, Stimulate, Shout is a phrase that is frequently remembered. Any airway assessment should be preceded by these actions.

Although the algorithm includes five rescue breaths, they are performed after the airway assessment.

It is not recommended to ask parents to leave unless they are obstructing the resuscitation. A team member should be with them at all times to explain what is going on and answer any questions they may have.

CPR should not begin until the child has been properly assessed and rescue breaths have been administered.

The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.

This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.

The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.

Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.

Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressing

In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

Use of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

The functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration. It is determined by opposing forces of the expanding chest wall and the elastic recoil of the lung. A normal FRC = 1.7 to 3.5 L. It a marker for lung function, and, during this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.

FRC cannot be measured by spirometry because it contains the residual volume.

Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and vital capacity can be measured directly.

Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve.

The general somatic sensation of the anterior two-third of the tongue is supplied by the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve.

Both general somatic sensation and taste from the posterior third of the tongue are carried by the glossopharyngeal nerve.

All the muscles of the tongue except palatoglossus are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve whereas palatoglossus is supplied by the vagus nerve. (This is because palatoglossus is the only tongue muscle derived from the fourth branchial arch)

Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

99.7% of the values within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. For a 95% confidence interval, Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 to get the interval.

Propofol infusion syndrome is a rare but extremely dangerous complication of propofol administration

Common organ systems affected by PRIS include the following:
1. cardiovascular
widening of QRS complex, Brugada syndrome-like patterns (particularly type 1), ventricular tachyarrhythmias, cardiogenic shock, and asystole

2. hepatic
Liver enzymes elevation, hepatomegaly, and steatosis

3. skeletal muscular
myopathy and overt rhabdomyolysis

4. renal
Hyperkalaemia, acute kidney injury

5. metabolic
High anion gap metabolic acidosis (due to elevation in lactic acid)

The deep inguinal ring lies approximately 1.5-2cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle, next to the epigastric vessels.

It is an important point in determining the nature of an inguinal hernia (direct or indirect). The patient is asked to cough after the hernia is reduced, with pressure applied to the deep inguinal ring. The hernia reappearing indicates it is direct, moving through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

Inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle is the normal anatomical position of the neck of a femoral hernia.

Superior and medial to the pubic tubercle is the site of the superficial inguinal ring, and the normal anatomical position of the neck of an inguinal hernia.

The mid-inguinal point is located halways between the pubic symphysis and the anterior superior iliac spine. It is the surface marking for taking the femoral pulse.

The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.

Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.

Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).

Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.

Observers may subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favours the expected study outcome. Therefore, by blinding the study we can eliminate expectation bias.

Recall bias is a systematic error that occurs when the study participants omit details or do not remember previous events or experiences accurately.

Verification can occur during investigations when there is a difference in testing strategy between groups of individuals, which might lead to biasness due to differing ways of verifying the disease of interest.

Nonresponse bias is the bias that occurs when the people who respond to a survey differ significantly from the people who do not respond to the survey.

A distortion that modifies an association between an exposure and an outcome because a factor is independently associated with the exposure and the outcome. Randomization is the best way to reduce the risk of confounding.

The ascending cervical artery lies media the phrenic nerve on scalenus anterior and can easily be mistaken for the phrenic nerve at operation.

The phrenic nerve passes across scalenus anterior and medius inferiorly.

The subclavian artery is separated from the vein by the scalenus anterior.

The brachiocephalic vein is formed at the medial border of scalenus anterior by the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.

Emerging from the lateral border of scalenus anterior are the trunks of the brachial plexus .

Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.

The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of the ultrafiltration barrier in the choroid plexus and the barrier around cerebral capillaries. The barrier is made by endothelial cells which line the interior of all blood vessels. In the capillaries that form the blood–brain barrier, endothelial cells are wedged extremely close to each other, forming so-called tight junctions.

Outside of the BBB lies the hypothalamus, third and fourth ventricles and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the BBB freely but glucose is controlled. The ability of chemicals to cross the barrier is proportional to their lipid solubility, not their water solubility. It’s ability to cross is inversely proportional to their molecular size and charge.

In neonates, the BBB is less effective than in adults. This is why there is increased passage of opioids and bile salts (kernicterus) into the neonatal brain.

In meningitis, the effectiveness and permeability of the BBB is affected, and as a result, this effect helps the passage of antibiotics which would otherwise not normally be able to cross.

In the neonatal stage, the tongue is usually large and comes to the normal size at the age of 1 year. The vocal cords lie inverse C4 and as it reaches the grown-up position inverse C5/6 by the age of 4 (not 1 year).

Due to the immature cricoid cartilage, the larynx lies more anterior in newborn children. That’s why the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the paediatric respiratory tract, while in the adults the tightest portion of the respiratory route is vocal cords. The epiglottis is generally expansive and slants at a point of 45 degrees to the laryngeal opening.

The carina is the ridge of the cartilage in the trachea at the level of T2 in newborn (T4 in adults), that separates the openings of right and left main bronchi.

Neonates have a comparatively low number of alveoli and then this number gradually increases to a most extreme by the age of 8 (not 3 years).

Neonates are obligatory nose breathers and any hindrance can cause respiratory issues (e.g., choanal atresia).

With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperature

Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature

An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.

An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.

A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.

The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.

The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)

Management is supportive ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs

Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80–100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.

Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.

Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.

The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.

Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.

There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum.

When a drug is given via intravenous infusion, the plasma concentration rises exponentially as a wash-in curve until it reaches steady-state concentration (the point at which the infusion rate is balanced by the elimination rate or clearance). To reach this steady state, the drug will take 4-5 half-lives.

Cpss (target plasma concentration at steady state) and clearance (CL) in ml/minute or litre/hour are the two factors that determine the infusion rate or dose (ID) in mg/hour of a drug.

ID = Cpss × CL

We know the infusion rate is 20 ml/hour in this case. The drug’s concentration is 5 mg/mL. The patient is receiving 100 mg of the drug per hour, with a 20 L/hour clearance rate.

ID = Cpss × 20

Therefore,

Cpss = 100 mg/20000 ml

Cpss = 0.005 mg/mL or 5 mcg/mL

The patient is rebreathing carbon dioxide that has been exhaled.

Exhaustion of the soda lime and failure of the expiratory valve are the two most likely causes. A leak in the inspiratory limb is a less likely cause. Increased inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide levels may appear with a normal-looking capnogram if the expiratory valve is ineffective.

The patient will exhale into both the inspiratory and expiratory limbs if the inspiratory valve is inoperable. A slanted downstroke inspiratory phase (as the patient inhales carbon dioxide-containing gas from the inspiratory limb) and increased end-tidal carbon dioxide can be seen on the capnogram.

Even if the soda lime were exhausted, a high fresh gas flow would be enough to prevent rebreathing. The difference in oxygen concentrations in inspired and expired breaths would be less pronounced.

Hypercapnia is caused by respiratory obstruction and malignant hyperthermia, but not by rebreathing.

Iron is a necessary micronutrient for proper erythropoietic function, oxidative metabolism, and cellular immune responses. Although dietary iron absorption (1-2 mg/d) is tightly controlled, it is only just balanced by losses.

The adult body contains 35-45 mg/kg iron (about 4-5 g)

Iron can be found in a variety of forms, including haemoglobin, ferritin, haemosiderin, myoglobin, haem enzymes, and transferrin bound proteins.

Number needed to treat (NNT) is a time specific epidemiological measure that indicates how many patients would be require for an intervention to prevent one additional bad outcome. A perfect NNT would be 1, where everyone improves with treatment, thus the higher the NNT, the less effective the treatment.

Thus if you treat 1000 patients then you will expect to have 50 fewer strokes.

The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

The left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.

Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.

The right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending artery

The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.

A higher frequency ultrasound comes with a better resolution of the digital image. Ultrasound with a frequency of 15 MHz is best used in imaging of superficial organs such as the thyroid gland, muscles, tendons and breasts whereas deep organs are better imaged using a lower frequency of 2-7MHz because of its ability for deeper penetration but lower resolution. These low frequency probes are also used to diagnose ascites, pleural effusions or can be used in echocardiography.

The US probe emits and then absorbs a reflected wave. Similar to brightness control, increasing the gain will amplify the return signal which is then attenuated by the tissue. This increases the signal to noise ratio.
A high frame rate, which basically means the number of times an image is updated onto the screen per second, improves the resolution of a moving 3D image which has become more accurate as the computing power has increased.

Widening of the image field can be obtained by altering the penetration depth which is obtained by changing the frequency of the US beam

The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.

Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.

When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.

The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.

Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.

Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.

Oxygen delivery is related to blood flow as most of the oxygen binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells, although a small amount is dissolved in the plasma. Blood flow per 100 g of tissue is greatest in the kidneys.

The following is the oxygen consumption rate of different organs in ml/minute/100g

Hepatoportal = 2.2
Kidney = 6.8
Brain = 3.7
Skin = 0.38
Skeletal muscle = 0.18
Heart = 11

Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus (DA) and ductus venosus (DV) are the three important cardiac shunts in-utero.

At birth the umbilical vessels constrict in response to stretch as they are clamped. Blood flow through the ductus venosus (DV) decreases but the DV closes passively in 3-10 days.

As the pulmonary circulation is established, there is a drastic fall in pulmonary vascular resistance and an increased pulmonary blood flow. This increases flow and pressure in the Left Atrium that exceeds that of the right atrium. The difference in pressure usually leads to the IMMEDIATE closure of the foramen ovale.

The DA is functionally closed within the first 36-hours of birth in a healthy full-term newborn. Subsequent endothelial and fibroblast proliferation leads to permanent anatomical closure within 2 – 3 weeks.

Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes via the umbilical vein to the liver. Blood also bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava (IVC). The Crista dividens is a tissue flap situated at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium (RA). This flap directs the oxygen-rich blood, along the posterior aspect of the IVC, through the foramen ovale into the left atrium (LA).

The Eustachian valve also known as the valve of The IVC is a remnant of the crista dividens.

Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressing

In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

Use of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

1. It is not under voluntary control
2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

The cranial outflow consists of
1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
There are:
M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
M5 = brain

The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

Platelets are fragments of megakaryocytes and they are encapsulated by membrane.

They have no nucleus but are metabolically active and are able to express membrane receptors and release stored substances when triggered. adenosine diphosphate and serotonin are 2 of its content.

Because they have no nucleus, they are not able to produce new proteins. This is why aspirin and other drugs affect function for their entire lifespan after exposure. Its lifespan is approximately 9-10 days in normal individuals.

Platelets does NOT PRODUCE prostacyclin but are able to produce nitric oxide, prostaglandins and thromboxane.

The superior laryngeal nerve gives off two branches: the sensory branch which is the internal laryngeal nerve, and the motor branch which is the external laryngeal nerve.

The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) rises from the vagus nerve which supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid muscles.

Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.

Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
– Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
– Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
– Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
– Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min

Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressing

In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

Use of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:

Zero-order:
Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.

First-order:
Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.

Second-order
Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.

Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.

Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.

It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:

Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.

Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.

Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.

Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.

The cephalic vein is a superficial vein that runs through the forearm and the arm, before draining into the axillary vein where it terminates.

When a person forcefully expires against a closed glottis, changes occur in intrathoracic pressure that dramatically affect venous return, cardiac output, arterial pressure, and heart rate. This forced expiratory effort is called a Valsalva maneuver.

Initially during a Valsalva, intrathoracic (intrapleural) pressure becomes very positive due to compression of the thoracic organs by the contracting rib cage. This increased external pressure on the heart and thoracic blood vessels compresses the vessels and cardiac chambers by decreasing the transmural pressure across their walls. Venous compression, and the accompanying large increase in right atrial pressure, impedes venous return into the thorax. This reduced venous return, and along with compression of the cardiac chambers, reduces cardiac filling and preload despite a large increase in intrachamber pressures. Reduced filling and preload leads to a fall in cardiac output by the Frank-Starling mechanism. At the same time, compression of the thoracic aorta transiently increases aortic pressure (phase I); however, aortic pressure begins to fall (phase II) after a few seconds because cardiac output falls. Changes in heart rate are reciprocal to the changes in aortic pressure due to the operation of the baroreceptor reflex. During phase I, heart rate decreases because aortic pressure is elevated; during phase II, heart rate increases as the aortic pressure falls.

When the person starts to breathe normally again, the intrathoracic pressure declines to normal levels, the aortic pressure briefly decreases as the external compression on the aorta is removed, and heart rate briefly increases reflexively (phase III). This is followed by an increase in aortic pressure (and reflex decrease in heart rate) as the cardiac output suddenly increases in response to a rapid increase in cardiac filling (phase IV). Aortic pressure also rises above normal because of a baroreceptor, sympathetic-mediated increase in systemic vascular resistance that occurred during the Valsava.

The ventilation/perfusion ratio varies in different areas of the lung. In an upright individual, although both ventilation and perfusion increase from the apex to the base of the lung, the increase in ventilation is less than the increase in blood flow. As a result, the normal V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the apex of the lung is much greater than 1 (ventilation exceeds perfusion), whereas the V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the base of the lung is much less than 1 (perfusion exceeds ventilation).

There is more volume in the alveoli found in the apices than in the bases of the lungs. This is due to the weight of the lung stretching the apical alveoli to the maximum size. Also, the weight of the lungs pull themselves away from the chest wall, creating a negative intrapleural pressure. These factors, however, do not directly affect the PAO2.

Only 1 percent of the calcium in the human body is found in the plasma where it performs the most critical functions.

Out of this 1 percent, approximately 15% is complexed calcium bound to organic and inorganic anions, 40% is bound to albumin, and the remaining 45% circulates as free ionized calcium.

The Chvostek sign is a clinical finding associated with hypocalcaemia, or low levels of calcium in the blood. This clinical sign refers to a twitch of the facial muscles that occurs when gently tapping an individual’s cheek, in front of the ear.

Prolonged QT interval are associated with hypocalcaemia as reported in multiple studies.

The membranous urethra is the shortest part of the urethra and the least dilatable part of it.

This is as a result of it being surrounded by the external urethral sphincter which is made up of striated muscle and controls voluntary urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.

Coronary perfusion pressure(CPP), the difference between aortic diastolic pressure (Pdiastolic) and the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP), is mainly determined by the formula:

CPP = Pdiastolic -LVEDP
where
Pdiastolic is the lowest pressure in the aorta before left ventricular ejection and
LVEDP is measured directly during a cardiac catheterisation or indirectly using a pulmonary artery catheter. The pulmonary artery occlusion or wedge pressure approximates best with LVEDP.

Using this patient’s haemodynamic data:

CPP = Pdiastolic – MPAWP
COO = 70 – 12 = 58mmHg

Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

Understanding of the cardiac action potential helps with the understanding of the ECG which measures the electrical activity of the heart. This is reflected in its waveform.
The rapid depolarisation phase is reflected in the QRS complex. After this phase comes the plateau phase which is represented by the ST segment. Lastly, the T wave shows repolarisation, phase 3.

The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium. (ST segment)

Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium. (T wave)

Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

It’s a minute volume divider – True
The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.

Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.

Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.

Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.

Has three sets of bellows – False
The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves.

The shaft of the humerus has two prominent features:
1. Deltoid tuberosity – attachment for the deltoid muscle
2. Radial or spiral groove – The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery lie in the groove

Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs. The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

The following parts of the humerus are in direct contact with the indicated
nerves:
Surgical neck: axillary nerve.
Radial groove: radial nerve.
Distal end of humerus: median nerve.
Medial epicondyle: ulnar nerve.

Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35% This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as %FEV1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3 FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

The sacral hiatus is shaped by incomplete midline fusion of the posterior elements of the distal portion of S4 and S5. This inverted U shaped space is covered by the posterior aspect of the sacrococcygeal membrane and is an important landmark in caudal anaesthetic block. Distal most portion of the dural sac and the sacral hiatus usually terminate between levels S1 and S3. The dural sac ends at the level of S2 in adults and S3 in children.

An equilateral triangle is formed between the apex of the sacral hiatus and the posterior superior iliac spines. This triangle is used to determine the location of the sacral hiatus during caudal anaesthetic block.

The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.

The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.

The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.

No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.

The following is the alveolar gas equation:

PAO2 = PiO2 − PaCO2/R

Where:

PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
PiO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen inhaled.
PaCO2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.
The amount of carbon dioxide produced (200 mL/minute) divided by the amount of oxygen consumed (250 mL/minute) equals R = respiratory quotient. With a normal diet, the value is 0.8.

By subtracting the partial pressure exerted by water vapour at body temperature, the PiO2 can be calculated:

PiO2 = 0.21 × (100 kPa − 6.3 kPa)
PiO2 = 19.8

Substituting:
PAO2 = 19.8 − 10/0.8
PAO2 = 19.8 − 12.5
PAO2 = 7.3k Pa

The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is linked to an additional electrical conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles. This accessory pathway (bundle of Kent), unlike the atrioventricular (AV) node, is incapable of slowing down a rapid rate of atrial depolarization. In other words, a short circuit bypasses the AV node. Patients with a rapid ventricular response or narrow complex AV re-entry tachycardia are more likely to develop atrial fibrillation or flutter.

Digoxin can promote impulse transmission through this accessory pathway if a patient with WPWS develops atrial fibrillation because it works by blocking the AV node. This can cause ventricular fibrillation and an extremely rapid ventricular rate. As a result, it’s not advised.

Adenosine, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, among other drugs that interfere with AV nodal conduction, are also generally contraindicated.

The class III antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone and ibutilide (K+ channel block) and procainamide (Na+ channel block) are the drugs of choice.

CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

Haemorrhage, including intracranial bleeding, is a common and potentially fatal side effect of warfarin therapy, and reversing anticoagulation quickly and completely can save lives. When complete and immediate correction of the coagulation defect is required in orally anticoagulated patients with life-threatening haemorrhage, clotting factor concentrates are the only viable option.

For rapid reversal of vitamin K anticoagulants, prothrombin complex concentrates (PCC) are recommended. They contain the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and are derived from human plasma. They can be used as an adjunctive therapy in patients with major bleeding because they normalise vitamin K dependent clotting factors and restore haemostasis.

The most common treatments are fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and vitamin K. The efficacy of this approach is questioned due to the variable content of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in FFP and the effects of dilution. Significant intravascular volume challenge, as well as the possibility of rare complications like transfusion-associated lung injury or blood-borne infection, are all potential issues.

To avoid anaphylactic reactions, vitamin K should be given as a slow intravenous infusion over 30 minutes. Regardless of the route of administration, the reversal of INRs with vitamin K can take up to 24 hours to reach its maximum effect.

Reversal of anticoagulation in patients with warfarin-associated intracranial haemorrhage may be considered with factor VIIa (recombinant), but its use is controversial. There are concerns about thromboembolic events following treatment, as well as questions about assessing efficacy in changes in the INR. If the drug is to be administered, patients should be screened for an increased risk of thrombosis before the drug is given.

The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.

The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.

The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.

Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.

Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.

The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.

Every surgical procedure is associated with a stress response which comprises a number of endocrine, metabolic, and immunological changes triggered by neuronal activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. The overall metabolic effect of the stress response to surgery includes an increase in secretion of catabolic hormones, such as cortisol and catecholamine, and a decrease in secretion of anabolic hormones, such as insulin and testosterone. The increase in levels of catabolic hormones in plasma stimulates glucose production, and there is a relative lack of insulin together with impaired tissue insulin sensitivity and glucose utilization, which is called insulin resistance. Consequently, blood glucose concentrations will increase, even in the absence of pre-existing diabetes.

A study compared the effects of spinal and general anaesthesia on changes in blood glucose concentrations during surgery in nondiabetic patients. Although mean blood glucose concentrations showed a significant proportional increase during surgery in both groups, this effect was much more significant with general anaesthesia than with spinal anaesthesia. These results indicate that spinal anaesthesia is more effective than general anaesthesia in attenuating the hyperglycaemic response to surgery.

A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.

After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.

The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.

Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.

Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.

Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.

Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.

Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.

The ideal gas equation makes the following assumptions:

The gas particles have a small volume in comparison to the volume occupied by the gas.
Between the gas particles, there are no forces of interaction.
Individual gas particle collisions, as well as gas particle collisions with container walls, are elastic, meaning momentum is conserved.
PV = nRT
Where:

P = pressure
V = volume
n = moles of gas
T = temperature
R = universal gas constant

Helium is a monoatomic gas with a small helium atom. The attractive forces between helium atoms are small because the helium atom is spherical and has no dipole moment. Because helium atoms are spherical, collisions between them approach the ideal state of elasticity.

Most real gases behave qualitatively like ideal gases at standard temperatures and pressures. When intermolecular forces and molecular size become important, the ideal gas model tends to fail at lower temperatures or higher pressures. It also fails to work with the majority of heavy gases.

Helium, argon, neon, and xenon are noble or inert gases that behave the most like an ideal gas. Xenon is a noble gas with a much larger atomic size than helium.

An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.

A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.

Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.

A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.

A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.

The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it. It involves the measure of association that is pertinent to making decisions for the individuals.

Blood vessels (except capillaries and venules) have three distinctive layers (innermost to outermost):
1. Tunica intima
2. Tunica media
3. Tunica adventitia

The tunica media contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima layer by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.

The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.

CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ

CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.

The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.

Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
RQ=1

Fats:
RQ = 0.7

Proteins:
Approximately 0.9 RQ

Ethyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.

200/300 = 0.67 RQ

For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.

When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.

The glucose molecule enters the Bowman’s capsule freely and becomes part of the filtrate.

All glucose is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule when blood glucose concentrations are below a certain threshold (approximately 11 mmol/L) (PCT). Active transportation makes this possible. In the proximal tubular cells, sodium/glucose cotransporters (SGLT1 and SGLT2) are the proteins responsible.

Glucose does not normally appear in the urine below the renal threshold.

The renal glucose threshold is not set in stone and is affected by a variety of factors, including GFR, TmG, and the quantity of splay.

The different absorptive and filtering capacities of individual nephrons cause splay, which is the rounding of a glucose reabsorption curve.

The SGLT proteins have a high affinity for glucose, but not an infinite affinity. As a result, some glucose may escape reabsorption before the TmG. A decrease in renal threshold may be caused by an increase in splay.

Because the filtered glucose load is reduced and the PCT can reabsorb all of the filtered glucose despite hyperglycaemia, a low GFR causes an increase in TmG. In contrast, lowering the TmG lowers the threshold because the tubules’ ability to reabsorb glucose is reduced.

A reduction in GFR caused by severe dehydration and reduced perfusion pressure is the most obvious cause of the discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose in this scenario.

The blood vessel well is divided into 3 parts, namely:

The tunica intima, which is the deepest layer. It contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions

The tunica media, primarily consisting of the involuntary smooth muscle fibres, laid out in spiral layers with elastic fibres and connective tissue.

The tunica adventitia, which is the most superficial layer. It consists of the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.

Selection of a chest drain will depend on the external circumference.

A cannula, whether intravenous or intra-arterial, are classified according to standard wire gauge, which refers to the number of wires that can fit into the same hole. If a cannula is labelled 22G, then 22 wires will fit into the standard size hole.

A more popular measurement than SWG nowadays is cross sectional area.

When the concern for selecting equipment is the rate of flow, then it is important to consider the diameter and the radius of a parallel sided tube. These, however, are not routinely considered when comparing sizes of a cannula.

Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

So,

ARR= (24/120)-(60/240)

ARR= 0.2-0.25

ARR= 0.05 (Numerical Value)

ARR= 5%

The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

A is correct. Common myeloid progenitor cells are involved in the anaphylaxis reaction.
B is incorrect. The common lymphoid lineage gives rise to T-cells, B-cell and NK cells.
C is incorrect as megakaryocytes give rise to platelets.
D is incorrect – Neural crest cells give rise to various cells throughout the body, including melanocytes, enterochromaffin cells and Schwann cells. However, they do not give rise to mast cells.
E is incorrect. Reticulocytes give rise to erythrocytes.

This is a classic case of anaphylaxis. In this situation, IgE previously raised against antigens (in this case peanut antigen) bind to mast cells, and this causes them to degranulate.
There is release of vasoactive substances like histamine into the blood, and this is responsible for the symptoms seen. Therefore, the main type of cells involved in the pathogenesis of the disease is mast cells.

Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.

The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.

However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.

Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.

Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.

Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.

It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.

The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.

It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.

The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.

The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.

In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.

The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.

The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.

An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.

The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.

The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.

The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.

The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vessels

Direct inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle

There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

The taeniae coli are the three outer muscular bands of the cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, and descending colon.

The taeniae coli converge at the base of the appendix in the cecum where they form a complete longitudinal layer. In the ascending and descending colon, the bands are located anteriorly, posteromedially, and posterolateral.

The tenth cranial nerve (vagus nerve) has both sensory and motor divisions.

It emerges from the anterolateral surface of the medulla in a groove between the olive and the inferior cerebellar peduncle as a series of 8-10 rootlets . It leaves the skull through the middle compartment of the jugular foramen and descends within the carotid sheath between the internal carotid artery and internal jugular vein. The right vagus crosses in front of the first part of the subclavian artery. It gives off the right recurrent laryngeal nerve at this point.

The left recurrent laryngeal nerve passes around the ligamentum arteriosum.

The external laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle while the recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the other laryngeal muscles.

The cranial part of the accessory nerve supplies all the muscles of the palate, via the pharyngeal plexus and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus nerve, except the tensor veli palatini which is supplied by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve.

The Sternothyroid, Sternohyoid, and Omohyoid muscles are supplied by the ansa cervicalis while the thyrohyoid muscle is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve.

Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.

Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.

Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.

If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
It is not catabolised during starvation.
Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.

Causes of low albumin are

1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
4. Increased catabolism (very rare)

Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.

Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.

Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.

Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.

Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.

% solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml

% solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml

% solution ~ 10 mg/ml

Examples:

• • Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
  • Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
  • Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine

Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor. It causes depression of the CNS that is dose dependent and induces a dissociative anaesthetic state with profound analgesia and amnesia.

Ketamine has a chiral centre usually presented as a racemic mixture with two optical isomers, S (+) and R (-) forms. These isomers are in equal proportions. The S (+) isomer is about three times more potent than the R (-) form. The S (+) form is less likely to cause emergence delirium and hallucinations.

Ketamine is extensively metabolised by hepatic microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes producing norketamine as its main metabolite. Norketamine has a one third to one fifth as potency as its parent compound.
It increases the CMRO2, cerebral blood flow and potentially increase intracranial pressure.

Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.

ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.

In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.

The study is being conducted on a smaller level with only 200 participants and is determining the effectiveness of the drug in comparison to a placebo. These characteristics are in accordance with the second phase of trial.

Each kidney is composed of about 1.2 million uriniferous tubules. Each tubule consists of two parts that are embryologically distinct from each other. They are as follows:
a) Excretory part, called the nephron, which elaborates urine
b) Collecting part which begins as a junctional tubule from the distal convoluted tubule.

There are two types of nephrons in the kidney:
The cortical nephron comprises 80% of the total nephron and its major function is the excretion of waste products in urine whereas the juxtamedullary nephron comprises 20% of the total nephron and its major function is the concentration of urine by counter current mechanism.
In the superficial (cortical) nephrons, peritubular capillaries branch off the efferent arterioles and deliver nutrients to epithelial cells as well as serve as a blood supply for reabsorption and secretion. In juxtamedullary nephrons, the peritubular capillaries have a specialization called the vasa recta, which are long, hairpin-shaped blood vessels that follow the same course as a loop of Henle. The vasa recta serve as osmotic exchangers for the production of concentrated urine.

The kidney receives about 25% of cardiac output and about 20% of this is filtered at the glomeruli of the kidney. Thus, renal blood flow is 1200 ml/minute and renal plasma flow is 650 ml/minute

In an adult, the trachea is approximately 15 cm long. It extends at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra, from the lower border of the cricoid cartilage.

The trachea terminates between T4 and T6 at the carina or bronchial bifurcation. This variation is because of changes during respiration.

The trachea has 16-20 C-shaped cartilaginous rings that maintain its patency.

The trachea is first of the 23 generations of air passages in the tracheobronchial tree (not 25), from the trachea to the alveoli..

The inferior thyroid arteries which are branches of the thyrocervical trunk, arise from the first part of the subclavian artery and supplies the trachea.

The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.

Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.

Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.

The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).

A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.

Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.

A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.

There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

Hydrochloric acid is lost when you vomit for a long time (HCl). As a result, the following can be expected, in varying degrees of severity:

Hypokalaemia
Hypochloraemia
Increased bicarbonate to compensate for chloride loss and metabolic alkalosis

The alkalosis causes potassium to move from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment at first. Long-term vomiting and dehydration cause potassium to be excreted by the kidneys in order to conserve sodium. Dehydration can cause urea and creatinine levels to rise.

The actual base excess is always greater than the standard base excess.

The actual base excess (BE) is a measurement of a base’s contribution to a blood gas picture’s metabolic component. It’s the amount of base that needs to be added to a blood sample to bring the pH back to 7.4 after the respiratory component of a blood gas picture has been corrected (PaCO2 of 40 mmHg or 5.3 kPa). The BE has a normal range of +2 to 2. A large positive BE indicates a severe metabolic alkalosis, while a large negative BE indicates a severe metabolic acidosis. As a result, the actual BE in vitro is unaffected by CO2.

In vivo, however, standard BE is not independent of pCO2 because blood with haemoglobin acts as a better buffer than total ECF.

As a result, it is impossible to tell the difference between compensating for a respiratory disorder and compensating for the presence of a primary metabolic disorder.

The differences between in vitro and in vivo behaviour can be mostly eliminated if the BE is calculated for a haemoglobin concentration of 50 g/L (the ‘effective’ or virtual value of Hb if it was distributed throughout the extracellular space) rather than the actual haemoglobin. Because haemoglobin has a lower buffering capacity, the standard BE is higher than the actual BE. It reflects the BE better in the extracellular space rather than just the intravascular compartment.

The correct answer is the mean, median and mode of normally distributed data are the same value. This is as a result of the bell shaped curve which is equal on both sides.

The bell-shape indicates that values around the mean are more frequent in occurrence than the values farther away.

In a normal distribution:
1) +/- one standard deviation of the mean accounts for 68% of the data.
2) +/- two standard deviations of the mean accounts for 95% of the data.
3) +/- three standard deviations of the mean accounts for 99.7% of the data.

Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)

Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.

Warfarin prevents reductive metabolism of the inactive vitamin K epoxide back to its active hydroquinone form. Thus, warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors: X, IX, VII, II (prothrombin), and of the anticoagulants protein C and protein S. The therapeutic range for oral anticoagulant therapy is defined in terms of an international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the prothrombin time ratio (patient prothrombin time/mean of normal prothrombin time for lab)ISI, where the ISI exponent refers to the International Sensitivity Index and is dependent on the specific reagents and instruments used for the determination. A prolonged INR is widely used as an indication of integrity of the coagulation system in liver disease and other disorders, it has been validated only in patients in steady state on chronic warfarin therapy.

Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) is used to replace congenital or acquired vitamin-K deficiency warfarin-induced anticoagulant effect, particularly in the emergent setting.

Intravenous vitamin K has a slower onset of action compared to PCC, but is useful for long term therapy.

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) prepared from freshly donated blood is the usual source of the vitamin K-dependent factors and is the only source of factor V. The factors needed, however, are found in small quantities compared to PCC.

Cryoprecipitate is indicated for hypofibrinogenemia/dysfibrinogenemia, von Willebrand disease, haemophilia A, factor XIII deficiency, and management of bleeding related to thrombolytic therapy.

A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work

In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.

The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.

Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the risk to the baby and the mother’s safety.

There are four types of caesarean section urgency:

Category 1 – Endangering the life of the mother or the foetus
Category 2 – Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening
Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.

Caesarean sections for categories 1 and 2 should be performed as soon as possible after the decision is made, especially for category 1. For category 1 caesarean sections, a decision to deliver time of 30 minutes is currently used.

In most cases, Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of making the decision.

The condition of the woman and the unborn baby should be considered when making a decision for a quick delivery, as it may be harmful in some cases.

There is no evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (early foetal pulse decelerations and a pH of less than 7.25). Early foetal pulse decelerations are most likely caused by the uterus compressing the foetal head. The foetus is not harmed by these. A spinal anaesthetic is preferred over a general anaesthetic whenever possible.

If the foetal scalp blood pH is greater than 7.25, it’s a good idea to repeat the test later and look for any changes. When a foetus decelerates, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and kept hydrated to avoid the need for a caesarean section.

The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.

The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.

The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.

In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:

If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.

In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:

DC shocks are used as usual.
Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.

Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.

Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.

Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.

The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.

Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

The patient likely suffers from pulmonary embolism due to her history of frequent international travels. A filter is placed in the inferior vena cava to decrease the risk of future episodes of pulmonary embolism. The IVC filter is a small, wiry device that can catch blood clots and stop them from going into the heart and lungs. Your IVC is a major vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart, from where it is pumped into the lungs.

The filter is placed via a thin catheter inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. The catheter is gently moved up into your IVC, and a filter is introduced.

The IVC is a retroperitoneal organ.

Anticholinergic agents are a group of drugs that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter called acetylcholine at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous system.

Hyoscine, atropine, and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic which acts at muscarinic receptors with little activity at the nicotinic receptors.

Hyoscine and atropine are naturally occurring esters. Since Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary amine, it does not cross the blood brain barrier. Noteworthy, hyoscine, butylbromide also does not cross the blood brain barrier significantly.