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  • Question 1 - What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active B lymphocyte proliferation?

      Your Answer: Paracortex

      Correct Answer: Germinal centre

      Explanation:

      The cortex of the lymph node consists of the lymphoid nodules and sinusoids and posses a germinal centre from which B cells proliferate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      11.6
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?...

    Incorrect

    • The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?

      Your Answer: Dura mater

      Correct Answer: Tela choroidea

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus produces the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain. It consists of modified ependymal cells. Tela choroidea is a region of pia mater of the meninges and underlying ependyma that’s a part of the choroid plexus. It is a very thin layer of the connective tissue of pia mater that overlies and covers the ependyma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.7
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a: ...

    Incorrect

    • According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:

      Your Answer: Class II agent

      Correct Answer: Class Ib agent

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmicsI: Membrane stabilizing agentsIA: Quinidine, Procainamide, DisopyramideIB: Lidocaine, MexiletineIC: Propafenone, Flecainide II: β blockers – Propranolol, EsmololIII: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, SotalolIV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, DiltiazemV: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.4
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following cells are attracted to the surface of endothelium by...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cells are attracted to the surface of endothelium by selectins?

      Your Answer: Monocytes

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Selectins are expressed on the surface of the endothelium. P selectins are released from weibel-palade bodies and E selectins are induced by cytokines (TNF and IL-1). They bind to receptors on the neutrophils called saiyl lewis X.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?...

    Correct

    • Which part of the cerebellum is primarily responsible for equilibrium and eye movements?

      Your Answer: Vestibulocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The vestibulocerebellum develops at the same time as the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear. Its regulates balance between agonist and antagonist muscle contractions of the spine, hips, and shoulders during rapid movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.8
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female presents to the rheumatology clinic for review. She has a history of adult onset Still's disease and complains of joint pains and persistent skin rash despite undergoing treatment with methotrexate and etanercept. On examination, an erythematous macular rash and active synovitis is noted. CRP is high (95 mg/dl). Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Denosumab

      Correct Answer: Anakinra

      Explanation:

      Adult onset Still’s disease (AOSD) is an uncommon systemic inflammatory disease on the clinical spectrum of autoinflammatory disorders. Its presentation and clinical course may result in several well-differentiated phenotypes: from a systemic and highly symptomatic pattern to a chronic articular pattern. Overproduction of numerous pro-inflammatory cytokines is observed in AOSD. Anakinra, a human interleukin (IL)-1R antagonist, has recently been approved in the treatment of AOSD. Denosumab is a RANK ligand inhibitor used in the treatment of osteoporosis. Mepolizumab is used in the treatment of severe asthma with elevated eosinophils. There is some evidence to support the use of tocilizumab, an anti-IL6 monoclonal antibody in adult onset Still’s, but there is stronger data favouring the use of tocilizumab in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Rituximab is usually reserved for patients who are unresponsive to anakinra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      26.7
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - The cells that secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase are found in which part...

    Incorrect

    • The cells that secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase are found in which part of the stomach?

      Your Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter

      Correct Answer: Body and fundus

      Explanation:

      Stomach can be divided in to different regions. Cardia, fundus, body, antrum and pylorus from proximal end to distal end respectively. Cells that secret the inactive form of pepsin or pepsinogen are chief cells and are abundant in the body (corpus) and the fundus region of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.8
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following forms an important constituent of the brush border on the microvilli of the intestinal epithelium?

      Your Answer: Crypts

      Correct Answer: Hydrolases

      Explanation:

      There are certain enzymes which are part of the brush border cells including hydrolases also known as the brush border hydrolases. They perform the final step in digestion of certain nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.4
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?

      Your Answer: More effective histamine receptor antagonism

      Correct Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      24
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Which of the following is true for P53: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true for P53:

      Your Answer: It binds e2f and stops the cell cycle at the g 1 phase

      Correct Answer: It is induced by ‘broken’ DNA

      Explanation:

      P53 gene is activated as a result of damaged DNA and if that cannot be repaired then it activates apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - What is the most important determinant of ECF volume? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most important determinant of ECF volume?

      Your Answer: The amount of sodium in the ECF

      Explanation:

      The volume of the ECF is determined primarily by the total amount of osmotically active solute in the ECF. The composition of the ECF is discussed in Chapter 1. Because Na+ and Cl− are by far the most abundant osmotically active solutes in ECF, and because changes in Cl− are to a great extent secondary to changes in Na+, the amount of Na+ in the ECF is the most important determinant of ECF volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      6.6
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Why does arterial blood pressure drop during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Why does arterial blood pressure drop during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Progesterone relaxes vascular smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Progesterone relaxes vascular smooth muscle thus resulting In a decrease in total peripheral resistance. This accounts for the increase in the cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      28.6
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol in the adrenal gland?

      Your Answer: 11βHSD type 2

      Correct Answer: 11βHSD type 1

      Explanation:

      11β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, also known as HSD-11β or 11β-HSD, is a group of enzymes which catalyse the interconversion of active cortisol and corticosterone with inert cortisone and 11-dehydrocorticosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.7
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Cross-bridges between actin and myosin filaments contain: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cross-bridges between actin and myosin filaments contain:

      Your Answer: Tropomyosin

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      At rest troponin I is bound to actin and tropomyosin and covers the site where the myosin head interacts with actin. When calcium enters into the muscle, it binds with troponin C and causes a structural change in troponin I which moves out of the myosin binding site and causes the cross bridges between the actin and myosin filaments to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is matched correctly with regard to stem cells of the bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Hemopoietic stem cells - basophils

      Explanation:

      Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) or hemocytoblasts are the stem cells that give rise to all the other blood cells through the process of haematopoiesis. They give rise to both the myeloid and lymphoid lineages of blood cells. (Myeloid cells include monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, erythrocytes, dendritic cells, and megakaryocytes or platelets. Lymphoid cells include T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells? ...

    Correct

    • Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells are hepatic macrophages. They are responsible for 80% of the phagocytic activity in the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend. Though there is little previous history, the friend believes that he has been suffering from depression for several years, and his medications have been changed by his general practitioner quite recently.On examination the patient is agitated and confused, his pupils are dilated. He also has tremors, excessive sweating, and grinding of teeth. His heart rate is 118 beats/min, which is regular, and is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is serotonin syndrome.The serotonin syndrome is a cluster of symptoms and signs (range from barely perceptible tremor to life-threatening hyperthermia and shock). It may occur when SSRIs such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline that impair the reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic neuron are taken in combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants. It has also been reported following an overdose of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) alone.Treatment:Most cases of serotonin syndrome are mild and will resolve with removal of the offending drug alone. After stopping all serotonergic drugs, management is largely supportive and aimed at preventing complications. Patients frequently require sedation, which is best facilitated with benzodiazepines.Antipsychotics should be avoided because of their anticholinergic properties, which may inhibit sweating and heat dissipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      22.5
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which stage does the mitotic apparatus dissolute?

      Your Answer: Anaphase

      Correct Answer: Telophase

      Explanation:

      In telophase the nuclear envelope along with the nucleolus will reappear. The daughter nuclei will enlarge as the chromosome will decondense again. Along with this, cytokinesis will occur. At the end of cytokinesis the daughter centrioles will move from the poles to the intercellular bridge where they will be disassembled and complete the separation of the daughter cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.1
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil citrate?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase V

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.1
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Concerning protein digestion: ...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning protein digestion:

      Your Answer: Pepsin functions optimally in an acidic ph of 3.2 to 5.6

      Correct Answer: Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum

      Explanation:

      Human pepsinogens can be divided into two immunochemically distinct groups: Pepsinogen I (PG I) and Pepsinogen II (PGII). PG I is secreted mainly by chief cells in the fundic mucosa whereas PGII is secreted by the pyloric glands and the proximal duodenal mucosa. Maximal acid secretion correlates with PG I. Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum/jejunum. Pepsin functions best in an acidic environment and specifically at a pH of 1.5 to 3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      19.3
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which three parietal cell agonists bind at the basolateral membrane at specific receptors...

    Incorrect

    • Which three parietal cell agonists bind at the basolateral membrane at specific receptors respectively: M3 , H2 , CCK-B, to stimulate acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Histamine, acetylcholine, somatostatin

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine, histamine , gastrin

      Explanation:

      The three agonists of parietal cell secretion are gastrin, acetylcholine and histamine. Parietal cells are responsible for the secretion of HCl and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0.3
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Where does the pituitary gland lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the pituitary gland lie?

      Your Answer: Around the 4th ventricle

      Correct Answer: In a pocket of the sphenoid bone at the base of the brain

      Explanation:

      The pituitary lies in a small depression in the sphenoid bone, known as the sella turcica or Turkish saddle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      20792.2
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Type 2 hypersensitivity is mediated by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Type 2 hypersensitivity is mediated by:

      Your Answer: IgA and complement

      Correct Answer: IgG, IgM & complement

      Explanation:

      In type II hypersensitivity the antibodies, IgG and IgM bind to antigens to form complexes that activate the classical pathway of complement to eliminate cells presenting foreign antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0.4
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer: 2n

      Correct Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true:

      Your Answer: The offspring of a heterozygous individual has a 25% chance of inheriting the chromosome carrying the disease allele

      Correct Answer: The offspring of a heterozygous individual has a 50% chance of inheriting the chromosome carrying the disease allele

      Explanation:

      50% of the children will be effected from parents who are heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disorder. An allele can be dominant or recessive. Individuals, meanwhile, can be homozygous or heterozygous: individuals who are homozygous for a certain gene carry two copies of the same allele. individuals who are heterozygous for a certain gene carry two different alleles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      166406.5
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in: ...

    Correct

    • The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in:

      Your Answer: Mitochondria and cytoplasm

      Explanation:

      The urea cycle (also known as the ornithine cycle) is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea ((NH2)2CO) from ammonia (NH3). The urea cycle consists of four enzymatic reactions: one mitochondrial and three cytosolic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 47-year-old male with type II diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male with type II diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic with a history suggestive of erectile dysfunction. You decide to start him on sildenafil citrate. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications:- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      16.8
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Poiseuille method

      Correct Answer: Indicator dilution method

      Explanation:

      There are two methods of calculating the cardiac output in humans other than doppler with echocardiography: The direct Fick’s method and the indicator dilution method. In the indicator dilution technique, a known amount of a substance such as a dye or, more commonly, a radioactive isotope is injected into an arm vein and the concentration of the indicator in serial samples of arterial blood is determined. The output of the heart is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation through the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      28.5
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Which lipoprotein is responsible for lowering of plasma lipids? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which lipoprotein is responsible for lowering of plasma lipids?

      Your Answer: VLDL

      Correct Answer: HDL

      Explanation:

      High-density lipoproteins (HDL) are one of the five major groups of lipoproteins. Lipoproteins are complex particles composed of multiple proteins which transport all fat molecules (lipids) around the body within the water outside cells. Unlike the larger lipoprotein particles which deliver fat molecules to cells, HDL particles remove fat molecules from cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      49.9
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - The interventricular septum is supplied anteriorly by the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The interventricular septum is supplied anteriorly by the?

      Your Answer: Circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The anterior interventricular artery or left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior 2/3rds of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      33.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immunology (1/5) 20%
Medicine (8/37) 22%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/7) 29%
Connective Tissue (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/6) 0%
Genetics (0/5) 0%
Renal (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/4) 25%
Endocrinology (0/3) 0%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
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